Examkin

All practice questions

4581 questions

All types4,581Multiple choice2,372Multiple select712True / False174Numeric188Matching670Ordering415Fill in the blank20Short answer30
Question 4161Question →

According to the state agricultural economic profile and Coffee Board reports, arrange the following coffee-producing districts of Karnataka in descending order of their total annual production contribution:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Kodagu → Chikkamagaluru → Hassan → Shivamogga
Karnataka accounts for over 70% of India's total coffee production. Within the state, production is heavily concentrated across three traditional districts in the Western Ghats: Kodagu leads with over 50% of the state's output, followed by Chikkamagaluru with approximately 32%–35%, Hassan with roughly 12%–14%, and Shivamogga contributing a minor fraction from peripheral tracts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the top coffee-producing district in Karnataka.
Kodagu (Coorg) produces over half of the state's total harvest, establishing it in the first position.
Kodagu possesses the largest acreage under Arabica and Robusta cultivation combined in the state.
2
Determine the second and third primary commercial plantation hubs.
Chikkamagaluru holds the second position followed by Hassan in the third position.
Chikkamagaluru yields roughly one-third of the state total, while Hassan's Sakleshpur belt contributes approximately 13%.
3
Position the peripheral non-core coffee area.
Shivamogga is placed last among the given districts.
Shivamogga has limited agro-climatic coverage dedicated to commercial coffee plantations relative to the traditional core districts.

Key Concept

Spatial distribution and regional output hierarchy of commercial plantation crops in Karnataka
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4162Question →

Under the flagship welfare guarantees in Telangana, the state government launched the 'Gruha Jyothi Scheme' to provide subsidized power to economically weaker households. Which of the following statements accurately describe the provisions and eligibility criteria of this scheme?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Eligible domestic households receive up to 200 units of free electricity every month.; Beneficiaries must possess an active Food Security Card (White Ration Card) to avail of the financial subsidy.

Answer

The statements specifying the provision of up to 200 units of free monthly domestic electricity and the requirement of an active Food Security Card (White Ration Card) are both correct.
The correct statements identify that the Gruha Jyothi scheme provides up to 200 units of free domestic electricity per month and requires an active Food Security Card (White Ration Card) for beneficiary verification.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the core entitlement and monthly consumption ceiling under the scheme.
The initiative guarantees zero-charge domestic power up to 200 units per month to eligible households.
To assess whether the benefit quota and target consumer segment are accurately defined.
2
Verify the beneficiary identification document and socioeconomic eligibility requirements.
Possession of a state-issued White Ration Card (Food Security Card) is required to authenticate household eligibility.
To evaluate whether targeting parameters conform to state guidelines.
3
Examine the scope of consumer coverage and fiscal funding structure.
Commercial premises are excluded, and the scheme is entirely funded by the state exchequer rather than through a central funding ratio.
To rule out misconceptions regarding commercial coverage and central sponsorship.

Key Concept

State Welfare Scheme Targeting and Operational Guidelines
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4163Question →

Consider the following statements regarding chemical fertilizers and their industrial applications in agriculture:

1. Urea (NH2CONH2\text{NH}_2\text{CONH}_2) has the highest nitrogen content (approximately 46%46\%) among all solid commercial nitrogenous fertilizers, supplying nitrogen in the amide form.
2. Single Superphosphate (SSP) is manufactured industrially by digesting ground rock phosphate with concentrated nitric acid.
3. Neem-coating of urea retards the activity of nitrifying bacteria in the soil, thereby decreasing nitrogen loss via leaching and volatilization.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 only are correct.
The correct selection includes statements 1 and 3. Urea contains 46%46\% nitrogen by mass in amide form, representing the highest concentration among solid nitrogenous fertilizers. Neem coating provides natural triterpenoids that function as nitrification inhibitors, slowing the transformation of ammonium to nitrate and mitigating leaching and denitrification losses. The second statement is incorrect because Single Superphosphate is industrially manufactured using concentrated sulfuric acid rather than nitric acid.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the composition and nitrogen delivery mechanism of urea (Statement 1).
Urea (NH2CONH2\text{NH}_2\text{CONH}_2) has a molar mass of 60 g/mol60\text{ g/mol} with two nitrogen atoms contributing 28 g/mol28\text{ g/mol} (2860×100≈46.6%\frac{28}{60} \times 100 \approx 46.6\%). It delivers nitrogen in amide form which is converted to ammoniacal and nitrate forms in soil.
Confirming the exact chemical formulation and percentage composition validates the first statement.
2
Analyze the industrial synthesis of Single Superphosphate (Statement 2).
Single Superphosphate (SSP) is produced by reacting insoluble fluorapatite/rock phosphate (Ca3(PO4)2\text{Ca}_3(\text{PO}_4)_2) with concentrated sulfuric acid (H2SO4\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4) to form water-soluble monocalcium phosphate (Ca(H2PO4)2\text{Ca}(\text{H}_2\text{PO}_4)_2) and gypsum (CaSO4⋅2H2O\text{CaSO}_4\cdot2\text{H}_2\text{O}). Treatment with nitric acid produces nitrophosphate instead.
Identifying the specific mineral acid used in industrial phosphorus fertilizer manufacture shows the second statement is false.
3
Assess the chemical and biological function of neem-coated urea (Statement 3).
Neem oil contains bioactive triterpenoids that inhibit *Nitrosomonas* and *Nitrobacter* soil bacteria, slowing the oxidative conversion of ammonium into highly leachable nitrate.
Verifying the nitrification inhibition property confirms that the third statement is correct.

Key Concept

Chemical composition, industrial synthesis, and biochemical efficiency mechanisms of nitrogenous and phosphatic fertilizers.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4164Question →

With reference to the traditional 'Chhau' dance-theatre heritage of eastern India and its distinct regional styles, which of the following statements is correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Mayurbhanj Chhau in Odisha is distinguished from the Purulia and Seraikela styles by being performed entirely without masks, relying instead on agile body language and martial movements.

Answer

The statement specifying that Mayurbhanj Chhau in Odisha is performed entirely without masks, relying on body language and martial postures, is correct.
Mayurbhanj Chhau of Odisha differs from both Seraikela Chhau (Jharkhand) and Purulia Chhau (West Bengal) primarily because its performers do not wear masks. Instead, the artists convey heroism, mythological themes, and emotion through dynamic martial stances (chalis and upflis) and facial expressiveness, accompanied by the traditional rhythmic beats of the dhol and dhamsa.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the regional variations and structural features of the three distinct Chhau dance traditions in eastern India.
Identified the three major schools: Seraikela Chhau (Jharkhand), Purulia Chhau (West Bengal), and Mayurbhanj Chhau (Odisha).
State civil services examinations require precise discrimination between adjacent regional art forms and their specific stylistic hallmarks.
2
Examine the mask-wearing convention across all three regional schools.
Seraikela uses stylized symbolic masks; Purulia uses elaborate papier-mâché masks representing mythological characters; Mayurbhanj does not use masks at all.
The presence or absence of masks is the primary defining typological difference among the sub-genres of Chhau dance.
3
Evaluate the options against regional geography, patronage, and musical instrumentation.
The option highlighting the unmasked martial nature of Mayurbhanj Chhau accurately describes the tradition.
Eliminates incorrect pairings of instruments, geographical origins, and performance characteristics.

Key Concept

Regional variation, stylistic attributes, and patronage of folk dance-drama traditions (Chhau heritage)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4165Question →

Arrange the following flagship national governance initiatives and missions of the Government of India in chronological order of their official launch or rollout, from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is Jal Jeevan Mission (August 2019), followed by PM SVANidhi (June 2020), PM GatiShakti National Master Plan (October 2021), and National Green Hydrogen Mission (January 2023).
The correct order follows the chronological progression of government rollouts: Jal Jeevan Mission was launched on August 15, 2019; PM SVANidhi was initiated on June 1, 2020; PM GatiShakti was introduced on October 13, 2021; and the National Green Hydrogen Mission received official Cabinet approval on January 4, 2023.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the launch period of Jal Jeevan Mission
August 2019
Announced during the Independence Day address in August 2019 to ensure potable tap water supply to all rural homes.
2
Determine the rollout date of PM SVANidhi
June 2020
Introduced as part of the AtmaNirbhar Bharat package in June 2020 to provide collateral-free working capital loans to street vendors affected by pandemic lockdowns.
3
Identify the launch date of PM GatiShakti National Master Plan
October 2021
Unveiled in October 2021 as a GIS-based digital platform for synchronized infrastructure development.
4
Identify the approval date of the National Green Hydrogen Mission
January 2023
Approved by the Union Cabinet in early January 2023 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
5
Assemble the verified initiatives chronologically
Jal Jeevan Mission (2019) -> PM SVANidhi (2020) -> PM GatiShakti (2021) -> National Green Hydrogen Mission (2023)
Orders the governance initiatives accurately across their respective launch years.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of central governance missions, economic relief measures, infrastructure initiatives, and clean energy policies in India.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4166Question →

Match the state government welfare schemes in List-I with their primary operational objectives in List-II, and identify the correct combinations:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Pudhumai Penn Scheme (Tamil Nadu)
MEDISEP Scheme (Kerala)
Har Hith Store Scheme (Haryana)
Mukhya Mantri Sukh Ashray Yojana (Himachal Pradesh)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Pudhumai Penn Scheme matches with direct monthly financial support for female students entering higher education; MEDISEP Scheme matches with comprehensive cashless health insurance for state employees and pensioners; Har Hith Store Scheme matches with youth self-employment through retail grocery franchises; Mukhya Mantri Sukh Ashray Yojana matches with state guardianship, stipend, and education for orphan children.
Each scheme is accurately paired with its core mandate: Pudhumai Penn provides higher education incentives for female government school graduates, MEDISEP delivers cashless medical coverage to state personnel and retirees, Har Hith Store fosters micro-retail entrepreneurship for youth, and Sukh Ashray Yojana provides comprehensive state guardianship to orphans.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Pudhumai Penn Scheme (Tamil Nadu)
Corresponds to the higher education incentive providing ₹1,000 monthly aid to girl students from government schools.
The scheme directly targets female gross enrollment ratio in collegiate education.
2
Analyze MEDISEP Scheme (Kerala)
Corresponds to the health insurance scheme for government employees and pensioners.
MEDISEP specifically provides cashless inpatient coverage up to defined annual thresholds for state staff.
3
Analyze Har Hith Store Scheme (Haryana)
Corresponds to the youth entrepreneurship initiative via retail outlets.
The program leverages public-private retail logistics to generate self-employment in rural and semi-urban localities.
4
Analyze Mukhya Mantri Sukh Ashray Yojana (Himachal Pradesh)
Corresponds to the orphan welfare and state-as-guardian framework.
The legislation provides institutional cover, skilling, and living allowances for orphan youth.

Key Concept

State-specific flagship welfare policies and target beneficiary mechanisms across Indian states
Question 4167Question →

You are an Assistant Returning Officer (ARO) coordinating the digitization of electoral rolls. During cross-departmental coordination meetings, the lead IT Systems Manager frequently interrupts your presentations, dismisses your statutory compliance checks as 'bureaucratic delays,' and makes undocumented changes to the data verification workflow. This behavior is causing significant confusion among the field staff. Which of the following is the most assertive and professionally appropriate way to resolve this conflict?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Request a dedicated discussion with the IT Manager, objectively outline how the undocumented workflow changes disrupt field operations, and collaboratively establish a structured protocol that ensures both technical efficiency and statutory compliance.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to request a dedicated discussion with the IT Manager to objectively outline the impacts of their behavior and collaboratively establish a structured protocol.
The correct answer demonstrates true assertiveness. It addresses the issue directly and privately, uses objective observations about the impact of the behavior (confusion among field staff), and seeks a collaborative but firm resolution that respects both parties' roles while enforcing statutory compliance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the conflict scenario.
The IT Manager's behavior includes both interpersonal disrespect (interruptions) and procedural violations (undocumented changes), creating operational confusion.
Understanding the dual nature of the conflict is required to formulate an appropriate administrative response.
2
Evaluate the choices against the principles of assertive communication.
Assertiveness requires clear, objective communication of boundaries without resorting to aggression or submission.
Administrative problem-solving relies on de-escalation and functional collaboration.
3
Eliminate inappropriate conflict resolution styles.
Public confrontation is aggressive. Revoking access is extreme and premature. Allowing undocumented changes is passive and violates protocol.
These approaches either fail to solve the operational issue, escalate the interpersonal tension, or compromise statutory integrity.
4
Select the optimal assertive response.
The correct response involves private, direct communication focusing on objective impacts and cooperative protocol establishment.
This approach balances respect for the IT Manager's technical role with firm enforcement of administrative compliance.

Key Concept

Assertiveness and Conflict Resolution in Administration
Question 4168Question →

During a public consultation regarding a new crop insurance scheme, a representative of a farmers' cooperative angrily addresses the District Agriculture Officer (DAO): 'Your field staff just hand out complex forms and reject our claims on minor technicalities. This entire process is designed to cheat us!'

Which of the following responses by the DAO best demonstrates the active listening technique of 'paraphrasing' to de-escalate the situation and establish a constructive feedback loop?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: You are frustrated because the application process is overly complex, and the subsequent rejections make the scheme feel unfair and unhelpful to the farmers.

Answer

The response that accurately reflects both the farmers' frustration and the core issue of complex forms and perceived unfairness.
The correct response effectively demonstrates paraphrasing by capturing both the emotional undertone (frustration) and the substantive complaint (complexity and rejections causing a sense of unfairness). By mirroring the core message without being defensive or immediately trying to fix the problem, the officer validates the farmers' concerns. This validation is the crucial first step in active listening to de-escalate anger and open a constructive channel for problem-solving.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the speaker's statement for content and emotion.
Content: Forms are complex, claims rejected on technicalities, perceived as cheating. Emotion: Angry, frustrated, distrustful.
Effective active listening requires identifying both what is being said and the underlying feelings behind the statement.
2
Evaluate the options against the principles of 'paraphrasing' in active listening.
Only one option restates the speaker's message and feelings in the listener's own words without adding judgment, defensiveness, or premature solutions.
Paraphrasing validates the speaker's perspective, de-escalates anger, and creates a foundation for a constructive feedback loop.

Key Concept

Active Listening: Paraphrasing and Empathic Responding
Question 4169Question →

Arrange the following historic monuments representing the regional evolution of Kalinga temple architecture and cultural heritage in correct chronological order of their construction, from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is Parasurameswara Temple (7th–8th century CE), Mukteswara Temple (10th century CE), Lingaraja Temple (11th century CE), and the Sun Temple at Konark (13th century CE).
The architectural heritage of Kalinga temples developed across distinct sequential phases: Early phase under the Sailodbhavas (Parasurameswara Temple, 7th–8th century CE), Transitional phase under the Somavamshis (Mukteswara Temple, 10th century CE), Mature phase under the later Somavamshis (Lingaraja Temple, 11th century CE), and the Grand culminative phase under the Eastern Gangas (Konark Sun Temple, 13th century CE).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the early developmental phase monument
Parasurameswara Temple is identified as the earliest (7th–8th century CE, Sailodbhava era).
It exhibits early stylistic traits: flat-roofed Jagamohana, simple carving, and triratha sanctum.
2
Identify the transitional stylistic phase monument
Mukteswara Temple is placed second (circa 10th century CE, early Somavamshi era).
It introduced the stepped pyramidal roof for the Jagamohana and the famous ornamental arched torana.
3
Identify the mature culmination phase monument
Lingaraja Temple is placed third (11th century CE, mature Somavamshi era).
It achieved the grandest expression of the four-structure layout: Vimana, Jagamohana, Natamandira, and Bhogamandapa.
4
Identify the monumental zenith monument
Konark Sun Temple is placed last (13th century CE, Eastern Ganga dynasty).
Commissioned by King Narasimhadeva I as a colossal chariot of the Sun God, marking the peak and final grand phase of regional temple architecture.

Key Concept

Chronological and stylistic evolution of regional Kalinga temple architecture and ruling dynasty patronage.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4170Question →

Regarding the statutory framework and institutional mechanisms established under the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, evaluate the following statements:

1. The Data Protection Board of India is empowered to inquire into personal data breaches and direct urgent remedial measures.
2. The Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) serves as the designated appellate body to hear appeals against decisions of the Data Protection Board.
3. The statutory financial penalty for failing to take reasonable security safeguards to prevent a personal data breach is capped at a maximum of ₹50 crore per instance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The statement identifying '1 and 2 only' is correct. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 establishes the Data Protection Board of India as the primary enforcement body and designates the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) as the appellate authority. Meanwhile, the third statement is false because the maximum penalty for failure to adopt reasonable security safeguards to prevent personal data breaches is ₹250 crore, rather than ₹50 crore.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the statutory role and powers of the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI).
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, the Data Protection Board of India functions as an adjudicatory mechanism tasked with inquiring into data breaches, directing mitigation, and levying financial penalties.
The Act establishes DPBI as a digital-by-design regulatory authority for enforcement.
2
Identify the designated appellate tribunal under Section 29 of the Act.
Statement 2 is correct. Any person aggrieved by an order of the Data Protection Board may appeal before the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT).
TDSAT is explicitly designated in the legislation as the appellate authority to ensure specialized and speedy dispute resolution.
3
Examine the statutory penalty structure in the Schedule of the Act.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Schedule to the DPDP Act, 2023 prescribes a maximum penalty of up to ₹250 crore (not ₹50 crore) for failure to take reasonable security safeguards to prevent a personal data breach.
Higher penalty thresholds were established to ensure strong deterrence against organizational negligence.

Key Concept

Statutory Architecture and Penalty Provisions of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4171Question →

Match the evolutionary theories and biological principles in List-I with their primary explanatory mechanisms in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Lamarckism
Darwinism
Mutation Theory
Germplasm Theory

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Lamarckism corresponds to the inheritance of acquired traits via use and disuse; Darwinism corresponds to differential survival and reproductive success driving adaptation; Mutation Theory corresponds to sudden discontinuous variations; and Germplasm Theory corresponds to genetic transmission occurring strictly through germ cells.
Each evolutionary concept is correctly paired with its foundational principle: Lamarckism with the inheritance of acquired characteristics through use and disuse; Darwinism with natural selection via differential reproduction; Mutation Theory with sudden, discontinuous saltatory changes; and Germplasm Theory with the strict segregation and heritability of germline cells.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the foundational mechanism of Lamarckism
Lamarckism matches with phenotypic modifications developed through use and disuse being inherited.
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck proposed that environmental needs induce physiological changes in somatic organs which are then transmitted to subsequent generations.
2
Identify the foundational mechanism of Darwinism
Darwinism matches with differential survival and reproductive success of organisms with favorable traits.
Charles Darwin established natural selection as the mechanism whereby organisms possessing beneficial variations survive and reproduce at higher rates.
3
Identify the core principle of Hugo de Vries's Mutation Theory
Mutation Theory matches with evolution proceeding through sudden, discontinuous single-step large variations.
Hugo de Vries posited that speciation is caused by sudden, discrete genetic alterations (saltations) rather than gradual continuous variations.
4
Identify the core concept of August Weismann's Germplasm Theory
Germplasm Theory matches with inheritance operating exclusively through reproductive germ cells.
August Weismann experimentally showed that changes in the somatoplasm cannot reach the germplasm, precluding the inheritance of acquired somatic traits.

Key Concept

Foundational Theories and Mechanisms of Biological Evolution
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4172Question →

During the course of administrative duties, civil servants must adapt their conflict resolution strategies to fit specific organizational challenges. Match the following conflict management approaches with the administrative scenario that best demonstrates their application.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Competing Approach
Collaborating Approach
Avoiding Approach
Accommodating Approach

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct pairings are: Competing Approach with unilateral enforcement, Collaborating Approach with protocol redesign, Avoiding Approach with sidestepping the disagreement, and Accommodating Approach with conceding to the peer's preference.
Each conflict resolution strategy represents a specific balance of assertiveness and cooperativeness suitable for different situations. Collaborating creates win-win outcomes by addressing everyone's needs, Accommodating preserves professional relationships through yielding, Competing applies executive authority for swift resolutions during crises, and Avoiding appropriately withdraws from trivial or self-resolving disputes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scenario for the Joint Director who ensures both teams achieve their operational targets.
This reflects a win-win outcome where no concessions are made on the final goals.
Collaborating involves maximizing both assertiveness and cooperativeness to find mutually beneficial solutions.
2
Examine the Deputy Secretary's decision to concede entirely on the timing of a meeting.
This reflects yielding to the other party to preserve workplace harmony.
Accommodating means prioritizing the other party's needs over one's own, showing high cooperativeness and low assertiveness.
3
Evaluate the Municipal Commissioner's unilateral enforcement of a directive against opposition.
This reflects forcing a decision due to an immediate necessity.
Competing relies on high assertiveness and authority to achieve an objective at the expense of others' preferences.
4
Assess the Audit Officer's decision to sidestep a minor disagreement.
This reflects withdrawing from the conflict without making an administrative intervention.
Avoiding is characterized by a lack of both assertiveness and cooperativeness, typically used when an issue is trivial.

Key Concept

Thomas-Kilmann Conflict Handling Modes in Administration
Question 4173Question →

Match the traditional state mural and painting heritage art forms in List-I with their characteristic cultural community and regional practices in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Pithora Wall Art
Aipan Folk Art
Cheriyal Scroll Painting
Sohrai Khovar Murals

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Pithora Wall Art corresponds to the sacred ritual wall art of Rathwa and Bhil communities; Aipan Folk Art corresponds to the geometric folk art of Kumaon using rice paste; Cheriyal Scroll Painting corresponds to the narrative scroll art of Telangana; and Sohrai Khovar Murals correspond to the indigenous mural tradition of Jharkhand.
Each art form is accurately matched with its indigenous community and cultural geography: Pithora is the ritual horse mural of the Bhil/Rathwa tribes; Aipan is the red-and-white geometric sacred art of Kumaon; Cheriyal is the narrative cloth scroll art of Telangana; and Sohrai-Khovar is the seasonal mud mural art practiced by indigenous women in Jharkhand.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the socio-cultural and regional origin of Pithora painting
Pithora is a living tribal ritual art practiced by the Rathwa and Bhil tribes of eastern Gujarat and adjoining Madhya Pradesh districts, characterized by depictions of horses and village deities.
This establishes the link between Pithora Wall Art and the Rathwa/Bhil ritual tradition.
2
Identify the geographical and cultural domain of Aipan art
Aipan is a traditional ritualistic folk art of Kumaon (Uttarakhand), created on a background of brick-red clay (geru) with rice flour paste (bisvar) for festivals and ceremonies.
This matches Aipan Folk Art with the Kumaoni geometric and spiritual art tradition.
3
Examine the distinct medium and region of Cheriyal and Sohrai Khovar paintings
Cheriyal represents the Nakashi scroll storytelling heritage of Telangana, while Sohrai-Khovar represents the GI-tagged tribal mud wall mural art of Hazaribagh, Jharkhand.
This completes the correct pairing for the remaining two regional traditions.

Key Concept

State Folk, Tribal, and Narrative Painting Heritage Traditions of India
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4174Question →

Match each of the following digital governance platforms of the Government of India with its primary operational mandate:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

PRAGATI Platform
CPGRAMS Portal
GeM (Government e-Marketplace)
e-NAM Portal

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

PRAGATI Platform matches with the high-level infrastructure monitoring system using ICT and video conferencing; CPGRAMS Portal matches with the centralized citizen grievance intake and resolution mechanism under DARPG; GeM matches with the dedicated digital public procurement ecosystem; e-NAM Portal matches with the agricultural market integration network.
Each digital governance platform is mapped to its established mandate: PRAGATI monitors flagship national projects and critical schemes; CPGRAMS provides the unified interface for lodging and tracking citizen grievances; GeM serves as the national public procurement marketplace; and e-NAM provides the electronic trading platform for physical agricultural mandis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the functional scope of PRAGATI
PRAGATI connects the PMO, Union Secretaries, and State Chief Secretaries for real-time monitoring of mega projects, pairing with the ICT and spatial data project review description.
PRAGATI specifically serves pro-active governance and project monitoring.
2
Identify the mandate of CPGRAMS
CPGRAMS serves as the nodal citizen grievance platform managed by DARPG, pairing with the centralized citizen grievance redressal mechanism.
It functions as a 24x7 single-window grievance submission portal.
3
Identify the role of GeM and e-NAM
GeM governs government procurement of goods and services, while e-NAM connects APMC mandis for agri-trade.
Differentiating procurement governance from agricultural commodity market unification completes all matches.

Key Concept

Core mandates and operational architectures of flagship digital governance platforms in India
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 4175Question →

In the study of molecular genetics and evolutionary biology, sickle-cell anemia serves as a classic model of interaction between genetic mutations and natural selection. Which of the following statements correctly describes the genetic basis of sickle-cell anemia and its evolutionary significance in human populations?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It is caused by a point mutation in the beta-globin gene, and heterozygous individuals exhibit higher survival rates in malaria-endemic regions due to balancing selection.

Answer

It is caused by a point mutation in the beta-globin gene, and heterozygous individuals exhibit higher survival rates in malaria-endemic regions due to balancing selection.
The choice stating that sickle-cell anemia is caused by a point mutation in the beta-globin gene and maintained by balancing selection due to malaria resistance is correct. A point mutation at the sixth codon of the beta-globin gene (HBBHBB) substitutes glutamic acid with valine. In malaria-endemic geographical zones, heterozygous individuals (HbA/HbSHb^A/Hb^S) possess a distinct survival advantage against severe *Plasmodium falciparum* malaria while avoiding the fatal complications of homozygous sickle-cell anemia (HbS/HbSHb^S/Hb^S), exemplifying heterozygote advantage under balancing natural selection.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the molecular and genetic basis of sickle-cell anemia
Sickle-cell disease is caused by a single nucleotide substitution (point mutation/transversion of A to T) in the sixth codon of the beta-globin (HBBHBB) gene on chromosome 11, replacing hydrophilic glutamic acid with hydrophobic valine (GAG→GTGGAG \rightarrow GTG).
Establishes that the condition is a monogenic point mutation rather than a chromosomal anomaly or mitochondrial inheritance.
2
Analyze the physiological phenotype and evolutionary pressure in malaria-endemic areas
Heterozygous carriers (HbA/HbSHb^A/Hb^S) produce both normal and abnormal hemoglobin, causing red blood cells infected with *Plasmodium falciparum* to sickle prematurely and be cleared by the spleen before the parasite completes its intraerythrocytic cycle.
Identifies the specific biological mechanism granting resistance to severe falciparum malaria without causing full sickle-cell disease.
3
Apply the principles of population genetics and natural selection
Heterozygote advantage (overdominance) leads to balancing selection, which actively maintains both the normal HbAHb^A and mutant HbSHb^S alleles in human populations where malaria is endemic.
Connects molecular genetics to evolutionary mechanisms.

Key Concept

Molecular point mutation in hemoglobin beta chain and balancing selection via heterozygote advantage against falciparum malaria
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 4176Question →

In the context of state-level social welfare and women empowerment initiatives, evaluate the following statements regarding the 'Subhadra Yojana' implemented by the Government of Odisha:

1. It provides a total financial assistance of ₹50,000 to eligible women beneficiaries over a period of five years.
2. The annual assistance of ₹10,000 is disbursed in two equal installments on the occasions of Raksha Bandhan and International Women's Day.
3. The financial benefit is universal and extended to all women residing in the state irrespective of age criteria and income brackets.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The Subhadra Yojana launched by Odisha provides ₹10,000 per year in two equal tranches of ₹5,000 each on Raksha Bandhan and International Women's Day, totaling ₹50,000 over five years. Beneficiaries must satisfy specific age (21–60 years) and economic criteria, making only statements 1 and 2 correct.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding financial quantum and duration
Statement 1 is correct. The Subhadra Yojana provides ₹50,000 over five financial years (from 2024–25 to 2028–29) at ₹10,000 per year.
Verify the budgetary allocation and financial entitlements defined in the official scheme guidelines.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding disbursement mechanism and dates
Statement 2 is correct. The annual ₹10,000 benefit is transferred directly via DBT in two equal installments of ₹5,000 each on Rakhi Purnima (Raksha Bandhan) and International Women's Day (March 8).
Verify the operational timeline and installment structure specified by the Women and Child Development Department.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding beneficiary coverage and eligibility conditions
Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme is targeted rather than universal; eligible women must be between 21 and 60 years of age, covered under NFSA/SFSS or from households with annual income within prescribed limits, excluding government servants and income tax payees.
Evaluate eligibility criteria and statutory exclusion guidelines to avoid conflating targeted cash transfers with universal basic income.

Key Concept

Key parameters, disbursement framework, and eligibility thresholds of state flagship welfare programs
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 4177Question →

The newly promulgated Aquifer Resilience and Irrigation Directive (ARID) shifts the state's agricultural subsidy model from a flat acreage-based system to a dynamic allocation framework linked directly to real-time groundwater telemetry. Historically, financial assistance for irrigation equipment was distributed based primarily on the total area of arable land owned by a farmer. This traditional approach perversely incentivized the cultivation of water-intensive cash crops, such as sugarcane and paddy, even in severely semi-arid districts facing acute water stress.

Under the new ARID framework, financial support for agricultural installations is mathematically pegged to the localized aquifer recharge rate, which is measured quarterly by decentralized, automated sensor networks. Consequently, farmers residing in districts exhibiting a negative groundwater draft now receive significantly higher subsidies for transitioning to xerophytic, drought-resistant crop varieties. Conversely, state subsidies for traditional, high-volume irrigation infrastructure—such as deep-well submersible pumps—in these exact same zones are severely curtailed. The policy explicitly aims to decouple agricultural productivity from the unsustainable extraction of finite groundwater resources.

Furthermore, the directive incorporates a novel peer-monitoring mechanism designed to leverage local social structures. Under this provision, village-level agricultural cooperatives are granted a substantial collective financial bonus if the aggregate water table within their administrative jurisdiction stabilizes or improves over a continuous two-year period. By tying communal financial rewards to macroscopic environmental indicators, the policy effectively transforms water conservation from a punitive, individual compliance burden into a community-managed economic asset, encouraging farmers to actively police local extraction rates.

Evaluate whether the following statement represents a valid practical application of the passage's thesis:

A village cooperative operating under the ARID framework would be acting in its direct economic interest by pressuring its members to abandon plans for installing new high-capacity borewells.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: True

Answer

The statement is true because restricting the installation of high-capacity borewells helps stabilize the water table, which is the specific condition required for the cooperative to earn the state's collective financial bonus.
The correct answer accurately reflects the direct cause-and-effect relationship established by the ARID policy: communal bonuses are earned by stabilizing the water table, which practically necessitates restricting excessive groundwater extraction methods like new high-capacity borewells.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the financial incentive structure described in the passage.
The ARID framework grants a substantial collective bonus to village cooperatives if their local water table stabilizes over a two-year period.
Understanding the condition for the communal reward is necessary to evaluate the cooperative's motivations.
2
Determine the physical impact of new high-capacity borewells on the local environment.
High-capacity borewells increase groundwater extraction, which lowers and destabilizes the water table.
Linking the agricultural infrastructure to the environmental metric allows for the assessment of policy outcomes.
3
Evaluate the cooperative's logical behavioral response to the policy.
To secure the financial bonus, the cooperative must prevent the water table from dropping, making it economically beneficial to pressure members against installing new borewells.
This confirms that the hypothetical scenario logically follows from the policy's peer-monitoring mechanism.

Key Concept

Policy Incentives and Behavioral Implications
Question 4178Question →

Assess the validity of the following practical application based on the provided text.

The newly enacted Forestry Resilience and Stewardship Act (FRSA) represents a paradigm shift in the state's approach to timber management, pivoting away from traditional yield-maximized silviculture toward a model explicitly termed 'ecosystem-anchored extraction.' Historically, commercial logging leases required companies to simply replant an equivalent number of harvested trees, a practice that successfully maintained raw timber volume but led to monoculture forests highly susceptible to blights. Under the new FRSA framework, replanting is considered insufficient. Instead, leaseholders must now utilize the 'Micro-Habitat Equivalence Metric' (MHEM). This regulatory tool mandates that any commercial timber extraction must demonstrate zero net loss in soil microbial diversity and understory flora over a rolling five-year period post-harvest.

To comply with this stringent requirement, the FRSA integrates a novel mechanism: the Canopy Credit System. This system allows logging conglomerates to offset temporary microbial disruptions in their harvest zones by financing indigenous-led conservation projects in adjacent, untouched forest tracts. Crucially, however, these credits can only account for a maximum of 30% of a company’s required equivalence score; the remaining 70% must be achieved through direct, on-site ecological restoration within the logging zone itself.

Consequently, the operational reality for the timber industry is changing rapidly. The Act effectively compels traditional logging firms to integrate advanced soil mycology and ecosystem ecology into their core operational models, shifting the financial burden of ecological research from state conservation agencies to the private sector extracting the resources.

Statement: Under the FRSA framework, if a commercial timber corporation extensively funds an indigenous-led conservation project in an adjacent forest, it can completely satisfy its regulatory obligations for a new harvest zone without having to perform direct ecological restoration on the harvested land itself.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: False

Answer

The statement is false because the FRSA requires at least 70% of the ecological restoration to occur directly on the harvested site, regardless of how much is invested in external conservation projects.
The statement is demonstrably false because it contradicts the explicit rule in the text that mandates 70% of ecological restoration must be performed directly on the harvested site. Off-site funding is strictly capped at 30% of the compliance score.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the policy requirements established in the text.
The FRSA mandates zero net loss in microbial diversity and introduces the Canopy Credit System to help meet this goal.
Understanding the core mechanism of the regulatory framework is necessary to evaluate compliance scenarios.
2
Evaluate the quantitative constraints of the Canopy Credit System.
The text states that these offset credits can only account for a maximum of 30% of the required equivalence score, while the remaining 70% must be achieved through direct, on-site restoration.
This specific detail dictates the limits of how a company can legally achieve compliance.
3
Compare the hypothetical scenario against the identified constraints.
The scenario claims a corporation can 'completely satisfy its regulatory obligations' using exclusively off-site funding, which directly contradicts the 70% on-site restoration mandate.
Testing the hypothetical application against explicit textual limits determines the statement's validity.

Key Concept

Implications, Extensions, and Practical Applications
Question 4179Question →

The Telecommunications Act, 2023 overhauled the century-old legal framework governing communication networks and spectrum management in India. Which of the following correctly describes a key statutory reform introduced by this Act?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It established the Digital Bharat Nidhi by restructuring and expanding the mandate of the Universal Service Obligation Fund to support connectivity and indigenous telecom research.

Answer

The establishment of the Digital Bharat Nidhi by restructuring the Universal Service Obligation Fund to fund connectivity, indigenous technologies, and telecom research.
Under Section 24 of the Telecommunications Act, 2023, the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) was renamed and reconstituted as the Digital Bharat Nidhi. In addition to expanding telecom services to underserved rural, remote, and urban areas, the Digital Bharat Nidhi is statutorily authorized to support research and development of telecom services, technologies, pilot projects, and indigenous manufacturing.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the statutory objectives and fund mechanisms introduced under the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
The Act replaces the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) created under the 1885 Act with the 'Digital Bharat Nidhi'.
Identifying the renamed and expanded fund mechanism is essential to understanding new-age digital governance funding in India.
2
Evaluate the repeal provisions and regulatory bodies under the new legislation.
The Act repeals the Indian Telegraph Act (1885) and the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act (1933), while preserving the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) and the TDSAT appellate structure.
Prevents confusing colonial-era telecom laws with modern IT and regulatory statutes.
3
Examine the spectrum allocation rules under the First Schedule of the Act.
Spectrum is assigned primarily via auction, but administrative assignment is explicitly authorized for satellite broadband, national security, and disaster management.
Confirms that administrative allocation is retained for strategic and satellite use cases.

Key Concept

Statutory provisions, fund architecture, and spectrum governance reforms under the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 4180Question →

Consider the provided statements and the conclusions that follow.

Statements:
1. The City Council has mandated that all public libraries in the district must remain open until 8 PM on weekdays to increase accessibility for working professionals.
2. The Central Library is a public library located within this district.

Conclusions:
I. The Central Library will remain open until 8 PM on weekdays.
II. Working professionals in the district will definitely visit the Central Library more often.

Based on the statements, which of the following conclusions logically follows?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Only conclusion I follows

Answer

Only conclusion I follows logically from the given statements.
The correct response is that only the first conclusion follows. Statement 1 sets a rule for all public libraries in the district. Statement 2 confirms the Central Library is one of those libraries. Therefore, by direct deduction, the Central Library must follow the rule and remain open until 8 PM. Conclusion II is an unwarranted assumption because providing an opportunity (accessibility) does not guarantee an action (definitely visiting more often).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scope of the first statement.
The first statement establishes a universal rule for a specific group: 'all public libraries in the district' must stay open until 8 PM.
Identifying universal conditions is necessary to determine if subsequent specific cases fall under the rule.
2
Evaluate Conclusion I against the statements.
Statement 2 confirms the Central Library belongs to the group 'public libraries in the district'. Therefore, the rule from Statement 1 applies to it. Conclusion I logically follows.
This is a direct application of categorical syllogism (All A are B; X is A; therefore X is B).
3
Evaluate Conclusion II against the statements.
The statements mention the mandate's goal is 'to increase accessibility', but they do not state that professionals will 'definitely visit' more often. Conclusion II introduces an unstated guarantee. It does not follow.
Conclusions must be drawn strictly from the facts provided, without assuming behavioral outcomes or real-world probabilities.

Key Concept

Statement and Conclusions or Inferences
PreviousPage 209 / 230Next
All practice questions — State PSC Exam | Examkin