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Question 4181Question →

A District Education Officer (DEO) is conducting an assembly with senior headmasters who are strongly resisting the mandatory introduction of a new biometric attendance system. To effectively resolve this resistance, the DEO decides to utilize a structured active listening and constructive feedback process. Arrange the following administrative actions in the correct chronological sequence to establish a successful communication loop.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with receiving the message (hearing grievances), followed by clarifying (paraphrasing issues), evaluating (validating concerns), and concludes with responding (articulating the mandate and offering solutions).
Effective active listening in administrative conflict resolution follows a standard sequential model: Sensing (receiving the message completely without interruption), Interpreting (paraphrasing to confirm accuracy), Evaluating (validating the sender's perspective), and Responding (providing constructive feedback or solutions). Starting with uninterrupted listening establishes respect, clarifying ensures accuracy, validating builds trust, and only then will the final step of responding with an administrative directive be positively received.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the 'Receiving/Sensing' phase of active listening.
Hearing the grievances without interrupting is recognized as the necessary starting point.
Communication cannot begin effectively if the receiver is distracted, interrupting, or immediately defensive.
2
Locate the 'Clarifying/Interpreting' phase.
Paraphrasing the core issues directly follows listening.
This confirms that the administrator has accurately decoded the headmasters' message without cognitive distortion.
3
Identify the 'Evaluating/Validating' phase.
Acknowledging the genuine difficulties represents this intermediate phase.
Validation lowers emotional and psychological barriers, building necessary rapport before delivering formal feedback.
4
Determine the 'Responding/Feedback' phase.
Articulating the mandate with a solution is identified as the final action.
Constructive feedback and administrative directives are only accepted when stakeholders first feel their original message was fully understood.

Key Concept

Stages of the Active Listening and Feedback Loop (Sensing, Interpreting, Evaluating, Responding)
Question 4182Question →

An analyst is presented with the following logical constraints: every encrypted ledger operates as a decentralized system, and certain decentralized systems are not immune to quantum attacks.

From these constraints, it is logically valid to deduce that some systems immune to quantum attacks are not encrypted ledgers.

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Answer: False

Answer

False
The deduction is invalid. Reaching the proposed conclusion would require ignoring the Fallacy of the Undistributed Middle, as the linking term 'decentralized system' is undistributed in both premises. It also relies on commuting an O-type proposition, which constitutes an illicit conversion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Translate the textual constraints into standard categorical propositions.
The premises are: 'All encrypted ledgers are decentralized systems' (A-proposition) and 'Some decentralized systems are not immune to quantum attacks' (O-proposition).
Standardizing the logical statements is necessary to precisely identify the middle term and apply formal syllogistic rules.
2
Analyze the distribution of the middle term linking the two premises.
The middle term is 'decentralized systems'. It is undistributed in the first premise (as the predicate of an affirmative statement) and undistributed in the second premise (as the subject of a particular statement).
For a categorical syllogism to be valid, the middle term must be distributed in at least one premise to guarantee a logical connection.
3
Determine the formal validity of the proposed conclusion.
Because the middle term is never distributed, no valid connection can be established between 'encrypted ledgers' and 'systems immune to quantum attacks'. The deduction is invalid.
An undistributed middle means the premises do not guarantee any definitive relationship between the subject and predicate of the conclusion.

Key Concept

Syllogistic Rules, Term Distribution, and the Undistributed Middle Fallacy
Question 4183Question →

Pairs of recently notified state-level welfare initiatives and their respective policy mandates are given below. Match each initiative from List-I with its corresponding operational focus in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Mukhyamantri Bal Ashirwad Yojana (Madhya Pradesh)
Aama Yojana (Sikkim)
Mukhyamantri Vayoshri Yojana (Maharashtra)
Swayam Scheme (Odisha)

Matches

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Answer

Mukhyamantri Bal Ashirwad Yojana corresponds to orphan youth rehabilitation and training; Aama Yojana corresponds to annual cash transfers for non-working mothers; Mukhyamantri Vayoshri Yojana corresponds to assistive device assistance for senior citizens; and Swayam Scheme corresponds to interest-free enterprise credit for youth.
The correct pairing accurately links each policy with its target beneficiaries and core benefit mechanism: Madhya Pradesh's Bal Ashirwad supports orphan care-leavers; Sikkim's Aama Yojana assists non-working mothers; Maharashtra's Vayoshri aids disabled senior citizens; and Odisha's Swayam promotes youth entrepreneurship through interest-subsidized loans.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the objective of Madhya Pradesh's Mukhyamantri Bal Ashirwad Yojana
Identified as a post-institutional support programme covering monthly allowances and vocational training for orphan youth.
Matches the scheme with the provision of aid for care-leavers transitioning into independent adulthood.
2
Analyze the scope of Sikkim's Aama Yojana
Identified as a direct benefit transfer programme targeted at stay-at-home, non-salaried mothers.
Matches the scheme with the direct annual financial deposit into maternal bank accounts.
3
Evaluate the functional mandate of Maharashtra's Mukhyamantri Vayoshri Yojana
Identified as a targeted health assistance scheme supporting senior citizens afflicted with age-related infirmities.
Matches the initiative with the procurement of physical disability aids and health accessories.
4
Review the operational framework of Odisha's Swayam Scheme
Identified as an entrepreneurship facilitation programme offering interest-free credit up to ₹1 lakh.
Matches the scheme with working capital support for young micro-entrepreneurs.

Key Concept

State-specific social welfare schemes, demographic targeting, and sectoral policy instruments
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4184Question →

You are a Block Development Officer (BDO) chairing a critical review meeting on rural housing schemes. During the session, a Panchayat Sarpanch aggressively interrupts, loudly accusing your department of deliberately withholding funds for their village, while pointing fingers. The accusation stems from the Sarpanch's misunderstanding of the newly updated fund-release guidelines. Which of the following is the most appropriate assertive response to de-escalate this conflict while maintaining administrative decorum?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain a calm demeanor, acknowledge the Sarpanch's concern regarding the funds, and firmly propose a dedicated session immediately after the meeting to clarify the new procedural guidelines.

Answer

Maintain a calm demeanor, acknowledge the Sarpanch's concern regarding the funds, and firmly propose a dedicated session immediately after the meeting to clarify the new procedural guidelines.
The correct response exemplifies assertiveness by maintaining emotional control, acknowledging the stakeholder's underlying concern, and establishing a clear, professional boundary by deferring the detailed discussion to a more appropriate setting. This de-escalates the immediate tension without submissively yielding the floor or aggressively attacking the individual.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the nature of the conflict and the stakeholder's behavior.
The Sarpanch is acting aggressively due to a factual misunderstanding of new guidelines, which represents a psychological communication barrier.
An accurate assessment of the trigger prevents inappropriate or disproportionate administrative reactions.
2
Identify the goal of an assertive response in public administration.
The goal is to de-escalate the emotion, maintain the dignity of the office, and address the factual misunderstanding without disrupting the entire scheduled meeting.
Assertiveness balances respect for the other party's concerns with the firm enforcement of professional boundaries.
3
Evaluate the given choices against the principles of assertiveness.
Validating the concern while postponing the detailed discussion to a separate session directly addresses the issue without rewarding the disruption.
This approach de-escalates the immediate tension and provides a structured environment for factual conflict resolution.

Key Concept

Assertiveness and Conflict De-escalation
Question 4185Question →

Evaluate the following assertions and the subsequent logical deductions to determine which inference validly holds true.

Statements:
1. Every newly recruited inspector is required to complete a six-week physical training module.
2. Rahul is a newly recruited inspector.

Conclusions:
I. Rahul is required to complete a six-week physical training module.
II. Rahul has successfully passed the physical training module.

Which of the following options correctly identifies the valid conclusion(s)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Only conclusion I follows

Answer

The option stating that only conclusion I follows is the correct answer.
The correct answer accurately identifies that only the first conclusion is a valid logical deduction. Statement 1 establishes a rule for all newly recruited inspectors, and Statement 2 confirms Rahul is in this category. Applying basic syllogism, the rule must apply to Rahul. The second conclusion is an assumption about an event (passing the module) that is not supported by the given text.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first statement.
The statement establishes a universal rule: If a person is a newly recruited inspector, then that person must complete a six-week physical training module.
To identify the general premise.
2
Analyze the second statement.
The statement identifies a specific fact: Rahul belongs to the group of 'newly recruited inspectors'.
To identify the specific premise.
3
Evaluate Conclusion I based on the statements.
Since Rahul is a newly recruited inspector, the rule from statement 1 directly applies to him. Therefore, Conclusion I logically follows.
To test the validity of the first deduction.
4
Evaluate Conclusion II based on the statements.
The statements only mention that the training is a 'requirement'. They do not provide any information about whether Rahul has started, finished, or passed this training. Therefore, Conclusion II does not follow.
To test the validity of the second deduction by checking for unsupported assumptions.

Key Concept

Statement and Conclusions or Inferences
Question 4186Question →

With reference to the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB)—popularly known as 'Mission Karmayogi'—consider the following statements:

1. It aims to institutionalize administrative reforms by shifting human resource management in civil services from a 'rule-based' to a 'role-based' approach.
2. The apex body providing strategic direction and approving capacity building plans is the Prime Minister's Public Human Resources Council, chaired by the Cabinet Secretary of India.
3. It utilizes the 'iGOT Karmayogi' digital platform to deliver continuous, competency-driven online training modules to public officials.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 only are correct.
The option containing Statements 1 and 3 is correct. Mission Karmayogi (NPCSCB) focuses on transitioning administrative functioning from 'rule-based' to 'role-based' human resource management. The initiative is powered by the 'iGOT Karmayogi' platform, a comprehensive digital learning infrastructure. Statement 2 is incorrect because the apex body providing strategic guidance—the Prime Minister's Public Human Resources Council—is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, while the Capacity Building Commission (CBC) functions as an independent expert body.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the core objective and paradigm shift stated in Statement 1
Statement 1 is correct.
Mission Karmayogi explicitly shifts the civil service training architecture from traditional 'rule-based' compliance to competency-linked 'role-based' talent management.
2
Verify the governance structure and chairperson of the apex council in Statement 2
Statement 2 is incorrect.
The apex body of Mission Karmayogi is the Prime Minister's Public Human Resources Council (PMHRC), which is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, not the Cabinet Secretary.
3
Verify the digital learning platform specified in Statement 3
Statement 3 is correct.
The Integrated Government Online Training platform, known as 'iGOT Karmayogi', serves as the core digital backbone delivering tailored e-learning content to officials.
4
Synthesize the findings to determine the correct combination
Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Combining the verified truth values yields 1 and 3 only as the valid selection.

Key Concept

Institutional architecture and operational principles of the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (Mission Karmayogi)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4187Question →

A District Transport Officer (DTO) is mediating a tense meeting with a local auto-rickshaw drivers' union protesting newly implemented route restrictions. To manage the conflict effectively, the DTO decides to employ a structured active listening and feedback process.

Arrange the following communication steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence according to standard active listening models.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with allowing the leaders to speak without interruption, then paraphrasing their concerns, followed by asking clarifying questions, and finally outlining a framework for review and follow-up.
Effective active listening in administrative grievance handling follows a specific sequential model. It begins with unbiased reception (listening without interruption) to establish trust and de-escalate tension. Once the message is delivered, the officer must confirm understanding by paraphrasing the core concerns. Only after establishing this empathetic baseline should the officer evaluate the situation by asking clarifying questions to gather actionable data. Finally, the communication loop is closed by providing a clear, structured response outlining the next steps.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the Receiving stage of active listening.
Allowing the union leaders to fully articulate their frustrations without interrupting.
Active listening must begin with unfiltered reception of the message to de-escalate tension and gather initial information without creating defensive barriers.
2
Identify the Understanding/Validating stage.
Paraphrasing the drivers' main concerns to validate their perspective.
Before analyzing details, the listener must demonstrate empathy and confirm they have accurately grasped the speaker's core message.
3
Identify the Evaluating/Clarifying stage.
Asking open-ended, clarifying questions to gather specific operational data.
Once the baseline understanding is confirmed, the listener safely probes for specific, objective facts necessary to address the root cause of the grievance.
4
Identify the Responding stage.
Outlining a clear framework for reviewing the data and scheduling a follow-up.
The process concludes by closing the feedback loop, providing the speaker with clear next steps and demonstrating that their input is being structurally acted upon.

Key Concept

The Active Listening Process (Receiving, Understanding, Evaluating, Responding)
Question 4188Question →

With reference to the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023, aimed at strengthening governance and enhancing the ease of doing business in India, consider the following statements:

1. It rationalizes regulatory compliance by decriminalizing minor procedural infractions and substituting imprisonment provisions with monetary penalties across more than 40 Central Acts.
2. It introduces an administrative mechanism empowering appointed Adjudicating Officers to assess and levy civil penalties without instituting criminal court trials.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both 1 and 2 are correct.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 was enacted to enhance both 'Ease of Living' and 'Ease of Doing Business' by overhauling the penal architecture of 42 Central legislations. It converts 183 minor criminal provisions—such as technical reporting defaults, clerical omissions, and procedural non-compliances—into civil liabilities subject to monetary penalties. To ensure swift enforcement without congesting the judiciary, the Act operationalizes an internal administrative adjudication process wherein designated Adjudicating Officers determine liability and impose statutory fines, with provision for statutory appellate authorities.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the legislative scope and decriminalization mandate of the Jan Vishwas Act, 2023.
The Act amends 42 Central Acts administered by 19 Ministries and decriminalizes 183 provisions by converting imprisonment and criminal sanctions for minor, procedural defaults into monetary penalties.
This establishes that the first statement is factually and legally correct.
2
Examine the institutional enforcement and dispute-settlement mechanism established by the Act.
The legislation institutes an administrative adjudication architecture where designated Adjudicating Officers conduct inquiries and levy financial penalties, bypassing routine criminal court litigation and reducing judicial pendency.
This confirms that the second statement is also factually and legally correct.
3
Synthesize the statement evaluations to arrive at the final answer.
Since both statements are correct, the choice containing both statements represents the valid conclusion.
Aligns the legal verification with the correct answer option.

Key Concept

Legislative decriminalization and administrative adjudication mechanisms under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4189Question →

In evolutionary biology, comparative anatomy provides evidence of common ancestry and evolutionary adaptation through homologous and analogous organs. Which of the following pairs of anatomical structures represents homologous organs resulting from divergent evolution?

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Answer: Forelimbs of cheetahs and wings of bats

Answer

Forelimbs of cheetahs and wings of bats
The forelimbs of cheetahs and the wings of bats are homologous organs because they share a common basic anatomical framework—the vertebrate pentadactyl limb—inherited from a common ancestor. Divergent evolution led these structures to adapt to distinct functional demands, such as rapid terrestrial running in cheetahs and powered flight in bats.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Define homologous structures and divergent evolution in the context of comparative anatomy
Homologous organs are structures in different organisms that share a common embryonic origin and basic anatomical architecture derived from a common ancestor, but have evolved different functions (divergent evolution).
Establishing the defining criteria differentiates homology from analogy.
2
Evaluate the anatomical composition and lineage of the forelimbs of cheetahs and the wings of bats
Both cheetah forelimbs (adapted for running) and bat wings (adapted for flying) possess the fundamental vertebrate pentadactyl plan consisting of the humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges.
Shared structural plan despite divergent functional adaptation confirms homology.
3
Contrast with analogous structures formed by convergent evolution
Pairs such as butterfly wings/bird wings, octopus eyes/mammal eyes, and shark fins/dolphin flippers do not share a common structural origin and represent convergent adaptations (analogy).
Eliminates distractors that represent convergent evolutionary adaptations.

Key Concept

Homologous Organs and Divergent Evolution
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 4190Question →

Match the State Government Welfare Schemes in List-I with their respective Primary Policy Focus in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Mukhyamantri Sukhashray Yojana (Himachal Pradesh)
Abua Awas Yojana (Jharkhand)
Mukhyamantri Vriksha Sampada Yojana (Chhattisgarh)
Aardram Mission (Kerala)

Matches

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Answer

Mukhyamantri Sukhashray Yojana pairs with welfare and educational support for orphans as 'Children of the State'; Abua Awas Yojana pairs with state-funded three-room pucca housing assistance; Mukhyamantri Vriksha Sampada Yojana pairs with commercial timber cultivation subsidies on private land; and Aardram Mission pairs with upgrading primary health centres into family health centres.
Each scheme is accurately paired with its governing objective: Himachal Pradesh's Sukhashray Yojana secures comprehensive statutory support for orphans; Jharkhand's Abua Awas Yojana provides state-funded 3-room housing; Chhattisgarh's Vriksha Sampada Yojana subsidizes commercial tree planting on private land; and Kerala's Aardram Mission modernizes primary healthcare centres into family health centres.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mandate of Mukhyamantri Sukhashray Yojana (Himachal Pradesh).
It designates orphaned and destitute children as 'Children of the State', providing them with full institutional, higher education, and financial care.
Pinpointing state-specific child social protection and welfare measures.
2
Determine the focus of Abua Awas Yojana (Jharkhand).
It is a 100% state-sponsored shelter program providing three-room pucca houses to eligible families excluded from central housing lists.
Distinguishing state-funded rural housing schemes from general poverty alleviation measures.
3
Examine the objective of Mukhyamantri Vriksha Sampada Yojana (Chhattisgarh).
It promotes commercial agroforestry on private agricultural lands through capital subsidies and market linkages to enhance rural farm incomes.
Identifying agro-economic and afforestation incentives.
4
Assess the core purpose of Aardram Mission (Kerala).
It is a public health initiative designed to revamp primary healthcare delivery by converting local health centres into patient-friendly Family Health Centres.
Linking decentralised health sector reforms with their respective state schemes.

Key Concept

State Government welfare schemes and policy mandates across social security, rural housing, agroforestry, and primary public healthcare infrastructure.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4191Question →

With reference to meiotic cell division in sexually reproducing organisms, arrange the following events occurring during Prophase I in their correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

Pairing of homologous chromosomes (synapsis) → Exchange of genetic material (crossing over) → Dissolution of synaptonemal complex with visible chiasmata → Terminalization of chiasmata and nuclear envelope breakdown
Prophase I of meiosis comprises five distinct chronological sub-stages: Leptotene (compaction of chromosomes), Zygotene (synapsis and formation of synaptonemal complex), Pachytene (crossing over between non-sister chromatids), Diplotene (dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and visibility of chiasmata), and Diakinesis (terminalization of chiasmata and breakdown of the nuclear envelope). Therefore, synapsis precedes crossing over, followed by chiasmata emergence and subsequent terminalization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the stage associated with chromosome pairing and synapsis
Synapsis occurs during Zygotene, where homologous chromosomes align and form the synaptonemal complex.
Physical pairing of homologues must precede any coordinated reciprocal genetic exchange.
2
Identify the stage associated with genetic recombination
Crossing over occurs during Pachytene, facilitated by the recombinase enzyme complex at recombination nodules.
Recombination takes place between aligned non-sister chromatids within the established bivalent.
3
Identify the stage characterized by synaptonemal complex dissolution and chiasmata formation
During Diplotene, the synaptonemal complex dissolves, and homologous chromosomes separate except at crossover sites (chiasmata).
The structural dissolution reveals the physical crossing points between non-sister chromatids.
4
Identify the final sub-stage of Prophase I
During Diakinesis, chiasmata shift to chromosome ends (terminalization), the spindle apparatus forms, and the nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear.
This completes Prophase I and prepares the cell for Metaphase I alignment.

Key Concept

Sequential sub-stages of Prophase I in Meiosis: Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene → Diplotene → Diakinesis
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4192Question →

Context: Due to a rapid surge in commercial high-rise developments within the city's designated coastal ecological boundary, civil engineers have documented critical land subsidence and recurring localized flooding resulting from the severe obstruction of natural subsurface drainage channels.

Proposed Remedies:
I. The municipal corporation must immediately issue blanket demolition orders for all newly constructed commercial complexes in the zone to organically restore the historical drainage pathways.
II. The administration should enforce a temporary moratorium on new construction approvals in the affected sector and initiate an urgent hydrological survey to design a compensatory artificial drainage grid.

Which of the following represents the logically sound evaluation of the proposed remedies?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Only proposed remedy II follows.

Answer

Only proposed remedy II follows.
The correct evaluation validates only the second remedy. A valid course of action must be feasible, practical, and proportional to the problem. Halting new construction temporarily while commissioning a scientific study to build alternative drainage (Remedy II) is a standard and measured administrative response. In contrast, immediately demolishing all recently built complexes (Remedy I) is an extreme, legally fraught, and disproportionately destructive measure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the core problem presented in the context.
The problem is land subsidence and localized flooding caused by commercial high-rise developments blocking natural drainage in a coastal ecological zone.
Understanding the exact nature and cause of the problem is required to evaluate whether a proposed remedy is relevant and proportional.
2
Evaluate Proposed Remedy I for feasibility, proportionality, and side effects.
Remedy I suggests immediate blanket demolition of all new commercial complexes.
This is an extreme, disproportionate administrative action. It ignores statutory protocols, would cause massive economic and legal repercussions, and is not a practical immediate step compared to engineering solutions.
3
Evaluate Proposed Remedy II for feasibility, proportionality, and side effects.
Remedy II suggests a temporary halt on new permits and commissioning a hydrological survey to build an artificial drainage grid.
This action is practical, addresses the root cause systematically without causing disproportionate harm, and provides a scientifically sound path forward.

Key Concept

Evaluating the feasibility and proportionality of administrative responses to infrastructural and ecological crises.
Question 4193Question →

Match each of the following flagship national governance initiatives and schemes with its primary operational objective:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana
PM Vishwakarma Scheme
ULLAS (Nav Bharat Saksharta Karyakram)
PM-eBus Sewa

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana matches with rooftop solar panel installations for up to 300 units of monthly free electricity; PM Vishwakarma Scheme matches with collateral-free credit and toolkit assistance for traditional artisans; ULLAS matches with foundational literacy and lifelong learning for adult non-literates; and PM-eBus Sewa matches with green city bus operations via a PPP model.
Each governance program is accurately aligned with its respective sector: PM Surya Ghar focuses on household rooftop solar power; PM Vishwakarma supports traditional artisans across 18 artisan trades; ULLAS provides adult foundational literacy and critical skills; and PM-eBus Sewa expands zero-emission urban bus transit through public-private partnerships.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core mandate of the solar rooftop initiative
PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana is targeted at residential solar electrification to provide up to 300 free monthly power units, pairing with definition 4.
The initiative explicitly focuses on decentralized domestic renewable power generation.
2
Identify the mandate of the artisanal support scheme
PM Vishwakarma Scheme pairs with definition 1 regarding credit, training, and modern toolkits for traditional tradespersons.
Vishwakarma workers encompass 18 traditional occupations such as carpenters, blacksmiths, potters, and sculptors.
3
Identify the literacy and adult education framework
ULLAS pairs with definition 2 addressing adult non-literates aged 15 years and above.
ULLAS replaced the previous adult education scheme to align with the National Education Policy 2020.
4
Identify the urban mobility and green transit initiative
PM-eBus Sewa pairs with definition 3 regarding electric bus deployment via PPP models in designated urban local bodies.
The scheme emphasizes reducing emissions in city transport through electrified public transit fleets.

Key Concept

Core mandates and operational architectures of contemporary central governance initiatives
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 4194Question →

The Government of Gujarat launched the 'Namo Lakshmi Scheme' across the state to foster secondary education and improve adolescent health. Which of the following statements correctly describes a principal feature of this welfare scheme?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It extends structured financial assistance totaling ₹50,000 spread over Classes 9 to 12 to reduce dropout rates and support nutrition among adolescent girls.

Answer

The scheme provides structured financial assistance totaling ₹50,000 distributed over Classes 9 to 12 to curb school dropouts and support nutrition among adolescent girl students.
The Namo Lakshmi Scheme introduced by Gujarat delivers financial assistance of ₹50,000 distributed over four academic years (Classes 9 through 12) to ensure girl students complete their secondary and higher secondary education while addressing adolescent nutritional needs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary objective and target demographic of the Namo Lakshmi Scheme.
The scheme was launched by Gujarat to improve enrollment, retention, and nutritional status of adolescent girls studying in Classes 9 to 12 in recognized schools.
Understanding target beneficiaries helps distinguish school retention initiatives from higher education or competitive examination schemes.
2
Evaluate the financial entitlement and disbursement architecture.
Eligible girl students receive a cumulative sum of ₹50,000 over four years: ₹10,000 per year for Classes 9 and 10, and ₹15,000 per year for Classes 11 and 12, released partly monthly and partly upon passing board exams.
Verifying the exact financial entitlement and disbursement mechanism isolates the correct policy design from typical distractor modifications.
3
Select the matching statement describing the policy parameters.
The statement describing ₹50,000 distributed across secondary grades (Classes 9 to 12) accurately reflects the scheme's provisions.
This matches official state welfare guidelines and budgetary allocations.

Key Concept

State Welfare Schemes and Girl Child Educational Incentives
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 4195Question →

Read the following statement carefully.

Statement: The state transport department has issued an advisory requesting all daily commuters to purchase their bus tickets through the official mobile application to avoid long queues at the terminal counters.

Which of the following assumptions are implicit in the given statement? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A significant number of commuters have access to smartphones and the internet to use the official mobile application.; Purchasing tickets through the mobile application will effectively help in reducing the congestion at the terminal counters.

Answer

The implicit assumptions are that commuters have access to the mobile application, and that using the application will successfully reduce queues at the terminal.
The correct answers identify the two essential premises that must be true for the advisory to make sense: the target audience must be able to use the mobile application, and using it must logically lead to the desired outcome of reduced queues.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the statement to identify the proposed action and its intended goal.
Action: Purchase tickets via mobile app. Goal: Avoid long queues at terminal counters.
Understanding the cause-and-effect relationship presented in the statement is the first step in identifying its underlying premises.
2
Evaluate the first candidate assumption regarding commuter access to smartphones.
It is a valid assumption.
An advisory is only issued if the authority assumes the public has the capability and resources to follow it.
3
Evaluate the second candidate assumption regarding the effectiveness of the app in reducing queues.
It is a valid assumption.
The authority must believe that the proposed solution will actually achieve the stated goal of reducing congestion, otherwise the advisory would be pointless.
4
Evaluate the remaining candidate assumptions.
They are invalid.
Closing physical counters is an unsupported inference, and the security of mobile apps is irrelevant to the specific goal of reducing queues.

Key Concept

Identifying Implicit Assumptions in Administrative Advisories
Question 4196Question →

During an aviation regulatory audit, a compliance officer maps out the relationships between different vehicle classifications based on current operational guidelines. The officer establishes the following foundational premises:

- All perpetually autonomous drones are unregistered aircraft.
- No unregistered aircraft are commercially insured vehicles.
- Some delivery gliders are commercially insured vehicles.

Based strictly on formal deductive logic—and without assuming the physical existence of any entity not explicitly established by the premises—identify the logically infallible deductions from the officer's mapping.

Deduction I: Some perpetually autonomous drones are unregistered aircraft.
Deduction II: No commercially insured vehicles are perpetually autonomous drones.
Deduction III: Some delivery gliders are not perpetually autonomous drones.

Which of the following represents the correct evaluation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Only Deductions II and III are infallible.

Answer

Only Deductions II and III are infallible.
Deduction II is logically derived from combining the first two premises and converting the resulting universal negative statement. Deduction III is validly derived by combining the third premise with the conclusion of the first two premises. Deduction I is invalid because it assumes the physical existence of the subject (existential fallacy) from a purely universal premise.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Deduction I for existential import based on the first premise.
Deduction I is invalid.
The premise 'All perpetually autonomous drones are unregistered aircraft' is a universal statement. Without explicit evidence that such drones actually exist, deducing that 'Some perpetually autonomous drones are unregistered aircraft' commits the existential fallacy.
2
Evaluate Deduction II by combining the first and second premises.
Deduction II is valid.
Since all autonomous drones are unregistered aircraft, and no unregistered aircraft are commercially insured, it follows that no autonomous drones are commercially insured. Converting this universal negative statement yields: 'No commercially insured vehicles are perpetually autonomous drones.'
3
Evaluate Deduction III by combining the result of Step 2 with the third premise.
Deduction III is valid.
We established that no commercially insured vehicles are autonomous drones. Since the third premise states 'Some delivery gliders are commercially insured vehicles', the specific delivery gliders that are commercially insured cannot be autonomous drones. Therefore, 'Some delivery gliders are not perpetually autonomous drones' is valid.

Key Concept

Evaluating categorical syllogisms involving multi-premise deductive chains, illicit conversion checks, and the existential fallacy.
Question 4197Question →

To improve the child sex ratio and promote the education of girls from economically vulnerable households, the Government of Maharashtra introduced the 'Lek Ladki Yojana' (Dear Daughter Scheme). Which of the following conditions correctly specifies the financial entitlement and beneficiary eligibility under this welfare initiative?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Eligible girl children from yellow and orange ration card-holding families receive structured milestone-linked support totaling ₹1,01,000, concluding with a major payout upon attaining 18 years of age.

Answer

Eligible girl children from yellow and orange ration card-holding families receive structured milestone-linked support totaling ₹1,01,000, concluding with a major payout upon attaining 18 years of age.
The Lek Ladki Yojana implemented by the Department of Women and Child Development, Government of Maharashtra, provides structured financial assistance totaling ₹1,01,000 to girl children born in yellow and orange ration card families. The assistance is distributed across five progressive milestones: ₹5,000 at birth, ₹6,000 upon admission to Class 1, ₹7,000 upon admission to Class 6, ₹8,000 upon admission to Class 11, and a final grant of ₹75,000 upon attaining 18 years of age (provided the girl remains unmarried).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the target beneficiary eligibility criteria for Maharashtra's Lek Ladki Yojana
The scheme applies to girl children born in economically disadvantaged families possessing yellow or orange ration cards.
Targeted welfare schemes in Maharashtra utilize ration card categories as an objective benchmark for socioeconomic status.
2
Evaluate the financial disbursement structure and milestone amounts
The assistance totals ₹1,01,000 distributed in stages: ₹5,000 at birth, ₹6,000 in Class 1, ₹7,000 in Class 6, ₹8,000 in Class 11, and ₹75,000 upon reaching 18 years.
Milestone-based incentives discourage female foeticide and school dropouts while discouraging early marriage.

Key Concept

Eligibility norms, target beneficiary groups, and milestone-linked financial assistance mechanisms under state girl child welfare policies
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 4198Question →

In the context of state-specific welfare policies aimed at promoting girl child education, health, and social security, which of the following statements regarding the 'Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana' implemented in Uttar Pradesh are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The financial assistance is structured across six developmental milestones, spanning from birth and complete vaccination to admission in higher education or diploma courses.; The annual household income of the beneficiary's family must not exceed ₹3 lakh to qualify for benefits under the scheme.

Answer

The statements confirming the phased financial assistance across six developmental milestones and the annual family income limit of ₹3 lakh are correct.
Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana is a flagship conditional direct benefit transfer initiative in Uttar Pradesh designed to eliminate female feticide, foster positive attitudes toward the girl child, promote education, and curb child marriage. It structures financial transfers across six developmental milestones (birth, immunization, Class 1 admission, Class 6 admission, Class 9 admission, and entry into undergraduate or diploma programs) for families with an annual income not exceeding ₹3 lakh.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scheme structure and milestone disbursement framework
Identified that Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana delivers financial support in six phased stages from birth through higher education.
To evaluate whether the scheme uses phased educational milestones or continuous monthly payouts.
2
Evaluate the socio-economic eligibility criteria
Confirmed the ₹3 lakh annual family income threshold and the standard limitation of benefits to two girl children per family.
To verify household income ceilings and beneficiary coverage limits.
3
Identify the nodal administrative department and implementation mechanism
Verified that the Department of Women and Child Development executes the direct benefit transfer mechanism.
To rule out misattributed administrative departments.

Key Concept

Eligibility parameters, financial structure, and implementation framework of state-specific girl child welfare schemes
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 4199Question →

A Revenue Divisional Officer (RDO) is reviewing transcripts of public hearings to evaluate how Tahsildars handle land disputes. Match the specific statements made by the Tahsildars during the hearings (List I) with the corresponding active listening technique they demonstrate (List II).

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Before we move to the next grievance, let us recap: you have submitted the sale deed, but are still awaiting the surveyor's boundary report.
You appear visibly distressed and anxious regarding the possibility of losing access to your family's ancestral well.
When you claim the adjacent landowner has 'encroached' on your plot, do you mean they built a permanent structure or just planted seasonal crops?
If I am grasping your main argument correctly, your core objection is that the land compensation was calculated using outdated commercial rates.

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches are: Recap of points matches Summarizing; Acknowledging distress matches Empathetic Reflection; Asking for specific meaning of 'encroached' matches Probing for Clarification; Restating the core objection matches Paraphrasing.
Effective active listening requires distinguishing between different feedback techniques. Summarizing brings together various points (e.g., deed and surveyor report). Empathetic reflection addresses the speaker's emotional state. Probing for clarification asks for specifics on vague terms (e.g., 'encroached'). Paraphrasing restates a specific argument (e.g., compensation calculation) to ensure mutual understanding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first statement regarding 'recap' and 'submitted the sale deed...'
Matches 'Summarizing'
Summarizing involves condensing the main points of a conversation to ensure alignment before moving forward.
2
Analyze the second statement acknowledging the citizen is 'visibly distressed and anxious'
Matches 'Empathetic Reflection'
Reflecting involves identifying and articulating the underlying emotions of the speaker to build rapport and trust.
3
Analyze the third statement asking for the exact meaning of 'encroached'
Matches 'Probing for Clarification'
Clarification seeks to remove ambiguity from broad or vague statements by asking targeted, open-ended questions.
4
Analyze the fourth statement starting with 'If I am grasping your main argument correctly...'
Matches 'Paraphrasing'
Paraphrasing restates the speaker's message in the listener's own words to confirm accurate comprehension of a specific point.

Key Concept

Active Listening Techniques in Public Administration
Question 4200Question →

In the context of traditional performing arts and living cultural heritage in Kerala, a specific ritual dance-drama is enacted annually after the summer harvest in Bhagavathi Kavus (goddess temples). Before the dramatic enactment of the mythological battle between the Goddess and the demon Darika, artists draw an intricate, multicolored floor portrait of the deity using natural powders, known as Kalamezhuthu. Which of the following traditional art forms is described here?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Mudiyettu

Answer

The art form described is Mudiyettu, a traditional ritual dance-drama of Kerala featuring Kalamezhuthu floor art and the narrative duel between Goddess Kali and demon Darika.
Mudiyettu is an ancient ritual theatre tradition of Kerala performed in Bhadrakali temple groves (Bhagavathi Kavus). It is enacted by members of the Marar and Kuruppu communities and incorporates the drawing of Kalamezhuthu (a colossal floor image of Goddess Kali made with organic natural pigments) before enacting the mythological triumph of the Goddess over the demon Darika.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical region and cultural context provided in the stem
The ritual art belongs to Kerala, specifically performed in Bhagavathi Kavus (temple groves) following the harvest season.
Establishing the regional and institutional setting eliminates non-Kerala folk traditions.
2
Analyze the core ritual elements and mythological theme described
The performance combines Kalamezhuthu (sacred floor powder art) and the enactment of the victory of Goddess Kali over the demon Darika.
These ritual characteristics uniquely distinguish Mudiyettu from other regional performance traditions such as Koodiyattam or Theyyam.
3
Match the synthesized features to the correct regional art form
Mudiyettu is the recognized ritual theatre tradition matching all stated attributes.
Mudiyettu is celebrated for its sequential ritual stages, beginning with Kalamezhuthu and culminating in the dramatic enactment of the Darika-slaying legend.

Key Concept

Mudiyettu Ritual Theatre and Kalamezhuthu Heritage of Kerala
Estimated Time:1m 0s
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