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Question 3221Question →

A 27-year-old male civil engineer is brought to the psychiatric emergency service by his roommate. The patient has been isolating in his bedroom for the past month, sleeping over 14 hours a day, and neglecting his personal hygiene. During the interview, he exhibits profound psychomotor retardation and admits to active suicidal ideation with a plan to ingest household chemicals. His medical history is unremarkable. Upon review of his psychiatric history, his roommate reports that three years ago, the patient experienced a distinct three-week period during which he slept only two hours per night, spoke so rapidly he was nearly incomprehensible, and frantically wrote a 500-page manifesto believing he had independently solved major problems in quantum physics. The patient was hospitalized at that time but subsequently lost to follow-up. Vital signs and routine laboratory studies are within normal limits. Which of the following pharmacological interventions are appropriate for this patient's current presentation? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Initiate quetiapine monotherapy; Initiate lurasidone monotherapy

Answer

The appropriate next steps are to initiate quetiapine monotherapy or initiate lurasidone monotherapy.
The patient's history of a distinct period of decreased sleep, pressured speech, and grandiose delusions lasting three weeks meets the criteria for a manic episode, firmly establishing the diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder. He is currently experiencing a severe bipolar depressive episode with active suicidal ideation. The standard of care for acute bipolar depression includes monotherapy with specific second-generation antipsychotics that have proven efficacy for the depressive phase of bipolar disorder, such as quetiapine, lurasidone, cariprazine, or lumateperone. These agents treat the depression without the significant risk of inducing mania.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current symptoms and past psychiatric history.
Current severe major depressive episode (hypersomnia, anhedonia, suicidal ideation). Past history of a distinct 3-week episode of decreased sleep, pressured speech, and grandiose delusions.
Establishing the correct longitudinal diagnosis is crucial before initiating psychiatric medications.
2
Determine the primary diagnosis.
The history of a manic episode establishes the diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder. The current presentation is an acute bipolar depressive episode.
A single manic episode is sufficient to diagnose Bipolar I Disorder, which completely alters the treatment algorithm for subsequent depressive episodes.
3
Select appropriate pharmacological treatment for acute bipolar depression.
Quetiapine and lurasidone are identified as first-line FDA-approved monotherapies. Antidepressant monotherapy (fluoxetine) and dangerous combinations (fluoxetine + MAOI) are rejected.
Effective treatment for bipolar depression requires agents that lift mood without precipitating a manic switch. Certain second-generation antipsychotics possess these mood-stabilizing properties.

Key Concept

Diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder based on a prior manic episode, and treatment of acute bipolar depression using approved second-generation antipsychotics while avoiding antidepressant monotherapy.
Question 3222Question →

A 26-year-old woman comes to the outpatient psychiatric clinic reporting severe anxiety, insomnia, and nightmares. Exactly three weeks ago, she was sexually assaulted by an acquaintance at a party. She has not disclosed the assault to anyone else and explicitly asks the physician not to notify law enforcement, stating she is not ready for an investigation. Since the incident, she has avoided social gatherings, feels constantly 'on edge,' and experiences distressing flashbacks. Her past medical history is significant for bipolar I disorder. Her current medications include lithium and tranylcypromine, the latter having been added two months ago for depressive symptoms. She asks if a medication like sertraline could be prescribed, as she has heard it is effective for trauma. Vital signs are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Recommend trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy and maintain patient confidentiality

Answer

Recommend trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy and maintain patient confidentiality.
The correct answer provides the appropriate first-line treatment for Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) while adhering to ethical guidelines. The patient's symptoms (intrusive memories, avoidance, hyperarousal, and negative mood) occurring exactly 3 weeks after a traumatic event meet the criteria for ASD, not Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (which requires symptoms lasting longer than 1 month). Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy is the primary treatment for ASD. Furthermore, as a competent adult, the patient's autonomy must be respected; sexual assault does not mandate reporting to law enforcement unless the patient consents or specific state exemptions apply (e.g., vulnerable populations).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the symptom timeline relative to the traumatic event.
The trauma occurred exactly 3 weeks ago, and symptoms have persisted since then.
Establishing the timeline is necessary to differentiate between Acute Stress Disorder (< 1 month) and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (≥ 1 month).
2
Evaluate the ethical obligations regarding the patient's request for confidentiality.
The patient is a competent adult who explicitly requested that law enforcement not be notified.
To determine if mandatory reporting laws apply. Mandatory reporting for sexual assault typically applies only to minors, the elderly, or vulnerable adults, not competent adults.
3
Assess the safety of the patient's pharmacological request.
The patient requested sertraline (an SSRI) but is currently taking tranylcypromine (an MAOI) and lithium (for bipolar I disorder).
To prevent fatal drug interactions (Serotonin Syndrome from MAOI + SSRI) and avoid destabilizing her bipolar disorder (manic switch from SSRI monotherapy).
4
Determine the most appropriate management based on the correct diagnosis and ethical constraints.
Trauma-focused CBT is recommended as the first-line treatment for Acute Stress Disorder, while strict confidentiality must be maintained.
This provides evidence-based care while adhering to ethical standards and avoiding pharmacological harm.

Key Concept

Management of Acute Stress Disorder requires recognizing the <1 month diagnostic timeline, providing trauma-focused CBT, and respecting the confidentiality of competent adult sexual assault survivors while carefully monitoring for psychiatric drug interactions.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3223Question →

A 78-year-old man with an 8-year history of Parkinson disease is brought to the geriatrics clinic by his daughter. Over the past 6 months, he has exhibited progressive memory loss, difficulty paying bills, and fluctuating attention. During the last 2 weeks, he has developed vivid, terrifying visual hallucinations of strangers in his bedroom, leading to severe agitation. His vital signs and physical examination are unchanged from his baseline. His current medications include carbidopa-levodopa, pramipexole, trihexyphenidyl, and omeprazole. The physician determines that a stepwise approach is required to manage his neuropsychiatric symptoms while attempting to preserve motor function.

Arrange the following management steps in the most appropriate sequential order, from the initial most necessary action to the final therapy of last resort.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: 1) Evaluate for systemic causes of delirium, 2) Discontinue anticholinergics (trihexyphenidyl), 3) Taper dopamine agonists (pramipexole), 4) Initiate an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (rivastigmine), and 5) Initiate a targeted atypical antipsychotic (quetiapine/pimavanserin).
The algorithmic management of psychosis in Parkinson disease requires a stepwise approach that balances psychiatric symptom control with motor function preservation. Any subacute change in behavior must first prompt an evaluation for delirium (e.g., infections, metabolic disturbances). Once ruled out, the physician should incrementally simplify the medication regimen. Medications with the highest risk of neuropsychiatric side effects and lowest motor benefit are discontinued first: anticholinergics (trihexyphenidyl) > amantadine > MAO-B inhibitors > dopamine agonists (pramipexole) > COMT inhibitors. Carbidopa-levodopa is reduced last, only if absolutely necessary. If psychosis persists despite optimizing the regimen, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (rivastigmine) is often added, particularly if cognitive impairment (Parkinson disease dementia) is present. If symptoms remain severe and distressing, an atypical antipsychotic with low D2 affinity (quetiapine, clozapine) or a 5-HT2A inverse agonist (pimavanserin) is initiated as a last resort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate for systemic causes of delirium.
Identifies or excludes acute medical illnesses such as urinary tract infections or metabolic derangements.
Patients with underlying major neurocognitive disorders are highly susceptible to delirium. An acute change in mental status (over 2 weeks) mandates ruling out reversible medical causes before adjusting psychiatric or neurologic medications.
2
Simplify the antiparkinsonian regimen by discontinuing anticholinergics (trihexyphenidyl).
Removes the medication with the highest risk of causing confusion and hallucinations.
Anticholinergics impair cognition and frequently cause visual hallucinations in the elderly. They offer minimal motor benefit compared to levodopa and are the first agents to be stopped.
3
Taper and discontinue dopamine agonists (pramipexole).
Reduces dopaminergic overstimulation in the mesolimbic pathway.
If symptoms persist, other adjunctive medications (amantadine, MAO-B inhibitors, then dopamine agonists) are sequentially reduced. Dopamine agonists are notorious for causing psychosis and impulse control disorders.
4
Initiate an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (rivastigmine).
Enhances central cholinergic transmission.
In patients with Parkinson disease dementia experiencing psychosis, cholinesterase inhibitors can improve both cognitive function and behavioral symptoms without significantly worsening motor function.
5
Initiate a low-affinity D2 receptor antagonist (quetiapine) or a 5-HT2A inverse agonist (pimavanserin).
Directly targets psychotic symptoms as a therapy of last resort.
If psychosis remains severe and distressing despite the above measures, targeted antipsychotics are used. Typical antipsychotics and most atypicals (e.g., risperidone) are contraindicated due to severe worsening of parkinsonism.

Key Concept

Algorithmic management of psychosis and agitation in Parkinson Disease Dementia.
Question 3224Question →

A 19-year-old college student is evaluated in the university health center. His roommate brought him in because he has been "acting strange" for the past two hours. The roommate notes that the patient has been laughing inappropriately, speaking slowly, and eating unusually large amounts of snack foods. The patient has no past medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs show a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure of 115/75 mm Hg, pulse of 118/min, and respirations of 14/min. Physical examination shows prominent conjunctival injection and a dry oral mucosa. Pupils are equal and reactive to light. Neurologic examination is unremarkable, and there is no nystagmus. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?

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Answer: Cannabis intoxication

Answer

Cannabis intoxication
The correct answer accurately identifies the classic presentation of acute cannabis (marijuana) intoxication. Patients typically present with a combination of behavioral changes (euphoria, inappropriate laughter, slowed time perception, delayed reaction times) and distinct physiologic signs. The most highly specific physical examination finding is prominent conjunctival injection (red eyes). Other common signs include tachycardia, dry mouth (xerostomia), and a significantly increased appetite (hyperphagia). The absence of nystagmus, pupillary changes, and aggression helps rule out other common substances of abuse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's behavioral presentation.
The patient exhibits inappropriate laughter, slow speech, and significantly increased appetite.
Identifying the behavioral changes helps narrow the differential diagnosis of substance use.
2
Evaluate the physical examination and vital signs.
The patient has tachycardia (118/min), prominent conjunctival injection (red eyes), and dry oral mucosa, without nystagmus or pupillary dilation.
Specific physical signs act as key differentiators between various toxidromes.
3
Synthesize the findings to determine the causative substance.
The combination of increased appetite, conjunctival injection, dry mouth, and tachycardia points directly to cannabis.
This is the classic physiologic and behavioral signature of acute marijuana use.

Key Concept

The diagnosis of acute cannabis intoxication is clinical and relies on recognizing signs such as conjunctival injection, tachycardia, increased appetite, and dry mouth.
Question 3225Question →

A 37-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his sister due to a 6-week history of profound fatigue, hypersomnia, and a 4-kg (9-lb) weight gain. He states he feels completely devoid of energy, struggles to get out of bed, and expresses unwarranted guilt over taking time off from his job as an accountant. His sister notes that three years ago, the patient experienced a highly unusual two-week period during which he slept only three hours a night, exhibited pressured speech, and impulsively emptied his savings account to invest in unproven cryptocurrency. He has no other medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory evaluation shows a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 2.1 µU/mL (normal: 0.5-5.0 µU/mL) and a normal free T4 level. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Quetiapine

Answer

The most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy is quetiapine, as the patient is experiencing a bipolar depressive episode.
The correct answer is quetiapine. This patient is currently experiencing a major depressive episode, but his history of a distinct 2-week period of elevated energy, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and severe impulsivity indicates a past manic episode. Therefore, his correct diagnosis is Bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressed phase. First-line treatments for bipolar depression include quetiapine, lurasidone, and the olanzapine-fluoxetine combination. These agents effectively target depressive symptoms without significantly increasing the risk of a manic switch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the current symptom profile.
The patient has a 6-week history of fatigue, hypersomnia, weight gain, guilt, and low energy, which meets the criteria for a major depressive episode with atypical features.
Establishing the current affective state is the first step in psychiatric diagnosis.
2
Analyze the collateral history provided by the sister.
The patient had a distinct 2-week period of decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and severe impulsivity (emptying his savings).
All patients presenting with depression must be screened for past manic or hypomanic episodes to differentiate unipolar from bipolar depression.
3
Synthesize the timeline and severity to establish the primary diagnosis.
A history of at least one manic episode (lasting ≥1 week with marked impairment) establishes the diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder. The current presentation is a bipolar depressive episode.
Bipolar I disorder requires at least one manic episode; depressive episodes are common but not required for the diagnosis, though they often dominate the clinical course.
4
Select the appropriate pharmacotherapy.
First-line treatments for bipolar depression include quetiapine, lurasidone, or the olanzapine-fluoxetine combination.
These agents effectively target depressive symptoms without significantly increasing the risk of a manic switch, unlike SSRI monotherapy.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with a major depressive episode must be screened for a history of mania or hypomania to distinguish Bipolar Disorder from Major Depressive Disorder, as treatment pathways differ significantly.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3226Question →

An 18-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his older sister because he has been unable to stand up from the couch for the past two hours. Over the last 33 weeks, his sister notes he has been increasingly withdrawn, occasionally talking to people who are not present, and failing to show up for his part-time job. His medical history includes major depressive disorder, for which he has been taking fluoxetine for the past year.

On physical examination, the patient is lethargic but arousable. An erythematous, flaky rash is noted around his mouth and nares. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Heart rate is 105/min105/\text{min}, blood pressure is 112/70 mm Hg112/70\text{ mm Hg}, and respiratory rate is 24/min24/\text{min}. Neurologic examination reveals symmetric 2/52/5 muscle strength in the lower extremities bilaterally, with absent patellar reflexes.

Laboratory results:
Na+Na^+: 140 mEq/L140\text{ mEq/L}
K+K^+: 1.8 mEq/L1.8\text{ mEq/L}
Cl−Cl^-: 115 mEq/L115\text{ mEq/L}
HCO3−HCO_3^-: 14 mEq/L14\text{ mEq/L}
BUNBUN: 10 mg/dL10\text{ mg/dL}
CrCr: 0.7 mg/dL0.7\text{ mg/dL}
TSHTSH: 1.8 μU/mL1.8\text{ }\mu\text{U/mL}
Urine toxicology screen: Negative for opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, PCP, and cannabis.

Arterial blood gas on room air:
pH: 7.227.22
PaCO2P_{a}CO_2: 36 mm Hg36\text{ mm Hg}
PaO2P_{a}O_2: 85 mm Hg85\text{ mm Hg}

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Administer intravenous potassium chloride and continuously monitor respiratory status.

Answer

Administer intravenous potassium chloride and continuously monitor respiratory status.
This patient's presentation is classic for inhalant (specifically toluene) toxicity. The erythematous perioral rash ('huffer's rash'), lethargy, and negative standard urine toxicology screen in a young adult point to volatile solvent abuse. Toluene causes a Type 1 (distal) renal tubular acidosis, leading to severe potassium wasting and a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis. The profound hypokalemia (1.8 mEq/L1.8\text{ mEq/L}) is responsible for the patient's flaccid paralysis and absent reflexes. Using Winter's formula (1.5×14+8=291.5 \times 14 + 8 = 29), the expected PaCO2P_{a}CO_2 is 27−31 mm Hg27-31\text{ mm Hg}. The measured PaCO2P_{a}CO_2 of 36 mm Hg36\text{ mm Hg} reveals a superimposed respiratory acidosis, secondary to inhalant-induced CNS depression. Therefore, the most urgent interventions are replenishing potassium to prevent fatal arrhythmias and closely monitoring the airway due to impending respiratory failure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary toxidrome from the clinical clues.
The combination of an erythematous perioral rash ('huffer's rash'), central nervous system depression, and severe hypokalemia in an adolescent strongly indicates inhalant abuse, specifically toluene (found in paint thinner or glue).
Recognizing the specific substance of abuse is required to understand the systemic pathophysiology.
2
Analyze the basic metabolic panel and determine the primary acid-base disturbance.
The anion gap is calculated as Na+−(Cl−+HCO3−)=140−(115+14)=11Na^+ - (Cl^- + HCO_3^-) = 140 - (115 + 14) = 11, which is normal. The patient has a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis.
Toluene metabolism produces hippuric acid, which obligates potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a Type 1 (distal) renal tubular acidosis (RTA) characterized by normal anion gap acidosis and severe hypokalemia.
3
Evaluate the respiratory compensation using Winter's formula.
Expected PaCO2=1.5×[HCO3−]+8±2=1.5×14+8±2=29±2P_{a}CO_2 = 1.5 \times [HCO_3^-] + 8 \pm 2 = 1.5 \times 14 + 8 \pm 2 = 29 \pm 2. The expected range is 2727 to 31 mm Hg31\text{ mm Hg}.
To determine if the patient has a simple or mixed acid-base disorder.
4
Compare expected vs. measured PaCO2P_{a}CO_2.
The measured PaCO2P_{a}CO_2 is 36 mm Hg36\text{ mm Hg}, which is significantly higher than the expected maximum of 31 mm Hg31\text{ mm Hg}. This means there is a superimposed respiratory acidosis.
Despite being tachypneic (24/min24/\text{min}), the patient's central nervous system depression from the inhalant is preventing adequate ventilation to compensate for the metabolic acidosis.
5
Determine the most critical next step in management.
Intravenous potassium chloride administration and respiratory monitoring.
The patient's flaccid paralysis is due to life-threatening hypokalemia (1.8 mEq/L1.8\text{ mEq/L}), which can cause fatal arrhythmias. Concurrently, the uncompensated respiratory acidosis indicates impending respiratory failure requiring close airway monitoring.

Key Concept

Toluene (inhalant) toxicity presents with central nervous system depression, perioral rash, and Type 1 renal tubular acidosis causing a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis with profound hypokalemia. Mixed acid-base disorders often accompany severe intoxication.

Practice More

Review the criteria for distinguishing brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder, and schizophrenia, as well as the formula for calculating Winter's formula.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3227Question →

A 68-year-old man is brought to the geriatric psychiatry clinic by his son for evaluation of worsening memory. The son reports that his father has been increasingly forgetful over the past 4 months, frequently missing appointments and neglecting to pay bills. The patient's wife passed away unexpectedly 6 months ago. Since her death, the patient has lost 5 kg (11 lbs), complains of waking up at 3:00 AM every morning and being unable to return to sleep, and has lost interest in his usual hobby of gardening. During the interview, the patient makes poor eye contact and appears apathetic. When asked about recent news events to test his memory, he immediately sighs and responds, "I just don't know, my memory is terrible." With significant encouragement and prompting, he is able to recall 2 out of 3 words after 5 minutes and correctly draw a clock. His physical and neurological examinations are unremarkable. Which of the following clinical features most strongly supports a diagnosis of major depressive disorder with cognitive impairment (pseudodementia) rather than Alzheimer disease in this patient?

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Answer: Tendency to highlight cognitive deficits and frequently answer "I don't know"

Answer

The tendency to highlight cognitive deficits and frequently answer "I don't know" during testing.
Patients with major depressive disorder can develop significant cognitive impairment, a condition often termed pseudodementia. A key distinguishing feature between pseudodementia and a true neurodegenerative dementia (such as Alzheimer disease) is the patient's attitude toward their cognitive decline. Patients with pseudodementia typically have a subacute symptom onset, maintain acute insight into their deficits, frequently complain about their memory loss, and exhibit poor effort on cognitive testing (often giving up easily and defaulting to "I don't know"). In contrast, patients with Alzheimer disease typically have an insidious onset, lack insight into their deficits (anosognosia), minimize their memory loss, and will often attempt to answer questions or confabulate rather than giving up. This patient's prominent complaints about his memory and tendency to say "I don't know" before performing well with encouragement strongly point to underlying depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's primary symptoms and timeline.
The patient has 4 months of memory loss, apathy, weight loss, and insomnia starting 2 months after the death of his wife.
Establishes a temporal relationship between a major psychosocial stressor (bereavement) and the subacute onset of cognitive and mood symptoms.
2
Analyze the patient's behavior during the cognitive assessment.
The patient complains about his poor memory, gives poor initial effort ("I don't know"), but performs adequately with encouragement.
Differentiates the lack of effort seen in depression from the genuine loss of cognitive capacity and lack of insight seen in true dementia.
3
Compare the findings against classic presentations of major neurocognitive disorder.
Alzheimer disease typically presents with insidious onset, lack of insight (anosognosia), and attempts to guess or confabulate when unable to answer.
Confirms that the patient's presentation aligns with pseudodementia rather than a primary neurodegenerative process.

Key Concept

Differentiating major depressive disorder with cognitive impairment (pseudodementia) from primary neurodegenerative dementias like Alzheimer disease.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3228Question →

A 19-year-old female is evaluated in the emergency department for severe generalized weakness and muscle cramps. Her roommate reports that the patient is heavily preoccupied with her body image and frequently goes to the bathroom immediately after meals. Vital signs show a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg and a heart rate of 98/min. Physical examination reveals bilateral parotid gland enlargement, dry mucous membranes, and calluses on the dorsum of her right hand. Which of the following sets of laboratory abnormalities is most likely to be found in this patient?

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Answer: Hypokalemia, hypochloremia, and metabolic alkalosis

Answer

Hypokalemia, hypochloremia, and metabolic alkalosis
The correct answer accurately reflects the pathophysiology of repeated self-induced vomiting. The patient's clinical presentation, including Russell sign (calluses on the knuckles) and parotid gland enlargement, strongly indicates purging via vomiting. Emesis results in the loss of gastric hydrochloric acid (HCl), causing hypochloremia and primary metabolic alkalosis. Additionally, the resulting volume depletion stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which increases urinary potassium excretion in order to reabsorb sodium, leading to significant hypokalemia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's underlying condition based on the clinical presentation.
The patient has signs of self-induced vomiting (Russell sign, parotid enlargement) suggesting an eating disorder with purging behavior.
Parotid gland hypertrophy and calluses on the dorsum of the hand (Russell sign) are classic physical findings of frequent self-induced vomiting.
2
Determine the physiological consequences of frequent self-induced vomiting.
Vomiting causes a significant loss of fluid, hydrogen ions, and chloride ions from the stomach.
Gastric fluid is rich in hydrochloric acid (HCl).
3
Predict the resulting electrolyte and acid-base disturbances.
The loss of HCl leads to hypochloremia and metabolic alkalosis. Subsequent volume depletion activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to renal potassium wasting and hypokalemia.
Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption at the expense of potassium and hydrogen ion excretion, exacerbating both the hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.

Key Concept

Patients with eating disorders who engage in self-induced vomiting characteristically develop a hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.
Question 3229Question →

A 6868-year-old man is brought to the geriatric clinic by his daughter for a follow-up evaluation. For the past 33 months, he has experienced profound sadness, anhedonia, early morning awakenings, and a 66-kg (1313-lb) weight loss. Three weeks ago, he began stating that his "stomach has turned to dust" and now frequently refuses to eat.

Three weeks ago, his primary care physician diagnosed a major depressive episode and prescribed citalopram. The patient took it for 1414 days but stopped it entirely 77 days ago because "it wasn't doing anything." His past medical history includes severe osteoarthritis, for which he takes daily tramadol.

His daughter privately reports that when the patient was 3232 years old, he had a distinct 66-week period where he slept only 22 hours a night, exhibited pressured speech, and impulsively bought two boats, which led to a brief psychiatric hospitalization.

Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory results show:
- Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 1.21.2 μ\mu U/mL (normal: 0.40.4–4.04.0 μ\mu U/mL)
- Free thyroxine (T4): 0.50.5 ng/dL (normal: 0.90.9–2.42.4 ng/dL)

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate quetiapine

Answer

The most appropriate next step is to initiate quetiapine to treat bipolar depression with psychotic features.
The correct answer is to initiate quetiapine. This patient presents with a severe depressive episode characterized by melancholic and psychotic features (nihilistic delusions). However, his remote history of an episode involving decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, and hospitalization meets the criteria for a manic episode. Therefore, his true diagnosis is Bipolar I disorder, currently in a severe depressive episode. First-line treatments for bipolar depression that also effectively target psychotic symptoms include atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine or lurasidone.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current psychiatric presentation.
The patient meets criteria for a major depressive episode with psychotic features (nihilistic delusions, specifically Cotard's syndrome).
This establishes the severity of the current episode and the need to target both mood and psychosis.
2
Evaluate the patient's psychiatric history.
The history of a manic episode (decreased sleep, impulsivity, hospitalization at age 3232) changes the primary diagnosis from Major Depressive Disorder to Bipolar I Disorder.
A single manic episode is sufficient to diagnose Bipolar I Disorder, fundamentally altering the pharmacologic approach to depressive episodes.
3
Assess the pharmacological context and laboratory findings.
The patient prematurely stopped citalopram (which was actually protective against a manic switch), takes tramadol (serotonergic risk), and has central hypothyroidism (normal TSH, low T4).
This rules out resuming SSRIs, initiating MAOIs (due to drug interactions), and treating for primary hypothyroidism.
4
Select the optimal treatment for the established diagnosis.
Quetiapine is selected as it is FDA-approved for bipolar depression and provides antipsychotic coverage.
It treats both the bipolar depression and the psychotic features without the risk of antidepressant-induced mania.

Key Concept

Patients presenting with a major depressive episode must be meticulously screened for a history of mania; if present, the diagnosis is Bipolar Disorder, and antidepressant monotherapy should be avoided in favor of agents like quetiapine, lurasidone, or lithium.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3230Question →

A 55-year-old asymptomatic woman undergoes a routine screening mammogram. The radiology report notes a new, 8-millimeter cluster of pleomorphic microcalcifications in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. The patient has no personal or family history of breast cancer. On physical examination, the breasts are symmetric with no skin dimpling, nipple retraction, or erythema. Palpation reveals no distinct masses, and there is no axillary lymphadenopathy. Arrange the following steps in the most appropriate chronological sequence for the evaluation and definitive management of this patient's findings, assuming the lesion is confirmed to be an early-stage malignancy.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with diagnostic mammography, followed by stereotactic biopsy, preoperative wire localization, surgical excision with specimen radiography, and concludes with adjuvant radiation therapy.
The standard of care for a new, suspicious cluster of microcalcifications found on screening mammography dictates a precise sequence: further imaging characterization (diagnostic magnification views) must precede tissue sampling (stereotactic core biopsy). Once malignancy is confirmed, therapeutic management for non-palpable disease requires image-guided localization prior to surgery, intraoperative specimen radiography to verify successful excision of the calcifications, and finally, adjuvant radiation therapy to complete the breast-conserving treatment algorithm.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Obtain diagnostic mammography with magnification views.
Fully characterizes the microcalcifications and assigns a definitive BI-RADS category.
Screening mammograms only provide standard two-view imaging; any abnormality requires dedicated diagnostic imaging to assess extent, morphology, and suspicion level before attempting a biopsy.
2
Perform stereotactic-guided core needle biopsy.
Provides histological diagnosis of the suspicious tissue.
Tissue diagnosis is strictly required for suspicious lesions. Stereotactic guidance is utilized because microcalcifications are typically non-palpable and are generally not visible on ultrasound, precluding ultrasound-guided biopsy.
3
Perform preoperative wire or seed localization.
Marks the exact location of the non-palpable lesion for the surgical team.
Because the malignant lesion consists only of microcalcifications and cannot be felt by the surgeon, an interventional radiologist must place a physical or radioactive marker to guide the surgical approach.
4
Perform surgical excision with specimen radiography.
Removes the malignancy and radiographically confirms its extraction.
Lumpectomy is the standard treatment for early localized disease. The intraoperative X-ray of the specimen is mandatory to ensure the targeted microcalcifications are within the excised margins prior to closing the patient.
5
Administer adjuvant whole-breast radiation therapy.
Eradicates microscopic residual disease in the surrounding breast tissue.
Radiation is the standard of care following breast-conserving surgery to significantly reduce the risk of local recurrence.

Key Concept

Algorithm for evaluating and treating non-palpable suspicious breast microcalcifications
Question 3231Question →

Match each patient's clinical presentation and symptom timeline to the most appropriate DSM-5 psychiatric diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Patient exhibits auditory hallucinations and flat affect for 7 months. During this total duration, a major depressive episode was present for only 6 weeks.
Patient exhibits persecutory delusions and disorganized behavior for 4 months with severe social impairment. No mood episodes have ever occurred.
Patient has a 4-year history of delusions. Major depressive episodes have been present for 3 years of this time. Currently, the patient is euthymic but has had hallucinations for the past month.
Patient presents with a 1-month history of severe depressed mood, hypersomnia, and feelings of worthlessness, accompanied simultaneously by voices saying 'you deserve to die'.
Patient develops sudden onset of disorganized speech and persecutory delusions lasting 14 days following a severe motor vehicle collision, followed by a complete return to baseline functioning.

Matches

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Answer

The correct matches rely on accurately applying the precise DSM-5 duration criteria for psychosis (<1 month, 1-6 months, >6 months) and calculating the proportional overlap of mood symptoms over the total illness duration.
The diagnosis of primary psychotic disorders and mood disorders with psychotic features depends critically on symptom duration and the temporal relationship between mood and psychotic symptoms. Brief psychotic disorder lasts less than 1 month, schizophreniform disorder lasts 1-6 months, and schizophrenia requires at least 6 months of symptoms. To differentiate schizoaffective disorder from schizophrenia, mood symptoms must be present for a majority of the total illness duration in schizoaffective disorder; if they are present for a minority of the time, it is classified as schizophrenia. If psychotic symptoms occur exclusively during mood episodes without independent periods of psychosis, the diagnosis is a primary mood disorder with psychotic features.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the total uninterrupted duration of the psychotic symptoms.
Identify if the primary psychotic symptoms have been present for <1 month (Brief Psychotic Disorder), 1-6 months (Schizophreniform Disorder), or >6 months (Schizophrenia).
Duration is the primary differentiating factor for isolated psychotic disorders.
2
Assess the chronological relationship between psychosis and mood episodes.
Determine if psychosis ever occurs for >=2 weeks in the complete absence of a mood episode.
This differentiates Schizoaffective disorder (psychosis without mood for >=2 weeks) from MDD with psychotic features (psychosis occurs exclusively during mood episodes).
3
Calculate the proportion of time mood symptoms are present relative to the total duration of the illness.
Identify if the mood symptoms are present for a majority (>50%) or minority (<50%) of the total active and residual periods.
Schizoaffective disorder strictly requires mood symptoms to be present for the majority of the total illness duration; otherwise, a patient with a long psychotic history and brief mood episodes is diagnosed with Schizophrenia.

Key Concept

Differentiation of psychotic disorders based on exact total symptom duration and the longitudinal proportion of concurrent mood symptoms (majority vs. minority of illness duration).
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3232Question →

Nipple discharge can be a presenting symptom for various benign and malignant breast pathologies. Based on the characteristics of the discharge and associated physical exam findings, match each patient's clinical scenario with the most appropriate underlying diagnosis.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 45-year-old female presents with spontaneous, unilateral, bloody nipple discharge and a small subareolar mass on ultrasound.
A 29-year-old female reports bilateral, expressible, non-bloody greenish discharge and cyclical, diffuse breast tenderness.
A 53-year-old female complains of unilateral, sticky, grayish-green discharge and periareolar inflammation without a distinct mass.
A 64-year-old female notes unilateral, blood-tinged discharge, nipple retraction, and a firm, fixed 3-cm breast mass.

Matches

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Answer

Properly diagnosing the etiology of nipple discharge relies on evaluating the patient's age, discharge characteristics (spontaneous vs. expressible, bloody vs. non-bloody), and associated exam findings.
Each presentation distinctly aligns with the classic clinical profile of the respective breast pathology based on age, discharge appearance, and physical exam findings.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical features of each patient's nipple discharge.
Identified distinguishing factors such as bloody versus non-bloody appearance, unilateral versus bilateral occurrence, and the presence of associated masses or skin changes.
Different etiologies have distinct clinical profiles that guide diagnosis.
2
Evaluate the 45-year-old with unilateral bloody discharge and a small subareolar mass.
Matched with intraductal papilloma.
This is the classic presentation for a benign intraductal papilloma, the most frequent cause of bloody nipple discharge.
3
Evaluate the 29-year-old with bilateral greenish discharge and cyclical pain.
Matched with fibrocystic changes.
Cyclical mastalgia and nonspontaneous discharge in a younger woman are hallmarks of this condition.
4
Evaluate the 53-year-old with unilateral sticky, grayish-green discharge and inflammation.
Matched with mammary duct ectasia.
Duct ectasia often presents in perimenopausal women with thick, colored discharge and localized periareolar inflammation.
5
Evaluate the 64-year-old with bloody discharge, nipple retraction, and a firm mass.
Matched with invasive breast carcinoma.
Advanced age combined with suspicious signs like retraction and a fixed mass heavily point toward malignancy.

Key Concept

Evaluation and differential diagnosis of pathologic versus physiologic nipple discharge.
Question 3233Question →

A 19-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after intentionally ingesting ten 500-mg acetaminophen tablets following a recent breakup. She is medically stabilized, and her acetaminophen levels remain well below the treatment threshold. During the psychiatric evaluation, she is tearful and states she feels 'completely empty inside' and hates being alone. She describes a history of intense, short-lived relationships and frequently changing her college major because she 'does not know who she is.' When the physician explains that she will be discharged with a psychiatric outpatient follow-up appointment, she becomes suddenly enraged, yelling, 'You doctors do not care about anyone!' Moments later, she apologizes profusely and begs the physician not to abandon her. She reports that under extreme stress, she sometimes feels like she is detached from her body. Which of the following statements regarding this patient's diagnosis and management are accurate? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Dialectical behavior therapy is considered a first-line, evidence-based psychotherapeutic intervention for her condition.; Establishing and consistently maintaining clear physician-patient boundaries is an essential component of her clinical care.

Answer

The correct statements are that dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is a first-line treatment and that maintaining clear physician-patient boundaries is essential for management.
The clinical vignette describes a classic presentation of borderline personality disorder (BPD). Patients with BPD struggle with profound emotional dysregulation, chronic feelings of emptiness, extreme fear of abandonment, identity disturbances, and may exhibit transient, stress-related paranoia or dissociation. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is a specialized cognitive-behavioral treatment specifically designed to treat BPD and is considered the gold standard, first-line therapy. Additionally, patients with BPD frequently utilize defense mechanisms such as splitting (alternating between idealizing and devaluing providers) and can push professional limits, as seen when the patient shifts rapidly from rage to dependency. Therefore, establishing and maintaining clear, consistent physician-patient boundaries is a fundamental and crucial aspect of their medical and psychiatric management.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary diagnosis based on the clinical presentation.
The patient exhibits core features of borderline personality disorder (BPD), including affective instability, intense/unstable relationships, fear of abandonment, identity disturbance, chronic emptiness, and transient stress-related dissociative symptoms.
Recognizing the correct personality disorder is required to determine the appropriate management and avoid incorrect diagnostic labels.
2
Evaluate the appropriate non-pharmacological management strategies.
Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is the psychotherapy of choice for BPD, and maintaining strict, consistent boundaries is critical due to the patient's tendency for splitting and boundary violations.
These interventions are evidence-based for improving emotional regulation and preventing destructive countertransference in the therapeutic relationship.
3
Analyze the distractors regarding alternative diagnoses and ethical obligations.
The patient's mood swings and dissociation do not meet the criteria for bipolar disorder or schizophreniform disorder, and there is no legal threshold met to breach confidentiality regarding her ex-boyfriend.
Ruling out other conditions and avoiding inappropriate interventions prevents iatrogenic harm and ethical violations.

Key Concept

Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is characterized by a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, along with marked impulsivity. Management relies on Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) and establishing strict, consistent physician-patient boundaries.
Question 3234Question →

A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her parents due to severe fatigue and dizziness. She has lost 15 kg (33 lb) over the last 4 months and restricts her daily intake to under 500 calories. Her temperature is 35.8°C (96.4°F), blood pressure is 85/50 mm Hg, and pulse is 42/min. Her BMI is 14.2 kg/m². Physical examination reveals fine downy body hair and temporal wasting. The patient is admitted to the hospital.

Arrange the following management steps in the most appropriate chronological order from initial acute management to long-term therapy.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first assess for immediate life threats (electrocardiogram and metabolic panel), then correct hemodynamic instability (intravenous fluids), followed by nutritional recovery (enteral rehabilitation), and finally initiate long-term psychiatric treatment (cognitive-behavioral therapy).
The correct chronological order follows the universal medical principle of prioritizing life-threatening acute medical issues before addressing chronic psychiatric conditions. Diagnostic evaluation (ECG/labs) dictates the immediate resuscitation needs (fluids). Once hemodynamically stable, the physical effects of starvation are treated (gradual feeding). Finally, with improved cognition and stability, the underlying psychiatric cause is addressed (CBT).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess for immediate life-threatening complications of starvation.
Electrocardiogram and metabolic panel evaluate for arrhythmias and severe electrolyte derangements.
Patients with severe anorexia nervosa are at high risk for sudden cardiac death due to QTc prolongation and hypokalemia.
2
Medically stabilize hemodynamic status.
Cautious intravenous fluid resuscitation corrects hypotension and hypovolemia.
Hemodynamic stability is a strict prerequisite before the gastrointestinal tract can safely handle nutritional loads.
3
Begin nutritional rehabilitation.
Supervised, gradual enteral feeding reverses starvation safely.
Gradual caloric introduction is necessary to prevent refeeding syndrome, characterized by dangerous shifts in phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium.
4
Address the underlying psychiatric pathology.
Cognitive-behavioral therapy targets the core psychopathology of the eating disorder.
Psychotherapy requires basic cognitive function, which is severely impaired in the acute stages of starvation. It is initiated once the patient is medically stable and has begun nutritional recovery.

Key Concept

In severe anorexia nervosa with medical complications, management follows a strict hierarchy: acute medical assessment and stabilization (ABCs, electrolytes, hemodynamics), followed by careful nutritional rehabilitation, and finally formal psychiatric psychotherapy.
Question 3235Question →

A 26-year-old man comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Three weeks ago, he was diagnosed with major depressive disorder after presenting with a 6-week history of depressed mood, anhedonia, significant weight loss, and severe fatigue. At his initial evaluation, a comprehensive psychiatric history confirmed the absence of any past episodes of abnormally elevated mood, impulsivity, or decreased need for sleep. He was started on sertraline 50 mg daily. Today, the patient reports that his sleep has improved slightly, but he still feels sad most days and lacks the energy to resume his usual hobbies. He denies suicidal ideation, auditory hallucinations, or racing thoughts. His vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Continue sertraline at the current dosage and reassess in 2 to 3 weeks

Answer

Continue sertraline at the current dosage and reassess in 2 to 3 weeks
The correct course of action is to continue the current medication and wait. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) generally require 4 to 6 weeks to achieve their full therapeutic effect. Because this patient is only at week 3 of treatment, has already demonstrated slight clinical improvement (improved sleep), and is tolerating the medication well without adverse effects or worsening suicidality, it is premature to increase the dose, augment the medication, or switch to a different class.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the patient's current diagnosis and treatment duration.
The patient has unipolar major depressive disorder and has been taking an SSRI (sertraline) for exactly 3 weeks.
Establishing the timeline of treatment is critical for evaluating the efficacy of pharmacotherapy in psychiatry.
2
Assess the clinical response and tolerability.
The patient shows slight improvement (better sleep) and no reported adverse effects or worsening of symptoms.
This confirms the medication is being tolerated and has begun to show early signs of clinical benefit.
3
Apply pharmacological knowledge of SSRI onset of action.
SSRIs require 4 to 6 weeks for a full therapeutic trial. Therefore, changing the regimen at 3 weeks is premature.
Brain neuroplasticity and receptor downregulation take several weeks to translate increased synaptic serotonin into maximal mood improvement.

Key Concept

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) typically require an adequate trial of 4 to 6 weeks at a therapeutic dose to achieve maximal clinical efficacy in treating major depressive disorder.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3236Question →

A 32-year-old male accountant presents to the psychiatric clinic for evaluation of worsening anxiety. For the past 6 months, he has been overwhelmingly preoccupied with the intrusive thought that he might accidentally send confidential client financial data to the wrong email address. To prevent this, he spends 2 to 3 hours every evening repeatedly checking his outbox and reading every sent email multiple times. He recognizes these thoughts are irrational and excessive, but he states he cannot stop the checking behavior. His performance at work has declined significantly, and his manager has recently issued a formal warning. He was diagnosed with atypical depression by another provider and started on phenelzine 2 weeks ago; however, he abruptly stopped taking it 5 days ago due to severe orthostatic hypotension. He asks the physician to provide a medical note explaining his diagnosis to his employer to prevent termination.

Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select 2)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Refer the patient for exposure and response prevention therapy; Postpone the initiation of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for at least 9 more days

Answer

The most appropriate next steps are to refer the patient for exposure and response prevention therapy and to postpone the initiation of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for at least 9 more days.
The patient's clinical presentation of intrusive, distressing thoughts combined with time-consuming repetitive behaviors is highly characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). First-line treatments for OCD include high-dose selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and a specific form of cognitive-behavioral therapy known as exposure and response prevention (ERP). Therefore, referring the patient for ERP is an indicated next step. However, pharmacotherapy must be managed carefully due to his recent medication history. The patient discontinued phenelzine, an irreversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), just 5 days ago. Irreversible MAOIs permanently deactivate the MAO enzyme, and it takes approximately two weeks for the body to synthesize new enzymes. Consequently, a mandatory 14-day washout period is required after discontinuing an MAOI before any serotonergic medication (like an SSRI) can be safely initiated. Administering an SSRI sooner can precipitate serotonin syndrome, a potentially fatal condition characterized by autonomic instability, altered mental status, and neuromuscular hyperactivity. Since 5 days have already passed, the physician must wait a minimum of 9 more days before prescribing an SSRI.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary psychiatric diagnosis based on the clinical presentation.
The patient has obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), characterized by egodystonic obsessions (fears of sending wrong emails) and time-consuming compulsions (checking the outbox for hours) that cause significant impairment.
Establishing the correct diagnosis dictates the evidence-based first-line treatment options.
2
Determine the appropriate non-pharmacological treatment for the diagnosis.
Exposure and response prevention (ERP) therapy is the psychotherapy of choice for OCD.
ERP is a specialized type of cognitive behavioral therapy with the strongest evidence for efficacy in OCD.
3
Evaluate the patient's medication history to determine pharmacological options.
The patient took phenelzine, an irreversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), and discontinued it 5 days ago.
MAOIs interact dangerously with many psychiatric medications, necessitating careful transition planning.
4
Calculate the required washout period before starting first-line pharmacotherapy for OCD (SSRIs).
Irreversible MAOIs require a strict 14-day washout period before starting serotonergic agents. Since 5 days have elapsed, the physician must wait at least 9 more days.
Concomitant use or inadequate washout of an MAOI and an SSRI can precipitate life-threatening serotonin syndrome.

Key Concept

First-line treatments for OCD include ERP and SSRIs, but initiating an SSRI requires a strict 14-day washout period after discontinuing an irreversible MAOI to prevent serotonin syndrome.
Question 3237Question →

Match each clinical scenario to the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A 35-year-old man with alcohol use disorder, normal liver function, and a strong desire to reduce heavy drinking days.
A 45-year-old man with alcohol use disorder and decompensated cirrhosis who is motivated to maintain abstinence.
A 28-year-old pregnant woman with opioid use disorder seeking long-term maintenance treatment.
A 24-year-old man with pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min after suspected substance use.

Matches

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Answer

The correct matching pairs the patient with normal liver function to naltrexone, the patient with cirrhosis to acamprosate, the pregnant patient with opioid use disorder to buprenorphine, and the acutely overdosed patient to naloxone.
Each medication accurately targets the specific substance use disorder stage (maintenance vs. acute intoxication) while honoring patient-specific contraindications, such as pregnancy or hepatic impairment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the 35-year-old man with alcohol use disorder and normal liver function.
Matches with Naltrexone.
Naltrexone is a first-line agent for alcohol use disorder and is safe when liver function is intact.
2
Evaluate the 45-year-old man with alcohol use disorder and decompensated cirrhosis.
Matches with Acamprosate.
Acamprosate is renally excreted, making it safe in severe hepatic impairment, unlike hepatotoxic alternatives.
3
Evaluate the 28-year-old pregnant woman with opioid use disorder seeking maintenance.
Matches with Buprenorphine.
Buprenorphine prevents opioid withdrawal and is an indicated, safe maintenance therapy during pregnancy.
4
Evaluate the 24-year-old man with pinpoint pupils and bradypnea.
Matches with Naloxone.
The presentation is a classic opioid overdose, requiring immediate reversal with naloxone.

Key Concept

Pharmacotherapy and acute management for substance use disorders
Question 3238Question →

A 79-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department from a memory care facility due to a 3-day history of extreme agitation and visual hallucinations. Staff report she has been picking at the air and describing "spiders on the ceiling." The patient has a 4-year history of Major Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer disease, with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination score of 17/3017/30. Five days ago, she was evaluated for new-onset urinary incontinence, and a new medication was prescribed.

Her current daily medications include donepezil and sertraline. Her son, who is visiting from out of state and is not her legally appointed healthcare proxy (her daughter holds this role), is highly distressed and demands the physician immediately administer heavy sedatives to "calm her down."

On examination, the patient's temperature is 37.8∘C37.8^\circ\text{C} (100.0∘F100.0^\circ\text{F}), pulse is 110/min110/\text{min}, and blood pressure is 142/86 mm Hg142/86 \text{ mm Hg}. She is disoriented, continuously muttering, and unable to participate in cognitive testing. Pupils are 6 mm6 \text{ mm} bilaterally and minimally reactive to light. Mucous membranes are extremely dry. Abdominal examination reveals absent bowel sounds and a palpable, dull suprapubic mass.

Laboratory results show:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 0.2 \muU/mL0.2 \text{ \mu U/mL} (Normal: 0.5−5.0 \muU/mL0.5 - 5.0 \text{ \mu U/mL})
Free T4: 1.3 ng/dL1.3 \text{ ng/dL} (Normal: 0.9−1.7 ng/dL0.9 - 1.7 \text{ ng/dL})
Urinalysis: Negative for leukocyte esterase and nitrites.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Discontinue the recently added incontinence medication and perform bladder catheterization

Answer

Discontinue the recently added incontinence medication and perform bladder catheterization
This patient's clinical presentation is highly characteristic of acute delirium secondary to anticholinergic toxicity. She has a baseline major neurocognitive disorder (Alzheimer disease) which leaves her highly susceptible to iatrogenic delirium. Five days ago, she was started on a medication for urinary incontinence. Medications used for overactive bladder, such as oxybutynin or tolterodine, possess strong antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) properties. The classic anticholinergic toxidrome includes central nervous system effects (delirium, visual hallucinations, agitation) and peripheral autonomic effects (tachycardia, mydriasis, dry mucous membranes, decreased bowel sounds, and urinary retention, evidenced here by the palpable suprapubic mass). The most appropriate next step in management is to discontinue the offending medication and immediately decompress the bladder via catheterization, which will resolve both the pharmacologic toxicity and the severe discomfort contributing to her agitation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the nature of the cognitive change.
The patient has a 3-day history of extreme agitation, fluctuating consciousness, and visual hallucinations superimposed on a baseline dementia diagnosis, defining an acute delirium.
Differentiating acute delirium from progressive neurocognitive decline is the critical first step in evaluating behavioral changes in the elderly.
2
Analyze the physical examination findings.
The patient has tachycardia, mydriasis, dry mucous membranes, absent bowel sounds, and a palpable suprapubic mass indicating urinary retention.
These specific signs constitute the classic anticholinergic toxidrome ('blind as a bat, dry as a bone, red as a beet, mad as a hatter, hot as a hare').
3
Determine the precipitating cause based on the recent medical history.
The medication started 5 days ago for urinary incontinence is identified as the trigger, highly likely to be an antimuscarinic/anticholinergic drug like oxybutynin.
Anticholinergics directly oppose the action of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (like her donepezil) and are notorious for causing delirium and urinary retention in patients with baseline cognitive impairment.
4
Formulate the most appropriate management plan.
Discontinuation of the offending anticholinergic medication and immediate placement of a urinary catheter.
Stopping the toxic agent addresses the root cause of the delirium, and decompressing the distended bladder relieves the acute pain and agitation driving the behavioral symptoms.

Key Concept

Diagnosis and management of anticholinergic delirium superimposed on major neurocognitive disorder.
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 3239Question →

A 74-year-old retired teacher presents to the geriatrics clinic accompanied by her husband. Over the past 6 months, she has become increasingly unsteady on her feet, with her husband describing her walking as if her feet are 'glued to the floor.' Recently, she has also experienced several episodes of urinary incontinence and seems more forgetful than usual. Physical examination reveals a magnetic, broad-based gait with preserved arm swing. There are no focal motor or sensory deficits. To properly evaluate and manage this patient's most likely condition, arrange the following clinical steps in the most appropriate sequential order.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Baseline cognitive/gait evaluation, followed by MRI of the brain, then a high-volume lumbar puncture, and finally ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement.
The appropriate management pathway for suspected Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH) begins with establishing an objective clinical baseline (gait and cognition). This is followed by neuroimaging (MRI) to document ventriculomegaly and exclude lesions that would contraindicate a lumbar puncture. Once imaging is deemed safe and consistent with NPH, a high-volume CSF tap test is performed to see if draining CSF transiently improves the patient's symptoms. A positive functional response to the tap test confirms the diagnosis and indicates that the patient will likely benefit from definitive surgical management with a ventriculoperitoneal shunt.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the classic clinical triad presented in the vignette.
The combination of gait apraxia, urinary incontinence, and cognitive decline strongly suggests Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH).
Recognizing the syndrome is the first step in directing the targeted diagnostic workup.
2
Determine the initial non-invasive evaluation.
Standardized gait and cognitive evaluations are performed.
A formal baseline must be established so that any temporary improvement after CSF removal can be objectively measured.
3
Select the appropriate imaging modality.
MRI of the brain is obtained.
Imaging is necessary to confirm ventriculomegaly, evaluate for typical NPH findings (like DESH), and ensure there is no mass lesion that would contraindicate a lumbar puncture.
4
Confirm the diagnosis functionally.
A high-volume CSF tap test is performed.
Removing a large volume of CSF and observing transient clinical improvement strongly predicts a favorable response to surgical shunting.
5
Determine definitive management.
Ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt placement is scheduled.
VP shunting is the definitive treatment for patients who demonstrate a positive response to the high-volume tap test.

Key Concept

The diagnostic and therapeutic sequence for Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus requires baseline clinical assessment, neuroimaging to confirm structural criteria and safety, high-volume CSF removal to prove functional reversibility, and finally, surgical shunting.
Question 3240Question →

A 24-year-old woman presents to the primary care clinic seeking assistance to quit smoking. She also reports a 4-month history of persistently low mood, decreased energy, and feelings of worthlessness. Her medical history is significant for active bulimia nervosa, characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting three times a week. Her vital signs are within normal limits, and her BMI is 22 kg/m². The physician is considering a pharmacological intervention that can simultaneously target her depressive symptoms and aid in smoking cessation. Which of the following medications is absolutely contraindicated in this patient?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Bupropion

Answer

Bupropion
Bupropion is an atypical antidepressant (a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor) frequently utilized for both major depressive disorder and smoking cessation. However, it is absolutely contraindicated in patients with a current or prior diagnosis of bulimia nervosa or anorexia nervosa. Patients with eating disorders, particularly those who engage in purging behaviors (like self-induced vomiting), are highly susceptible to electrolyte abnormalities, most notably hypokalemia. Bupropion lowers the seizure threshold in a dose-dependent manner. When combined with the electrolyte derangements seen in bulimia nervosa, the risk of developing life-threatening generalized tonic-clonic seizures increases dramatically.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the patient's active medical and psychiatric conditions.
The patient has active bulimia nervosa (with purging via vomiting), tobacco use disorder, and symptoms consistent with major depressive disorder.
Understanding the full clinical picture is essential for selecting safe and effective pharmacotherapy.
2
Determine the pharmacological goal and potential drug candidates.
The physician wants a drug that treats depression and aids in smoking cessation. Bupropion is the classic agent used for this dual purpose.
Bupropion is an atypical antidepressant with FDA approval for both major depressive disorder and smoking cessation.
3
Evaluate the safety profile of bupropion against the patient's active conditions.
Bupropion carries an absolute contraindication in patients with anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa.
Patients who purge are at high risk for electrolyte imbalances (such as hypokalemia). Bupropion lowers the seizure threshold, and this risk is significantly magnified by electrolyte derangements, posing a life-threatening risk of seizures.

Key Concept

Bupropion is an atypical antidepressant that is absolutely contraindicated in patients with a current or prior diagnosis of bulimia nervosa or anorexia nervosa due to an increased risk of seizures.
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