Examkin

General Science and Technology

222 soru

Tüm türler222Çoktan seçmeli117Çoklu seçim40Doğru / Yanlış8Eşleştirme44Sıralama13
Soru 41Soru →

Arrange the following key milestones in India's strategic defense and missile technology programs in correct chronological order from earliest to latest:

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Cevap

The correct chronological order from earliest to latest is: Maiden test of Prithvi-I (1988), Test flight of Agni Technology Demonstrator (1989), Maiden test launch of BrahMos (2001), and Formal commissioning of INS Arihant (2016).
The historical sequence begins with the maiden test firing of Prithvi-I in February 1988, followed by the Agni Technology Demonstrator flight in May 1989. This was followed by the first flight test of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile in June 2001, and finally the commissioning of the nuclear submarine INS Arihant in August 2016.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Determine the date of the first Prithvi-I missile flight test.
Prithvi-I was first flight-tested in February 1988 under the IGMDP.
Marks the earliest operational milestone among India's tactical ballistic missiles.
2
Determine the date of the Agni Technology Demonstrator launch.
The Agni Technology Demonstrator missile was launched in May 1989.
Followed the initial success of Prithvi to demonstrate re-entry and long-range guidance capabilities.
3
Determine the maiden flight test year of the BrahMos cruise missile.
BrahMos was successfully test-fired for the first time in June 2001.
Represents the modern era of supersonic cruise missile technology co-developed with Russia.
4
Determine the operational commissioning date of INS Arihant.
INS Arihant was commissioned into active naval service in August 2016.
Completed the sea-based nuclear deterrence leg of India's strategic nuclear triad.

Anahtar Kavram

Chronological progression of India's strategic defense milestones, spanning indigenous ballistic missiles (IGMDP), joint cruise missile ventures, and naval nuclear platform commissioning.
Soru 42Soru →

In agricultural crop physiology, cold treatment applied to germinating seeds or young seedlings to accelerate the transition from vegetative to reproductive growth is known as vernalization. Which of the following biochemical mechanisms best explains how vernalization induces flowering in winter crop varieties?

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Cevap: It induces epigenetic silencing of flowering repressor genes, such as Flowering Locus C (FLCFLC), thereby enabling the activation of floral pathway integrator genes.

Cevap

Vernalization induces flowering by epigenetically silencing flowering repressor genes, such as Flowering Locus C (FLCFLC), which permits the expression of downstream floral pathway integrator genes.
The correct answer identifies epigenetic silencing of repressor genes as the key mechanism. In winter annuals, the gene Flowering Locus C (FLCFLC) encodes a transcription factor that blocks flowering. Prolonged cold exposure during winter induces chromatin modifications—specifically methylation of histone H3 at lysine 27—which stably silences FLCFLC. Once the repressor is turned off, floral pathway integrators such as FTFT (Flowering Locus T) are synthesized and transported to the shoot apex to initiate flower formation when favorable spring temperatures return.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary molecular repressor of flowering in unvernalized winter crops.
In plants requiring vernalization (such as winter wheat and Arabidopsis), the gene Flowering Locus C (FLCFLC) acts as a potent repressor of flowering during the vegetative phase.
High levels of FLCFLC protein actively inhibit floral integrator genes like FTFT (Flowering Locus T) and SOC1SOC1.
2
Analyze the biochemical effect of prolonged cold exposure (vernalization).
Exposure to cold temperature triggers chromatin remodeling, specifically histone methylation (H3K27me3) at the FLCFLC gene locus.
Chromatin remodeling stably represses FLCFLC transcription in a process mediated by proteins such as VRN1VRN1 and VRN2VRN2.
3
Determine the downstream physiological consequence of repressor silencing.
With FLCFLC silenced, floral integrator genes (FTFT) are expressed, transported to the shoot apical meristem, and trigger the transition to floral buds.
This epigenetic memory of cold ensures that plants flower only after passing through winter, preventing premature flowering during autumn.

Anahtar Kavram

Epigenetic Regulation of Vernalization and Floral Induction in Plant Science
Soru 43Soru →

With reference to polymers and industrial materials widely used in daily life, consider the following statements:

1. Kevlar is a synthetic polyamide polymer exhibiting high tensile strength primarily due to extensive inter-chain hydrogen bonding.
2. Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer prepared through the condensation reaction of phenol with formaldehyde.
3. Polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon) is classified as a thermosetting plastic because it repeatedly softens upon heating and can be easily remolded.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
The option stating '1 and 2 only' is correct because Kevlar gains its extreme tensile strength from hydrogen bonding across parallel aromatic polyamide chains, and Bakelite is a classic thermosetting phenol-formaldehyde resin. Statement 3 is false because Teflon is a thermoplastic fluoropolymer, and thermosetting materials by definition undergo irreversible chemical hardening rather than repeated softening.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Kevlar structure and bonding.
Kevlar is an aromatic polyamide (aramid) made from 1,4-phenylene-diamine and terephthaloyl chloride. The alignment of aromatic rings and strong inter-chain hydrogen bonds between amide groups impart exceptionally high tensile strength. Statement 1 is correct.
Understanding polymer molecular interactions explains macroscopic mechanical properties.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Bakelite synthesis.
Bakelite is synthesized via step-growth condensation of phenol with formaldehyde in the presence of an acid or base catalyst, yielding a highly cross-linked thermosetting resin. Statement 2 is correct.
Condensation polymerization of phenolic compounds forms rigid 3D networks.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Teflon polymer classification.
Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE/Teflon) is a thermoplastic polymer, not a thermosetting plastic. Furthermore, thermosetting plastics undergo permanent cross-linking upon heating and cannot be remolded or softened again. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Thermoplastics soften on heating and harden on cooling, whereas thermosetting polymers permanently set.

Anahtar Kavram

Classification and Chemical Properties of Thermoplastic and Thermosetting Polymers
Soru 44Soru →

In human pathology and vector-borne epidemiology, which of the following pairs correctly matches the disease with its causative pathogen type and primary biological vector?

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Cevap: Kala-azar – Protozoan parasite transmitted by female sandflies (Phlebotomus)

Cevap

Kala-azar – Protozoan parasite transmitted by female sandflies (Phlebotomus)
Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) is correctly classified as a protozoan disease caused by Leishmania donovani and transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female sandflies (Phlebotomus).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the pathogen classification and biological vector for Kala-azar
Kala-azar is caused by Leishmania donovani (a flagellated protozoan) and spread by female sandflies (Phlebotomus species).
This represents a scientifically accurate combination of pathogen type and vector.
2
Evaluate pathogen and vector pairings in the remaining choices
Lyme disease is bacterial (tick-borne), Sleeping sickness is protozoan (tsetse fly-borne), and Chagas disease is protozoan (triatomine bug-borne).
Identifying pathogen-vector mismatches eliminates the incorrect options.

Anahtar Kavram

Vector-borne human infectious diseases and pathogen classification
Soru 45Soru →

Which of the following statements regarding fluid dynamics, surface tension, and viscosity in everyday phenomena are correct?

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Cevap: Detergents added to water decrease its surface tension, enabling the solution to wet fabrics and loosen dirt particles more effectively.; The dynamic viscosity of liquids generally decreases as temperature increases, causing warm liquids like syrup or motor oil to flow more easily.

Cevap

The correct statements are the statement regarding detergents decreasing water's surface tension to enhance wetting, and the statement regarding the decrease of liquid viscosity with increasing temperature.
Detergents lower water surface tension to improve wetting and cleaning efficiency. Furthermore, increasing temperature reduces liquid viscosity by weakening intermolecular cohesion, allowing warm liquids to flow faster.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the action of detergents on surface tension.
Detergents act as surfactants, disrupting hydrogen bonding between water molecules and lowering surface tension to allow penetration into fabric pores.
Lower surface tension facilitates contact angle reduction and better cleaning.
2
Examine the effect of temperature on liquid viscosity.
Increasing temperature increases molecular kinetic energy and reduces cohesive forces in liquids, decreasing viscosity.
Viscosity in liquids depends inversely on temperature.
3
Evaluate the mechanism supporting a floating steel needle.
The needle rests on an indented surface film created by surface tension forces acting upward along the contact line, rather than static fluid displacement (Archimedes' principle).
Density of steel exceeds water density, making buoyancy insufficient.
4
Evaluate oil spreading behavior on water.
Water possesses a higher surface tension than oil ( 72 mN/m~72\text{ mN/m} for water vs  32 mN/m~32\text{ mN/m} for oil), creating a net outward force that pulls the oil film thin.
Spreading coefficient requires the supporting liquid to have higher surface tension than the spreading liquid.

Anahtar Kavram

Surface Tension, Viscosity, and Fluid Properties in Everyday Applications
Soru 46Soru →

With reference to modern digital communication protocols and cryptographic security mechanisms, consider the following statements:

1. Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) ensures that the compromise of a long-term server private key does not reveal past session keys.
2. Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) relies on the principles of quantum mechanics, such that any attempt by an eavesdropper to measure the quantum state inherently alters it, revealing the intrusion.
3. In Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA), implicit trust is granted to user devices once they successfully pass perimeter firewall authentication within the internal network.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

1 and 2 only
The option stating '1 and 2 only' is correct. Perfect Forward Secrecy ensures past session confidentiality despite private key compromise by employing ephemeral key exchange mechanisms. Quantum Key Distribution guarantees eavesdropping detection because observing quantum states inevitably alters them. Zero Trust Architecture systematically eliminates implicit trust based on network position, requiring continuous verification for every access attempt.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS).
Statement 1 is correct.
PFS generates unique session keys for every session using ephemeral key exchange algorithms (such as Ephemeral Diffie-Hellman). Therefore, even if an attacker later obtains the server's long-term private key, past recorded sessions cannot be decrypted.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Quantum Key Distribution (QKD).
Statement 2 is correct.
QKD leverages quantum mechanical properties (such as photon polarization states). According to quantum physics principles, any attempt to observe or eavesdrop on quantum key generation alters the quantum state, creating detectable transmission errors.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA).
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Zero Trust Architecture operates on the core axiom 'never trust, always verify'. Unlike traditional perimeter defense, ZTA assumes the internal network is untrusted and continuously verifies identity, context, and security posture for every access request.

Anahtar Kavram

Advanced Cryptographic Protocols and Zero Trust Security Architecture
Soru 47Soru →

Which type of cyber threat involves malicious software designed to block access to a computer system or encrypt user data until a sum of money is paid to the attacker?

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Cevap: Ransomware

Cevap

Ransomware
The term Ransomware specifically refers to malicious software (malware) that uses encryption to hold a victim's information at ransom. The victim's critical data is encrypted so that they cannot access files, databases, or applications, and a ransom is demanded to restore access.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the core objective described in the question stem
The target malware encrypts files/systems and demands financial payment for decryption.
Identifying the specific malicious behavior helps distinguish between cyber attack vectors.
2
Evaluate the defining characteristic of Ransomware
Ransomware directly corresponds to file encryption coupled with extortion.
The prefix 'ransom' signifies the demand for payment to release compromised assets.

Anahtar Kavram

Classification of Cyber Malware and Threat Vectors
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 48Soru →

Match each Indian space mission with its corresponding primary scientific objective or major capability.

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Chandrayaan-3
Aditya-L1
AstroSat
NISAR

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

Chandrayaan-3 matches lunar soft-landing and roving; Aditya-L1 matches solar observation from L1; AstroSat matches multi-wavelength space astronomy observatory; NISAR matches joint ISRO-NASA dual-frequency radar mission.
Each mission correctly aligns with its primary objective: Chandrayaan-3 achieved a historic lunar soft landing; Aditya-L1 observes the Sun from L1; AstroSat serves as a multi-wavelength space telescope; and NISAR is a collaborative radar Earth-observation mission between NASA and ISRO.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary objective of lunar exploration mission Chandrayaan-3
Chandrayaan-3 corresponds to soft-landing and rover exploration on the Moon.
Chandrayaan-3 is ISRO's third lunar exploration mission, designed for lunar surface landing.
2
Identify the trajectory and scientific focus of Aditya-L1
Aditya-L1 corresponds to continuous solar atmospheric observation from Sun-Earth L1.
The mission designation 'L1' refers to the first Lagrange point of the Sun-Earth system.
3
Determine the operational nature of AstroSat
AstroSat corresponds to India's dedicated multi-wavelength astronomical satellite.
AstroSat carries five payloads covering optical, UV, and X-ray spectral bands.
4
Match NISAR to its cooperative agency framework and payload type
NISAR corresponds to the joint ISRO-NASA dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar project.
NISAR stands for NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar.

Anahtar Kavram

Major Indian space exploration missions, astronomy satellites, and international space technology collaborations.
Soru 49Soru →

Consider the following statements regarding Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) and modern cryptographic mechanisms:

1. Quantum Key Distribution uses the principles of quantum mechanics to securely establish a shared secret key between two communicating parties rather than directly transmitting the encrypted secret payload over the quantum channel.
2. In QKD systems, any interception or measurement attempt by an eavesdropper alters the quantum state of the photons, immediately revealing the presence of intrusion to the communicating parties.
3. Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC) refers to cryptographic protocols that require quantum hardware and quantum entanglement to execute encryption on classical computing systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

1 and 2 only
The option stating '1 and 2 only' is correct. Quantum Key Distribution relies on quantum optics to generate and distribute random symmetric keys, and any eavesdropping attempt perturbs photon states, alerting users to security breaches. Conversely, Post-Quantum Cryptography consists of software-based classical mathematical algorithms intended to run on conventional hardware to resist attacks from quantum computers, making the third statement false.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding QKD payload transmission
Statement 1 is correct. QKD is a key-establishment mechanism that uses quantum communications to securely distribute random key streams; the actual message payload is encrypted and sent separately over traditional classical communication channels using symmetric encryption.
QKD channels are optimized for photon state transfer to exchange cryptographic key material, not for high-volume data payload transport.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding eavesdropping detection in QKD
Statement 2 is correct. Based on fundamental quantum physics principles such as the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle and the No-Cloning Theorem, measuring or eavesdropping on polarized photon states disturbs the quantum state, introducing detectable error rates (Quantum Bit Error Rate) that alert legitimate parties.
Quantum states cannot be observed or measured without altering their superposition states.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC)
Statement 3 is incorrect. Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC) refers to mathematical algorithms (such as lattice-based or hash-based cryptography) designed to run on standard classical computers while remaining secure against breaking attacks by future quantum computers (e.g., Shor's algorithm). It does not require quantum hardware or quantum entanglement.
PQC relies on complex classical mathematical problems hard for both classical and quantum systems, whereas QKD requires specialized quantum hardware links.

Anahtar Kavram

Quantum Key Distribution vs. Post-Quantum Cryptography
Soru 50Soru →

Consider the following statements regarding India's Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) Program developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO):

1. The Prithvi Air Defence (PAD) missile system is designed primarily for exo-atmospheric interception of incoming enemy ballistic missiles.
2. The Advanced Air Defence (AAD) missile is a single-stage, solid-fuel interceptor intended for endo-atmospheric interception at lower altitudes.
3. The Swordfish radar used in the BMD network is a short-range optical sensor system deployed exclusively for naval surface vessels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Cevap: 1 and 2 only

Cevap

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the option selecting '1 and 2 only' is the correct answer.
The correct answer identifies that statements 1 and 2 are factual regarding India's double-tiered Ballistic Missile Defence network. The Prithvi Air Defence (PAD) missile acts as the high-altitude exo-atmospheric interceptor, while the Advanced Air Defence (AAD) missile acts as the low-altitude endo-atmospheric interceptor. The third statement is incorrect because the Swordfish is a long-range tracking radar specifically designed to acquire and track incoming ballistic missile threats across vast distances, rather than a short-range optical naval sensor.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze statement 1 regarding Prithvi Air Defence (PAD).
PAD (Pradyumna) is a two-stage interceptor capable of exo-atmospheric interception (interception outside the Earth's atmosphere at altitudes of 50–80 km). Statement 1 is correct.
Verify the target altitude domain for the high-altitude layer of India's BMD Phase-I.
2
Analyze statement 2 regarding Advanced Air Defence (AAD).
AAD (Ashwin) is a single-stage, solid-propellant missile engineered for endo-atmospheric interception (interception inside the atmosphere at altitudes of 15–30 km). Statement 2 is correct.
Verify the lower-tier air defense interceptor specifications.
3
Analyze statement 3 regarding the Swordfish radar.
Swordfish is an L-band/X-band Long-Range Tracking Radar (LRTR) derived from the Israeli Green Pine radar, capable of tracking incoming ballistic targets at long ranges (600–800+ km), not a short-range optical naval sensor. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Distinguish target detection/tracking radar capabilities from optical surface sensors.

Anahtar Kavram

Two-tier Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) system architecture (PAD for exo-atmospheric and AAD for endo-atmospheric interception, supported by long-range tracking radar).
Soru 51Soru →

Arrange the following major Indian space research and astronomy missions in chronological order of their launch dates, from the earliest to the latest:

Öğeleri doğru sıraya koymak için sürükleyin

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Cevap

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest launch is: Chandrayaan-1 (October 2008), Mars Orbiter Mission (November 2013), AstroSat (September 2015), Aditya-L1 (September 2023), and XPoSat (January 2024).
The precise launch dates for ISRO's major astronomy and space science probes in chronological sequence are Chandrayaan-1 (22 October 2008), Mars Orbiter Mission (5 November 2013), AstroSat (28 September 2015), Aditya-L1 (2 September 2023), and XPoSat (1 January 2024).

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the launch year of Chandrayaan-1
October 22, 2008 (Earliest mission in the list)
Chandrayaan-1 was ISRO's milestone first deep-space probe to the Moon.
2
Identify the launch year of Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan)
November 5, 2013
Mangalyaan was launched five years after Chandrayaan-1.
3
Identify the launch year of AstroSat
September 28, 2015
AstroSat was placed in Low Earth Orbit in late 2015.
4
Identify the launch year of Aditya-L1
September 2, 2023
Aditya-L1 was launched following Chandrayaan-3 in late 2023.
5
Identify the launch year of XPoSat
January 1, 2024
XPoSat was launched on New Year's Day 2024 aboard PSLV-C58.

Anahtar Kavram

Chronology of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) flagship space science and astronomical missions.
Soru 52Soru →

Match the cellular structures and molecular machinery listed in List-I with their corresponding specialized biological functions listed in List-II:

Soldaki öğeye tıklayın, sonra eşleşen sağdaki öğeye tıklayın

Öğeler

Peroxisome
Nucleolus
Spliceosome
Centrosome

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

Peroxisome matches with decomposition of hydrogen peroxide and oxidative β\beta-oxidation of fatty acids; Nucleolus matches with transcription and assembly of ribosomal RNA (rRNArRNA) subunits; Spliceosome matches with excising non-coding intron sequences from precursor mRNA (pre-mRNApre\text{-}mRNA); Centrosome matches with organization of microtubule arrays and regulation of mitotic spindle formation.
Each cellular component is accurately mapped to its primary physiological role: Peroxisomes carry out β\beta-oxidation and peroxide detoxification; the Nucleolus synthesizes ribosomal RNA subunits; Spliceosomes carry out RNA splicing by excising introns; and Centrosomes act as microtubule organizing centers for spindle formation.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the metabolic role of Peroxisomes
Peroxisomes house oxidative enzymes including catalase to metabolize toxic H2O2H_2O_2 and break down fatty acids through β\beta-oxidation.
This differentiates peroxisomes from lysosomes, which focus on hydrolytic digestion of macromolecules.
2
Identify the sub-nuclear region function of the Nucleolus
The nucleolus specifically transcribes rRNArRNA genes and initial subunit construction.
Protein translation itself occurs in the cytoplasm or rough endoplasmic reticulum, while ribosome building originates in the nucleolus.
3
Determine the nuclear ribonucleoprotein function of the Spliceosome
Spliceosomes catalyze post-transcriptional splicing, removing non-coding introns from eukaryotic pre-mRNA.
Prokaryotes lack spliceosomes due to co-transcriptional translation and lack of spliceosomal introns.
4
Establish the structural role of the Centrosome
Centrosomes contain centrioles (in animal cells) and organize the microtubule spindle during mitosis and meiosis.
Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores to segregate chromosomes during cell division.

Anahtar Kavram

Eukaryotic Cell Organelle and Molecular Machinery Specialization
Tahmini Süre:1m 30s
Soru 53Soru →

In nanotechnology, Single-Walled Carbon Nanotubes (SWCNTs) exhibit uniform metallic conductivity across all structural configurations, irrespective of their chiral indices (n,m)(n, m), due to unconstrained π\pi-electron delocalization along their cylindrical lattice.

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Cevap: False

Cevap

The statement is False. The electrical conductivity of Single-Walled Carbon Nanotubes (SWCNTs) depends on their chiral indices (n,m)(n, m), making them either metallic or semiconducting.
The statement is false because the conductivity of SWCNTs is dictated by their chirality indices (n,m)(n, m). Only nanotubes satisfying the relation where (n−m)(n - m) is a multiple of 33 demonstrate metallic conductivity, whereas all other chiral arrangements produce semiconducting behavior.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the structural synthesis of Single-Walled Carbon Nanotubes (SWCNTs).
SWCNTs can be conceptualized as a single-atom-thick graphene sheet rolled into a seamless cylinder along a specific chiral vector (n,m)(n, m).
The vector direction determines the circumferential alignment of carbon hexagons relative to the tube axis.
2
Evaluate the 1D quantum confinement effects on electronic band structures.
Rolling graphene imposes periodic boundary conditions along the circumference, quantizing wave vectors into 1D sub-bands.
Depending on whether these sub-bands pass through the Dirac points of graphene, the nanotube becomes metallic or semiconducting.
3
Apply the mathematical criterion for conductivity classification.
SWCNTs are metallic if (n−m)(n - m) is divisible by 33; otherwise, they exhibit a bandgap and function as semiconductors (comprising roughly two-thirds of all synthesized SWCNTs).
This structural dependence refutes the claim that all SWCNTs possess metallic conductivity regardless of chiral indices.

Anahtar Kavram

Chirality and Electronic Transport in Carbon Nanotubes
Soru 54Soru →

Somatic gene therapy targets non-reproductive cells of the body, and therefore any genetic modifications introduced during the treatment cannot be passed on to the patient's offspring.

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Cevap: True

Cevap

True
Somatic gene therapy targets non-germline body cells such as bone marrow, liver, or lung tissues. As a result, the therapeutic genetic edits remain confined to the patient and are not passed down to future generations. Inheritable genetic edits are exclusively achieved through germline gene editing.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the target cell type specified in somatic gene therapy.
Somatic gene therapy targets non-reproductive body cells (e.g., bone marrow, muscle, or respiratory cells).
Understanding cell type classification is essential to determine whether genetic changes can be inherited.
2
Evaluate the inheritability of genetic changes made to somatic cells.
Because germline cells (eggs and sperm) remain untouched, the genetic changes affect only the treated individual and cannot be inherited by offspring.
Only genetic alterations in reproductive (germline) cells are passed on to the next generation.

Anahtar Kavram

Distinction between somatic and germline gene therapy
Soru 55Soru →

A coin placed at the bottom of a beaker filled with water appears to be raised above its actual position when viewed from the air directly above. Which of the following optical phenomena is primarily responsible for this observed shift in apparent position?

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Cevap: Refraction of light as it travels from an optically denser medium (water) into an optically rarer medium (air)

Cevap

The apparent elevation of a submerged object in water is caused by the refraction of light as it passes from water into air.
Light rays reflected from the submerged object bend away from the normal when exiting water into air. Because human visual perception assumes light travels in unbent straight lines, tracing these refracted rays backward projects a virtual image higher than the object's actual physical location.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Trace light rays from the object inside the water toward the surface.
Light rays travel from water (optically denser medium, refractive index nwater≈1.33n_{\text{water}} \approx 1.33) toward air (optically rarer medium, nair≈1.00n_{\text{air}} \approx 1.00).
For an object submerged in water to be visible to an external observer, light must cross the interface between the two media.
2
Apply Snell's law of refraction at the boundary.
The light rays bend away from the normal upon entering the air.
When light passes from a medium of higher refractive index to one of lower refractive index, the angle of refraction is greater than the angle of incidence.
3
Determine the position of the virtual image formed by the refracted rays.
Extrapolating the refracted rays backward in a straight line locates a virtual image above the object's actual depth.
The relation for apparent depth is given by d′=dnwaterd' = \frac{d}{n_{\text{water}}}, where dd is the real depth and d′d' is the shallower apparent depth.

Anahtar Kavram

Apparent Depth and Refraction at Plane Interfaces
Tahmini Süre:1m 0s
Soru 56Soru →

Which of the following statements regarding India's Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM) systems and sea-based nuclear deterrence capabilities are correct?

Geçerli olan tümünü seçin

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Cevap: The K-15 (Sagarika) is a solid-fueled submarine-launched ballistic missile indigenously developed for deployment on Arihant-class nuclear submarines.; The K-4 missile is an intermediate-range submarine-launched ballistic missile designed to hit strategic targets at distances of approximately 3,500 km.; India's operational sea-based strategic assets complete the third leg of its nuclear triad, providing a credible second-strike capability.

Cevap

The correct statements are that the K-15 Sagarika is a solid-fueled SLBM developed for Arihant-class submarines, the K-4 missile is an intermediate-range SLBM capable of reaching targets up to 3,500 km, and India's sea-based nuclear assets complete the third leg of its nuclear triad for second-strike deterrence.
The K-15 Sagarika (range ~750 km) and K-4 (range ~3,500 km) are indigenously developed solid-fueled submarine-launched ballistic missiles that arm India's SSBN fleet. Operating alongside land-based missiles and nuclear-capable aircraft, these platforms complete India's nuclear triad, giving the country a survivable second-strike capability consistent with its 'No First Use' nuclear doctrine.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the propulsion system and platform integration of the K-15 (Sagarika) missile.
Confirm that K-15 is a solid-fueled SLBM deployed on INS Arihant with an operational range of ~750 km.
Verifies technical specs and launching platform for India's first operational SLBM.
2
Evaluate the range characteristics and strategic role of the K-4 missile.
Confirm that K-4 is an intermediate-range SLBM with a range of approximately 3,500 km.
Validates the operational envelope of DRDO's longer-range underwater ballistic missile.
3
Examine the propellant technology used across K-series submarine-launched missiles.
Identify that K-series SLBMs use solid propellants for underwater safety and instant launch readiness, not liquid propellants.
Liquid propellants present severe volatility risks inside submerged missile canisters.
4
Assess the strategic context of sea-based nuclear assets within India's nuclear doctrine.
Confirm that SSBNs complete the nuclear triad (air, land, sea), guaranteeing a survivable second-strike capability.
Connects submarine missile capabilities with national defense policy.

Anahtar Kavram

Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles (SLBM) and Nuclear Triad Deterrence
Tahmini Süre:1m 15s
Soru 57Soru →

Which of the following statements regarding human hormonal regulation and endocrine physiology are correct?

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Cevap: Insulin promotes glycogenesis in liver and skeletal muscle tissues to lower circulating blood glucose levels.; Aldosterone acts on the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts of the kidneys to promote sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion.

Cevap

The correct statements are that insulin promotes glycogenesis in liver and skeletal muscle tissues to lower blood glucose levels, and aldosterone acts on the kidney tubules to promote sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion.
Insulin effectively lowers blood glucose by accelerating glucose entry into body cells and stimulating glycogenesis in liver and skeletal muscles. Furthermore, aldosterone produced by the adrenal cortex regulates mineral homeostasis by stimulating active sodium reabsorption alongside potassium secretion in the nephron's distal tubules.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Evaluate the statement concerning insulin function
Statement is correct
Insulin acts as a key anabolic hormone that facilitates glucose uptake into peripheral tissues and promotes glycogen synthesis in liver and skeletal muscles to reduce plasma glucose levels.
2
Evaluate the statement regarding parathyroid hormone (PTH) action
Statement is incorrect
Parathyroid hormone raises serum calcium levels by promoting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, renal calcium reabsorption, and indirect intestinal absorption via calcitriol. It does not decrease blood calcium levels.
3
Evaluate the statement on aldosterone renal mechanism
Statement is correct
Aldosterone binds to mineralocorticoid receptors in renal tubular cells, increasing the activity of epithelial sodium channels (ENaC) and sodium-potassium ATPase pumps, resulting in sodium retention and potassium excretion.
4
Evaluate the statement on oxytocin site of synthesis
Statement is incorrect
Oxytocin is synthesized in the cell bodies of hypothalamic neurons and transported axonally to the posterior pituitary gland for storage and release. The anterior pituitary produces hormones such as growth hormone, prolactin, ACTH, TSH, LH, and FSH.

Anahtar Kavram

Endocrine Gland Physiology and Hormonal Homeostasis
Soru 58Soru →

Optical fibers are extensively used in modern telecommunications and medical endoscopes to transmit light signals over long distances with minimal loss of intensity. Which of the following optical phenomena forms the fundamental operating principle of optical fibers?

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Cevap: Total internal reflection

Cevap

Total internal reflection
Total internal reflection occurs when a light beam traveling through a denser core medium hits the boundary of a less dense cladding medium at an angle exceeding the critical angle. Because no refraction into the cladding takes place, the light energy is completely reflected back inside the core, enabling long-distance data and optical transmission.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Identify the primary mechanism required to guide light inside a flexible cable without leakage.
The light must remain entirely confined within the central core of the cable.
Light escaping the sides of the medium would result in rapid signal attenuation over distance.
2
Analyze the conditions for total internal reflection in optical media.
When light travels from an optically denser medium (core) toward a rarer medium (cladding) at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle, 100% of the light reflects back into the core.
This total reflection prevents signal loss through the boundaries of the optical fiber.

Anahtar Kavram

Total Internal Reflection in Optical Fibers
Tahmini Süre:45s
Soru 59Soru →

Human renal physiology involves precise filtration, reabsorption, and hormonal regulation to maintain fluid and electrolyte homeostasis. Which of the following statements regarding renal function and associated metabolic disorders are correct?

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Cevap: Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) acts as a antagonist to the renin-angiotensin mechanism by causing vasodilation and reducing blood pressure.; The descending limb of the Loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes, concentrating the filtrate as it moves toward the renal medulla.

Cevap

The correct statements are that Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) acts as an antagonist to the renin-angiotensin mechanism to lower blood pressure, and that the descending limb of Henle's loop is permeable to water while remaining impermeable to electrolytes.
Atrial Natriuretic Factor antagonizes renin-angiotensin pathways to lower blood pressure, and the descending limb of Henle's loop allows passive reabsorption of water while remaining impermeable to electrolytes. Both reflect accurate human renal physiological mechanisms.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the endocrine regulation of renal hemodynamic pressure.
Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) is secreted during elevated atrial stretch, inducing vasodilation and natriuresis, directly opposing the vasoconstrictive and sodium-retaining actions of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
This confirms that ANF functions as a physiological counter-regulatory hormonal brake.
2
Differentiate between Diabetes Mellitus and Diabetes Insipidus etiology.
Diabetes insipidus involves impaired production or action of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH), resulting in polyuria without glucose loss, whereas insulin dysregulation causes Diabetes mellitus.
This identifies the statement linking insulin hyposecretion to Diabetes insipidus as incorrect.
3
Evaluate Henle's loop counter-current mechanism permeability rules.
The descending limb is thin and selectively permeable to water via aquaporins while restricting ions, concentrating fluid as it descends deeper into the renal medulla.
This verifies the physiological description of descending limb permeability.
4
Examine the origin and site of action of Aldosterone.
Aldosterone is synthesized in the adrenal cortex (zona glomerulosa) and functions at distal nephron segments (DCT and collecting ducts), not the adrenal medulla or proximal tubule.
This refutes the statement regarding Aldosterone's anatomical origin and target tubules.

Anahtar Kavram

Renal Osmoregulation, Counter-current Physiology, and Endocrine Control
Soru 60Soru →

Match the common chemical compounds in List-I with their corresponding daily life or industrial applications in List-II:

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Öğeler

Sodium Bicarbonate (NaHCO3NaHCO_3)
Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3Na_2CO_3)
Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate (CaSO4⋅12H2OCaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}H_2O)
Calcium Oxychloride (CaOCl2CaOCl_2)

Eşleşmeler

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Cevap

Sodium Bicarbonate matches with Antacid and leavening agent in baking; Sodium Carbonate matches with Softening hard water and glass manufacturing; Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate matches with Setting fractured bones and making moulds; Calcium Oxychloride matches with Disinfectant for drinking water and bleaching agent.
Each compound is correctly matched based on its chemical identity and primary application: Sodium Bicarbonate is used as an antacid and baking agent, Sodium Carbonate softens hard water and aids glass production, Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate (Plaster of Paris) sets fractured bones, and Calcium Oxychloride (Bleaching Powder) disinfects drinking water.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Analyze the functional property of Sodium Bicarbonate (NaHCO3NaHCO_3).
Sodium Bicarbonate is commonly known as Baking Soda, used as an antacid and leavening agent.
It reacts with acids to produce carbon dioxide gas and neutralizes gastric acidity.
2
Analyze the functional property of Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3Na_2CO_3).
Sodium Carbonate is Washing Soda, used to remove permanent hardness of water and produce glass.
It forms insoluble carbonate precipitates with calcium and magnesium ions.
3
Analyze the application of Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate (CaSO4⋅12H2OCaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}H_2O).
Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate is Plaster of Paris, used for setting broken bones.
It hardens quickly upon mixing with water to form gypsum (CaSO4⋅2H2OCaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O).
4
Analyze the application of Calcium Oxychloride (CaOCl2CaOCl_2).
Calcium Oxychloride is Bleaching Powder, used as a disinfectant and bleaching agent.
It acts as a source of active chlorine for germicidal water treatment.

Anahtar Kavram

Everyday and Industrial Applications of Household Chemical Compounds
ÖncekiSayfa 3 / 12Sonraki
General Science and Technology Alıştırma Soruları — State PSC Exam — Sayfa 3 | Examkin