All practice questions

4581 questions

All types4,581 Multiple choice2,372 Multiple select712 True / False174 Numeric188 Matching670 Ordering415 Fill in the blank20 Short answer30

Question 1841Question →

Under Article 22 of the Constitution of India, what is the maximum period for which a person can ordinarily be detained under a preventive detention law without obtaining the opinion of an Advisory Board?

2 months

3 months

6 months

12 months

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 3 months

Answer

3 months

Under Article 22(4) of the Constitution of India, no law providing for preventive detention shall authorize the detention of a person for a period longer than three months unless an Advisory Board—consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court—has reported before the expiration of the said three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention. Although the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 passed a provision to reduce this maximum period to two months, that specific amendment was never officially brought into force, so three months remains the active constitutional standard.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the constitutional safeguards against preventive detention under Part III.

Identified Article 22(4) as the governing provision for detention limits without Advisory Board review.

Article 22 balances state security needs with protection against arbitrary detention.

Verify the operative constitutional timeframe specified in Article 22(4)(a).

The text explicitly sets three months as the threshold limit.

An Advisory Board must report sufficient cause before the expiration of three months to extend detention.

Check for statutory amendments or enforcement status regarding this provision.

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978) proposed reducing the limit to two months, but this amendment was never notified or brought into force.

The original three-month period remains the binding constitutional law.

Key Concept

Preventive Detention Safeguards under Article 22

Estimated Time:1m 0s

Question 1842Question →

Which of the following climatic types according to Köppen's scheme of classification correctly represents the Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu, which receives the major portion of its rainfall during the winter season from the retreating monsoon?

Monsoon with dry summer (

As

)

Monsoon with short dry season (

Amw

)

Monsoon with dry winter (

Cwg

)

Tropical savanna climate (

Aw

)

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Monsoon with dry summer ( $As$ )

Answer

Monsoon with dry summer (

As

)

Under Köppen's scheme, the symbol '

A

' represents tropical climate where the average temperature of the coolest month is

18^\circ\text{C}

or higher. The lowercase letter '

s

' denotes a dry summer season. The Coromandel Coast remains dry during the South-West summer monsoon because it lies parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch and in the rain-shadow area of the Western Ghats, but receives substantial winter rainfall from the North-East monsoon, making

As

the exact designation.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the geographical region and seasonal rainfall pattern specified in the question.

The region is the Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu, which experiences dry summers and receives most precipitation in winter from retreating monsoon winds.

Köppen's climate classification assigns letter symbols based on temperature and seasonal precipitation patterns.

Map the precipitation characteristics to Köppen's climatic letters.

The letter '

A

' denotes a tropical humid climate, and lowercase '

s

' indicates a dry summer season.

Combining '

A

' and '

s

' yields

As

, which defines the rainfall profile of coastal Tamil Nadu.

Key Concept

Köppen's Climate Classification of India

Question 1843Question →

Regarding the framing of the Indian Constitution and the adoption of its Preamble, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

The Objectives Resolution, which laid down the underlying principles of the Constitution and inspired the Preamble, was introduced in the Constituent Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru in December 1946.

The Constituent Assembly voted to enact and join the Preamble to the Constitution after the rest of the Constitution had already been passed.

The terms 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were part of the original text of the Preamble as adopted on November 26, 1949.

The Indian Councils Act of 1892 first established the Preamble as a legally enforceable set of Fundamental Rights.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Objectives Resolution, which laid down the underlying principles of the Constitution and inspired the Preamble, was introduced in the Constituent Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru in December 1946.; The Constituent Assembly voted to enact and join the Preamble to the Constitution after the rest of the Constitution had already been passed.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Objectives Resolution was introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru in December 1946, and that the Preamble was adopted by the Constituent Assembly after the rest of the Constitution was passed.

The Objectives Resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in December 1946 laid down the foundational vision for India's Constitution and directly influenced the Preamble. Furthermore, the Constituent Assembly deliberately enacted the Preamble at the very end of the drafting process to ensure full alignment with all constitutional provisions.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate the statement concerning the introduction of the Objectives Resolution.

Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution on December 13, 1946, which set out the principles guiding the assembly and formed the foundation of the Preamble.

This confirms the historical origination of the philosophical framework of the Constitution.

Evaluate the procedure for adopting the Preamble in the Constituent Assembly.

The Preamble was formally adopted last to ensure consistency with the finalized text of the Constitution.

Procedurally, the assembly wanted the Preamble to reflect the completed Constitution.

Analyze the claim regarding the inclusion of 'Socialist' and 'Secular' in 1949.

These terms were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.

Confusing original constitutional text with subsequent amendments is a common error.

Examine the attribution of Fundamental Rights and Preamble to the Indian Councils Act of 1892.

The 1892 Act dealt with legislative council expansion, not the Preamble or Fundamental Rights.

Colonial legislations must be accurately differentiated by their specific administrative provisions.

Key Concept

Framing of the Indian Constitution and History of the Preamble

Question 1844Question →

Match each administrative scenario presented in Column I with the primary administrative ethical principle it demonstrates in Column II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct pairings match each administrative action to its governing ethical standard: recusing oneself due to a relative's financial interest demonstrates Avoidance of Conflict of Interest; safeguarding unreleased planning records demonstrates Maintenance of Official Confidentiality; and keeping official vehicles strictly for public duty demonstrates Stewardship and Non-misuse of Public Resources.

Each scenario maps to a core ethical duty in public administration: stepping away from decision-making involving relatives ensures impartiality (Avoidance of Conflict of Interest), protecting non-public information prevents unfair advantage (Maintenance of Official Confidentiality), and restricting state property to public use honors taxpayer trust (Stewardship and Non-misuse of Public Resources).

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the first scenario regarding recusal from a procurement committee due to a relative's participation.

Identify that personal interest conflicts with objective public duty.

When private relationships overlap with official duties, stepping aside ensures impartiality under the principle of Avoidance of Conflict of Interest.

Examine the second scenario regarding withholding unpublished urban master plans from developers.

Identify that premature release violates official information protocols.

Public officials hold non-public state information in trust, making safeguard of sensitive data an act of Maintenance of Official Confidentiality.

Evaluate the third scenario regarding non-use of department vehicles for family functions.

Identify proper boundary management between state property and personal life.

Public assets are funded by taxpayers for public utility, so restricting usage to official duties reflects Stewardship and Non-misuse of Public Resources.

Key Concept

Foundational Principles of Administrative Ethics

Question 1845Question →

Match the Constitutional Articles governing the State Executive and Legislature in List-I with their corresponding specific constitutional provisions in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 161 matches with the pardoning power extending to state executive scope excluding court-martial; Article 167 matches with the Chief Minister's duty to furnish administrative information to the Governor; Article 200 matches with the Governor's options regarding assent or reservation of bills for Presidential consideration; Article 213 matches with the Governor's ordinance-making power during legislative recess.

Each constitutional Article correctly corresponds to its constitutional mandate under Part VI of the Constitution of India: Article 161 specifies the Governor's judicial pardoning power; Article 167 outlines the Chief Minister's duties to inform the Governor; Article 200 outlines gubernatorial assent and reservation of bills; Article 213 lays down the ordinance-making power during legislative recess.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the scope of Article 161

Article 161 relates to the pardoning, remitting, and commuting powers of the Governor under the state executive boundary.

Constitutional framework explicitly differentiates gubernatorial pardoning under Article 161 from presidential pardoning under Article 72.

Identify the duties under Article 167

Article 167 specifies the Chief Minister's constitutional obligation as a link between the State Cabinet and the Governor.

The CM must report cabinet decisions and supply information requested by the Governor regarding administration and legislation.

Analyze Article 200 regarding state legislative bills

Article 200 covers gubernatorial assent, returning bills, and reservation of state bills for Presidential consideration.

It forms the core mechanism balancing state legislative enactments with constitutional compliance.

Analyze Article 213 for emergency state lawmaking

Article 213 authorizes gubernatorial ordinances when the legislature is in recess.

An ordinance under Article 213 must be approved by the state legislature within six weeks of its reassembly.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles governing the executive authority of the Governor, duties of the Chief Minister, legislative assent procedures, and ordinance powers under Part VI of the Indian Constitution.

Question 1846Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the physical and regional geography of North America:

1. The Great Salt Lake is an endorheic lake located within the Great Basin.
2. The Yukon River flows westward through Alaska and discharges into the Bering Sea.
3. Lake Superior is the largest of the Great Lakes by surface area and forms part of the international boundary between Canada and the United States.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.

All three statements provide factually accurate geographical details: the Great Salt Lake is situated within the Great Basin endorheic region, the Yukon River discharges into the Bering Sea, and Lake Superior is both the largest Great Lake by surface area and an international boundary lake shared by Canada and the United States.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the Great Salt Lake

Statement 1 is correct. The Great Salt Lake in Utah sits within the Great Basin, an internal drainage system (endorheic basin) where water does not drain into any ocean.

Geographical location and hydrological characterization of North American inland basins.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the Yukon River

Statement 2 is correct. Originating in British Columbia, Canada, the Yukon River flows northwest and west through Yukon and Alaska before emptying into the Bering Sea.

Verification of river course and drainage outlet for major North American river systems.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Lake Superior

Statement 3 is correct. Lake Superior is the largest fresh water lake in the world by surface area (

82,100\text{ km}^2

) among the Laurentian Great Lakes and straddles the US-Canada border.

Verification of relative size and political geography of international water bodies.

Key Concept

Regional Physical Geography and Hydrography of North America

Estimated Time:1m 15s

Question 1847Question →

With reference to the Santhal Rebellion (1855–1856) in colonial India, consider the following statements:
1. The rebellion was led by the brothers Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu against the oppression of 'dikus' (outsiders), moneylenders, and British revenue officials.
2. The rebellion culminated in the enactment of the Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885, which created the non-regulation district of Santhal Parganas.
3. The insurrection was largely concentrated in the Rajmahal Hills region of present-day Jharkhand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

The statement specifying 1 and 3 only is correct. The Santhal Rebellion of 1855–1856 was a major tribal uprising led by brothers Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu in the Damin-i-Koh region of the Rajmahal Hills. Statement 2 is false because the colonial authorities passed Act XXXVII of 1855 to create the separate non-regulation district of Santhal Parganas, whereas the Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885 was enacted as a response to the Pabna peasant struggle.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding leadership and causes of the Santhal Rebellion.

Statement 1 is correct. Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, along with Chand and Bhairav, led the revolt against exploitation by non-tribal zamindars, moneylenders (dikus), and British officials.

Verify key historical leadership and social triggers of the 1855–56 uprising.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the legislative outcome of the rebellion.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Following the suppression of the revolt, the British government passed Act XXXVII of 1855, forming the non-regulation district of Santhal Parganas. The Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885 was passed much later in response to the Pabna peasant agitations.

Distinguish between administrative legislation enacted for Santhal Parganas and subsequent agrarian reform laws in Bengal.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the geographical epicenter of the revolt.

Statement 3 is correct. The uprising was centered in the Damin-i-Koh area within the Rajmahal Hills.

Confirm geographic location of the Santhal insurrection.

Key Concept

Santhal Rebellion (1855-1856) leadership, geography, and administrative consequences

Question 1848Question →

Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, what is the standard term of office for Panchayati Raj Institutions from the date appointed for their first meeting?

3 years

4 years

5 years

6 years

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 5 years

Answer

The standard term of office for Panchayati Raj Institutions under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act is 5 years.

Article 243E of Part IX of the Constitution of India provides that every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the relevant constitutional provision under Part IX dealing with the duration of Panchayats.

Article 243E specifically governs the duration and term of office of Panchayats.

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act introduced Part IX (Articles 243 to 243O) to provide constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Determine the constitutional duration specified in Article 243E(1).

Article 243E(1) states that every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.

This establishes a uniform 5-year tenure for rural local self-government bodies across all states in India.

Key Concept

Duration and Tenure of Panchayati Raj Institutions (Article 243E)

Question 1849Question →

A field researcher starting at a base station walks $15\text{ km}$ towards the North. He then turns $135^\circ$ clockwise and walks $8\sqrt{2}\text{ km}$ . Next, he turns $90^\circ$ counter-clockwise and walks $7\sqrt{2}\text{ km}$ . From this location, he turns West and walks $3\text{ km}$ , and finally turns South and walks $9\text{ km}$ to reach an observation post. What is the shortest straight-line distance (in km) between the observation post and the base station?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 13

Answer

The shortest straight-line distance between the observation post and the base station is

13\text{ km}

Resolving each directional segment into horizontal and vertical components gives a net final coordinate of

(12, 5)

relative to the starting origin

(0, 0)

. Applying the Pythagorean theorem

\sqrt{12^2 + 5^2} = \sqrt{169} = 13\text{ km}

yields the exact straight-line distance.

Step-by-Step Solution

Represent the trajectory using 2D coordinate vectors starting from origin (0, 0).

Initial position = (0, 0). After moving 15 km North, position = (0, 15).

North movement aligns with the positive y-axis.

Decompose the 135-degree clockwise turn vector (South-East displacement).

Displacement is (+8, -8), placing the researcher at (8, 7).

A 135-degree clockwise turn from North faces South-East (45 degrees below positive x-axis).

Decompose the 90-degree counter-clockwise turn vector (North-East displacement).

Displacement is (+7, +7), placing the researcher at (15, 14).

A 90-degree counter-clockwise turn from South-East faces North-East (45 degrees above positive x-axis).

Apply cardinal direction adjustments for West and South movements.

Moving 3 km West and 9 km South gives final coordinates (12, 5).

West subtracts from x-coordinate, and South subtracts from y-coordinate.

Calculate net displacement using Pythagorean theorem.

Distance = sqrt(12^2 + 5^2) = 13 km.

The direct line between (0, 0) and (12, 5) forms a right-angled triangle with sides 12 and 5.

Key Concept

Vector resolution of cardinal and angular displacements using Cartesian coordinates and the Pythagorean theorem

Estimated Time:3m 0s

Question 1850Question →

With reference to the constitutional provisions governing Panchayati Raj Institutions under Part IX (73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992) of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor and can only be removed from office in the manner and on the grounds specified for a Judge of a High Court.

A Panchayat constituted upon the premature dissolution of an existing Panchayat before the expiration of its duration shall continue for a fresh full term of five years.

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act mandates a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj at the village, intermediate, and district levels for all States without any population threshold exemption.

The State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor every five years under Article 243-I to review the financial position of the Panchayats and recommend principles for revenue distribution.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor and can only be removed from office in the manner and on the grounds specified for a Judge of a High Court.; The State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor every five years under Article 243-I to review the financial position of the Panchayats and recommend principles for revenue distribution.

Answer

The correct statements are that the State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor and removed like a High Court Judge, and that the State Finance Commission is constituted every five years by the Governor under Article 243-I.

The statements describing the removal procedure of the State Election Commissioner (same as a High Court Judge under Article 243K) and the constitution of the State Finance Commission by the Governor every five years (under Article 243-I) accurately state constitutional facts under Part IX.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the provision regarding the State Election Commission (Article 243K)

Article 243K(2) specifies that the Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner, and conditions of service/tenure cannot be varied to their disadvantage after appointment. Removal requires the same procedure as a High Court Judge.

Ensures independence of the election machinery at the local governance level.

Examine the tenure rule for Panchayats constituted after premature dissolution (Article 243E)

Article 243E(4) explicitly states that a Panchayat elected after early dissolution serves only the remaining portion of the original 5-year tenure.

Prevents alignment shifts and maintains synchronization of electoral cycles.

Check the structural tiers mandate under Article 243B

Article 243B(2) provides an exemption: states with a population below 20 lakhs need not establish the intermediate level tier.

Provides administrative flexibility for smaller states.

Verify the provisions for the State Finance Commission under Article 243-I

Article 243-I requires the Governor to constitute a State Finance Commission every five years to advise on fiscal devolution to local bodies.

Ensures financial autonomy and structured resource transfer to Panchayats.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions under Part IX (Articles 243 to 243O) regulating tenure, election machinery, financial devolution, and structural tiers of Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Question 1851Question →

Match the medieval Indian administrative terms and offices listed in List-I with their corresponding functions and administrative roles in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Diwan-i-Insha matches with In-charge of royal correspondence and official state documents in the Delhi Sultanate; Mir Saman matches with Officer supervising the royal household, imperial stores, and state manufacturing workshops (Karkhanas) under the Mughals; Peshwa matches with Prime Minister responsible for general administration and leading the council of ministers in the Maratha State; Mandalam matches with Major territorial province in the administrative division hierarchy of the Chola Empire.

Each administrative term correctly maps to its respective institutional role: Diwan-i-Insha directed state documentation under the Delhi Sultanate, Mir Saman supervised imperial stores and workshops in the Mughal Empire, Peshwa headed general civil administration as chief minister in the Maratha kingdom, and Mandalam designated a primary province in Chola territorial governance.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the function of Diwan-i-Insha

Diwan-i-Insha was the central department of royal correspondence and state documents in the Delhi Sultanate.

This establishes the pairing between Diwan-i-Insha and state correspondence.

Identify the duties of Mir Saman in Mughal administration

Mir Saman looked after the emperor's household, stores, provisions, and manufacturing karkhanas.

This links Mir Saman to royal household and workshop supervision.

Determine the role of Peshwa in Maratha governance

As part of the Ashtapradhan council, the Peshwa served as Prime Minister managing executive administration.

This connects Peshwa with Prime Minister and general administration.

Examine the Chola administrative hierarchy

The Chola imperial domain was divided into large administrative provinces termed Mandalams.

This pairs Mandalam with major territorial province.

Key Concept

Medieval Indian Administrative Terminology and Institutional Frameworks

Estimated Time:1m 30s

Question 1852Question →

Match the landmark revolutionary conspiracy cases in List-I with the key revolutionary leaders associated with them in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct match pairs the Alipore Bomb Case (1908) with Barindra Kumar Ghosh, the Nasik Conspiracy Case (1909) with Anant Laxman Kanhere, the Delhi-Lahore Conspiracy Case (1912) with Basanta Kumar Biswas, and the Kakori Train Action (1925) with Ram Prasad Bismil.

The correct pairings accurately map each landmark revolutionary trial to its principal organizer or executor: Barindra Kumar Ghosh led the Muraripukur group tried in the Alipore Bomb Case (1908); Anant Laxman Kanhere executed Magistrate Jackson leading to the Nasik Conspiracy Case (1909); Basanta Kumar Biswas threw the bomb at Lord Hardinge in the Delhi-Lahore Conspiracy Case (1912); and Ram Prasad Bismil organized the Kakori Train Action (1925) for the HRA.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the leadership behind the 1908 Muraripukur bomb manufacture and revolutionary trial in Bengal.

Barindra Kumar Ghosh and Aurobindo Ghosh were the key figures prosecuted in the Alipore Bomb Case.

Linking early 20th-century Bengal secret societies to their primary legal case.

Identify the perpetrator of the 1909 Nasik magistrate assassination.

Anant Laxman Kanhere carried out the action for Abhinav Bharat, resulting in the Nasik Conspiracy Case.

Connecting Maharashtra revolutionary secret societies with their direct historical actions.

Identify the operative who hurled the bomb at Viceroy Lord Hardinge in Delhi in 1912.

Basanta Kumar Biswas, disguised as a woman, threw the bomb during the State Entry procession.

Associating the Northern Indian underground movement with its key executor.

Identify the chief leader behind the 1925 HRA treasury train raid at Kakori.

Ram Prasad Bismil was the principal strategist and commander of the Kakori operation.

Attributing HRA's major armed action to its founder-leader.

Key Concept

Revolutionary Nationalism and Conspiracy Cases in Colonial India

Question 1853Question →

Match the Constitutional Articles relating to the Indian Judiciary in List-I with their exact Jurisdictional Scope and Legal Characteristics in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 131 matches Exclusive original jurisdiction in Union-State disputes; Article 136 matches Special Leave Petition against court/tribunal orders; Article 143 matches Advisory jurisdiction upon Presidential reference; Article 226 matches High Court writ jurisdiction for Fundamental Rights and other legal purposes.

The correct pairings accurately map each Constitutional Article to its precise jurisdiction: Article 131 specifies the Supreme Court's exclusive original jurisdiction over Union-State and inter-State disputes involving legal rights; Article 136 confers plenary discretionary authority to grant special leave to appeal against judgments of any court or tribunal except military tribunals; Article 143 governs the Supreme Court's advisory jurisdiction on Presidential references; and Article 226 provides High Courts with broad writ power covering both Fundamental Rights and ordinary legal rights.

Step-by-Step Solution

Examine Article 131 of the Constitution of India.

Identified as exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

Article 131 applies exclusively to federal disputes involving legal questions between the Union government and State governments or between different States.

Examine Article 136 of the Constitution of India.

Identified as the plenary discretionary jurisdiction for Special Leave Petitions.

Article 136 permits the Supreme Court to hear appeals by special leave from any judicial or quasi-judicial body in India, excluding military tribunals.

Examine Article 143 of the Constitution of India.

Identified as advisory jurisdiction.

Article 143 enables the President of India to refer matters of law or fact of general public importance to the Supreme Court for advisory opinions.

Examine Article 226 of the Constitution of India.

Identified as writ jurisdiction of the High Courts.

Article 226 grants High Courts the authority to issue writs not only for enforcing Fundamental Rights (Part III) but also for 'any other purpose' (statutory or legal rights).

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions governing the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts of India.

Question 1854Question →

Consider the following statements regarding worker classification and demographic workforce trends in India based on the Census of India 2011:

1. A 'Marginal Worker' is defined as a person who worked for less than 183 days (or 6 months) during the reference year.
2. In the 2011 Census, the absolute number of agricultural labourers exceeded the absolute number of cultivators for the first time.
3. The female Work Participation Rate (WPR) in rural areas is significantly higher than the female Work Participation Rate in urban areas.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

All three statements are factually and conceptually accurate according to the Census of India 2011. Marginal workers are defined by work duration under 183 days; agricultural labourers surpassed cultivators for the first time in 2011; and rural female work participation rate significantly exceeds urban female work participation rate.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the definition of Marginal Worker.

Statement 1 is correct.

The Census of India classifies workers into Main Workers (worked 183 days/6 months or more) and Marginal Workers (worked less than 183 days/6 months during the reference year).

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the shift in agricultural workforce composition in Census 2011.

Statement 2 is correct.

In Census 2011, for the first time in post-independence census history, agricultural labourers (144.3 million) outnumbered cultivators (118.7 million), reflecting land fragmentation and rural proletarianization.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding gendered Work Participation Rate (WPR) differences across rural and urban sectors.

Statement 3 is correct.

According to Census 2011, female Work Participation Rate in rural areas was 25.38% compared to 15.35% in urban areas, as primary sector activities absorb a larger proportion of informal female labour in rural India.

Key Concept

Workforce Classification and Demographic Trends in Census of India 2011

Estimated Time:2m 0s

Question 1855Question →

Which of the following recommendations and methodological features were adopted by the Expert Group on Estimation of Proportion and Number of Poor chaired by D.T. Lakdawala (1993)? Select all correct options.

Select all that apply

Discontinuation of the practice of adjusting NSSO household consumption expenditure data using National Accounts Statistics (NAS) aggregate estimates.

Creation of state-specific poverty lines updated using the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) for rural areas and CPI for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) for urban areas.

Adoption of the Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP) as the baseline survey method for measuring household consumption expenditure.

Retention of the baseline minimum daily per capita energy requirements of

2400\text{ kcal}

for rural areas and

2100\text{ kcal}

for urban areas.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Discontinuation of the practice of adjusting NSSO household consumption expenditure data using National Accounts Statistics (NAS) aggregate estimates.; Creation of state-specific poverty lines updated using the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) for rural areas and CPI for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) for urban areas.; Retention of the baseline minimum daily per capita energy requirements of $2400\text{ kcal}$ for rural areas and $2100\text{ kcal}$ for urban areas.

Answer

The correct statements are the discontinuation of NAS data adjustment, the adoption of state-specific price indices (CPI-AL and CPI-IW), and the retention of the

2400\text{ kcal}

(rural) and

2100\text{ kcal}

(urban) daily calorie benchmarks.

The D.T. Lakdawala Expert Group (1993) introduced state-specific poverty lines based on CPI-AL for rural areas and CPI-IW for urban areas, discontinued the artificial scaling up of NSSO survey data using NAS aggregates, and retained the Alagh Task Force calorie norms of

2400\text{ kcal}

per day for rural areas and

2100\text{ kcal}

per day for urban areas.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the Lakdawala Committee's stance on NAS adjustment.

Prior to 1993, the Planning Commission scaled up NSSO consumption estimates to align with NAS data. The Lakdawala Committee discontinued this practice due to statistical inconsistencies.

To ensure poverty estimates reflect actual household consumption survey distributions directly.

Examine the price indices recommended for rural and urban state-specific poverty lines.

The committee recommended updating rural poverty lines using CPI-AL and urban poverty lines using CPI-IW across states.

State-specific inflation rates varied significantly, requiring localized price deflators.

Evaluate the recall period and energy norms used by the Lakdawala Committee.

The committee retained the 30-day Uniform Reference Period (URP) and maintained the

2400\text{ kcal}

(rural) and

2100\text{ kcal}

(urban) standards.

MMRP was only introduced much later by the Rangarajan Committee in 2014, whereas Tendulkar used MRP in 2009.

Key Concept

Methodology of the Lakdawala Expert Group (1993) on Poverty Estimation

Question 1856Question →

Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes between the compulsory (mandatory) and voluntary provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992?

Providing reservation for Backward Classes in Panchayats at any level is a voluntary provision, whereas reserving seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population is a compulsory provision.

Providing representation to Members of Parliament and State Legislatures in Panchayats is a compulsory provision, whereas constituting a State Finance Commission every five years is a voluntary provision.

Fixing a minimum age of 21 years for contesting elections to Panchayats is a voluntary provision, whereas granting financial powers to Panchayats to levy and collect local taxes is a compulsory provision.

Establishing a Gram Sabha at the village level is a voluntary provision, whereas granting voting rights to the Chairperson of a Panchayat at the intermediate level is a voluntary provision.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Providing reservation for Backward Classes in Panchayats at any level is a voluntary provision, whereas reserving seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population is a compulsory provision.

Answer

The correct answer accurately distinguishes between compulsory and voluntary provisions: reserving seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to population under Article 243D is a mandatory constitutional requirement, whereas authorizing reservation of seats or chairperson offices for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) is an explicit voluntary provision left to state legislatures.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the constitutional classification under the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992

Identify mandatory constitutional mandates (compulsory) versus discretionary powers delegated to state legislatures (voluntary).

The 73rd Amendment establishes a framework where basic structural, electoral, and representational rules are mandatory, but financial devolution and specific political reservations (OBCs) depend on state legislation.

Evaluate mandatory provisions regarding reservations and institutions

Creation of Gram Sabha (Article 243A), 5-year tenure (Article 243E), minimum 21 years age for contesting (Article 243F), SC/ST reservations by population proportion (Article 243D), one-third reservation for women (Article 243D), State Election Commission (Article 243K), and State Finance Commission (Article 243I) are compulsory.

These provisions ensure uniform institutional structure across states.

Evaluate voluntary provisions subject to state law

Reserving seats/offices for Backward Classes, representation of MPs/MLAs/MLCs in local bodies, giving financial powers to levy taxes, and devolving powers listed under the 11th Schedule are voluntary.

State legislatures hold constitutional autonomy under Part IX to determine the extent of these powers and reservations.

Key Concept

Compulsory vs Voluntary Provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act

Question 1857Question →

Under the provisions of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, governing Urban Local Bodies in India, which of the following statements regarding Wards Committees and Metropolitan Planning Committees are correct?

Select all that apply

As per Article 243S of the Constitution of India, the constitution of Wards Committees is mandatory for every Municipality having a population of three lakhs or more.

Under Article 243ZE, not less than two-thirds of the members of a Metropolitan Planning Committee must be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members of the Municipalities and Chairpersons of the Panchayats in the Metropolitan area.

The State Finance Commission for reviewing the financial position of Municipalities is constituted by the Governor under Article 243ZD of the Constitution.

The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act added the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India, specifying 18 functional matters for Municipalities.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: As per Article 243S of the Constitution of India, the constitution of Wards Committees is mandatory for every Municipality having a population of three lakhs or more.; Under Article 243ZE, not less than two-thirds of the members of a Metropolitan Planning Committee must be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members of the Municipalities and Chairpersons of the Panchayats in the Metropolitan area.

Answer

The correct statements are that Wards Committees are mandatory for municipalities with a population of three lakhs or more under Article 243S, and at least two-thirds of Metropolitan Planning Committee members are elected from municipal members and panchayat chairpersons under Article 243ZE.

The statement specifying that Wards Committees are mandatory for municipalities with a population of 3 lakhs or more (Article 243S) and the statement asserting that at least two-thirds of Metropolitan Planning Committee members are elected from municipal members and panchayat chairpersons (Article 243ZE) are constitutionally accurate.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate the statement regarding Wards Committees under Article 243S.

Confirmed correct: Article 243S mandates Wards Committees for every municipality having a population of 300,000 (3 lakhs) or more.

Constitutional mandate under Article 243S.

Evaluate the statement regarding Metropolitan Planning Committee composition under Article 243ZE.

Confirmed correct: Article 243ZE specifies that not less than two-thirds of MPC members must be elected by and from amongst elected municipal members and chairpersons of panchayats in the area.

Constitutional ratio prescribed under Article 243ZE.

Verify article assignment and schedule designations in the remaining statements.

Identified errors: Article 243ZD deals with District Planning Committees (DPC), whereas Article 243Y specifies the State Finance Commission for Municipalities. Furthermore, Municipalities are covered under the Twelfth Schedule, not the Eleventh Schedule.

Correct mapping of Articles and Schedules under Part IXA.

Key Concept

Urban Local Bodies Constitutional Provisions (74th Amendment Act)

Estimated Time:1m 30s

Question 1858Question →

Who among the following presided over the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India as its interim President on December 9, 1946?

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Jawaharlal Nehru

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Answer

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha presided over the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly as its interim President on December 9, 1946.

On December 9, 1946, the Constituent Assembly convened for the first time. Following the French tradition of appointing the senior-most member as temporary head, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was chosen as the interim President.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the event and date specified in the question.

The event is the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly held on December 9, 1946.

The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946, in the Constitution Hall (now Central Hall of Parliament).

Recall the convention followed for electing the temporary President.

Following the French practice, the oldest member was elected as the temporary President.

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the oldest member present in the assembly.

Distinguish between the temporary and permanent leadership.

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the interim President, while Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President on December 11, 1946.

This clear distinction isolates the correct answer from subsequent leadership roles.

Key Concept

Inaugural Leadership of the Constituent Assembly

Estimated Time:45s

Question 1859Question →

Under the Constitution of India, which Article empowers the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other legal purpose?

Article 226

Article 32

Article 143

Article 123

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Article 226

Answer

Article 226 empowers the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other legal purpose.

Article 226 of the Indian Constitution grants High Courts broad writ jurisdiction to issue writs such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo-Warranto, and Certiorari for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the constitutional provision governing High Court writ powers.

Article 226 explicitly grants High Courts the power to issue directions, orders, or writs.

Unlike Article 32 which is restricted to Fundamental Rights for the Supreme Court, Article 226 includes 'any other purpose'.

Key Concept

Writ Jurisdiction of High Courts under Article 226

Estimated Time:45s

Question 1860Question →

Under Article 75 of the Constitution of India, on whose advice does the President appoint the other members of the Union Council of Ministers?

The Prime Minister

The Governor of the State

The Vice-President of India

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Prime Minister

Answer

The President appoints the members of the Union Council of Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution mandates that the Prime Minister is appointed by the President, and all other Union Ministers are appointed by the President strictly on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the relevant constitutional provision regarding the appointment of Union Ministers.

Article 75(1) of the Constitution of India specifies the procedure for appointing members of the Union Council of Ministers.

Article 75(1) explicitly states: 'The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.'

Key Concept

Appointment of Union Ministers under Article 75

PreviousPage 93 / 230Next

All practice questions

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept