Examkin

All practice questions

4581 questions

All types4,581Multiple choice2,372Multiple select712True / False174Numeric188Matching670Ordering415Fill in the blank20Short answer30
Question 2081Question →

Match the non-constitutional statutory bodies listed in List-I with their respective statutory tenure and re-appointment provisions under Indian law listed in List-II, and select the correct matching pair configuration.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
National Green Tribunal (NGT)
Central Information Commission (CIC)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct alignment pairs the Central Vigilance Commission with a 4-year term or 65-year age cap and bar on further employment; the National Human Rights Commission with a 3-year term or 70-year age cap and re-appointment eligibility; the National Green Tribunal with a 5-year fixed term and bar on re-appointment; and the Central Information Commission with tenure as prescribed by Central Government rules.
Each non-constitutional statutory body operates under specific provisions set by its governing Act of Parliament. The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 establishes a 4-year tenure with an age cap of 65 and a complete ban on subsequent state or central government employment. The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 lowered the NHRC tenure to 3 years with an upper age limit of 70 while permitting re-appointment. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 sets a 5-year tenure with a complete prohibition on re-appointment. The RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 replaced the original fixed 5-year term of the CIC with terms prescribed by Central Government rules.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the statutory provisions governing the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).
Under the CVC Act, 2003, the Vigilance Commissioner serves a unique 4-year term or until age 65 and cannot accept further employment under the Central or State Government.
Identify the distinct 4-year tenure rule applicable specifically to CVC.
2
Analyze the statutory provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act for the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).
The 2019 Amendment reduced the tenure from 5 years to 3 years (or 70 years of age) and permitted re-appointment.
Distinguish NHRC's reduced 3-year tenure and 70-year age cap from other bodies.
3
Examine the tenure rule under the National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010.
Section 7 mandates a 5-year fixed term with a strict prohibition on re-appointment.
Identify NGT's unique 5-year non-renewable tenure structure.
4
Evaluate the statutory framework for the Central Information Commission (CIC).
The RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 empowered the Central Government to notify tenure terms by rules (currently 3 years) rather than keeping a fixed statutory 5-year term.
Confirm the flexible executive-prescribed tenure mechanism introduced by the 2019 amendment.

Key Concept

Statutory Tenure, Age Caps, and Re-appointment Mandates of Non-Constitutional Bodies
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2082Question →

Match the poverty and inequality metrics listed in Column I with their corresponding conceptual definitions and key mathematical characteristics listed in Column II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Palma Ratio
Foster-Greer-Thorbecke (FGT) Squared Poverty Gap Index (α=2\alpha = 2)
Sen Index of Poverty
Atkinson Index of Inequality

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Palma Ratio matches with the comparison of the income share of the richest 10% to the poorest 40%; FGT Index (alpha = 2) matches with calculating poverty severity by placing higher exponential weight on individuals furthest below the poverty line; Sen Index matches with combining head-count ratio, income shortfall ratio, and Gini coefficient among the poor; and Atkinson Index matches with measuring normative social welfare loss incorporating an explicit inequality aversion parameter.
The Palma Ratio specifically contrasts the income share held by the top decile (10%) against the bottom four deciles (40%). The FGT index with parameter alpha = 2 measures poverty severity by squaring individual poverty gaps, ensuring that individuals furthest below the poverty line carry greater weight. The Sen Index addresses the shortcomings of simple headcount ratios by combining incidence, average income shortfall, and inequality among the poor (Gini coefficient of the poor). The Atkinson Index is a normative social welfare measure that evaluates potential welfare gain from redistribution, defined by a parameter reflecting societal aversion to inequality.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Palma Ratio
Identify that Gabriel Palma observed that middle-income groups (50th-90th percentiles) capture roughly half of national income, making inequality driven by the ratio of the top 10% share to the bottom 40% share.
Establishes correct matching pair for Palma Ratio.
2
Analyze FGT Index for α=2\alpha = 2
Recognize that α=0\alpha = 0 yields Head Count Ratio, α=1\alpha = 1 yields Poverty Gap Index, and α=2\alpha = 2 squares normalized gaps to capture poverty severity.
Distinguishes incidence (α=0\alpha=0), depth (α=1\alpha=1), and severity (α=2\alpha=2) in FGT metrics.
3
Analyze Sen Index of Poverty
Recall Amartya Sen's 1976 formulation PS=H[I+(1−I)Gp]P_S = H [I + (1-I)G_p], which integrates headcount HH, income gap II, and inequality among the poor GpG_p.
Connects multi-dimensional poverty gap components to Sen's composite metric.
4
Analyze Atkinson Index
Identify Anthony Atkinson's welfare-based metric A=1−yedeμA = 1 - \frac{y_{ede}}{\mu}, where yedey_{ede} is equally distributed equivalent income determined by aversion parameter ϵ\epsilon.
Matches normative welfare loss and inequality aversion coefficient to Atkinson's metric.

Key Concept

Advanced Inequality Metrics and Composite Poverty Indices
Question 2083Question →

Match the special constitutional powers and procedural functions of the Houses of Parliament in List-I with their corresponding Constitutional Provisions / Articles in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Authorization to Parliament to create one or more All-India Services
Initiation of a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President of India
Final decision and certification on whether a Bill is a Money Bill
Exclusive approval of a National Emergency proclamation when Lok Sabha is dissolved

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Authorization to create All-India Services matches Article 312; Initiation of a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President matches Article 67(b); Final decision on certifying a Money Bill matches Article 110(3); Exclusive approval of National Emergency during Lok Sabha dissolution matches Proviso to Article 352(4).
The correct pairings accurately reflect the specific constitutional balance of power between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha: Article 312 reserves All-India Services creation resolutions to Rajya Sabha, Article 67(b) mandates that Vice-President removal resolutions originate in Rajya Sabha, Article 110(3) grants exclusive Money Bill certification powers to the Lok Sabha Speaker, and Article 352(4) proviso provides for emergency approval by Rajya Sabha when Lok Sabha stands dissolved.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional article empowering Rajya Sabha regarding All-India Services
Article 312 explicitly gives Rajya Sabha the exclusive federal power to initiate creation of All-India Services.
This federal safeguard protects state administrative cadres unless Rajya Sabha consents.
2
Examine the procedural rule for removing the Vice-President of India
Article 67(b) stipulates that a resolution for removal of the Vice-President must originate exclusively in the Rajya Sabha.
Because the Vice-President serves as the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha, initiation power belongs solely to that House.
3
Determine the authority governing Money Bill certification
Article 110(3) confers unchallengeable and final authority on the Speaker of Lok Sabha to decide whether a bill is a Money Bill.
Lok Sabha holds primary financial power and accountability under the Indian parliamentary structure.
4
Analyze emergency powers when the lower house is dissolved
Under the proviso to Article 352(4), Rajya Sabha functions as the continuous constitutional watchdog approving emergency proclamations during Lok Sabha's dissolution within 30 days.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent body not subject to dissolution, maintaining legislative oversight in emergencies.

Key Concept

Exclusive and Special Powers of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha under the Constitution of India
Question 2084Question →

Match the following poverty estimation committees and inequality concepts in India (List-I) with their associated features or reference methodologies (List-II):

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Y. K. Alagh Committee (1979)
Suresh Tendulkar Committee (2009)
C. Rangarajan Committee (2014)
Palma Ratio

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Y. K. Alagh Committee (1979) pairs with minimum daily calorie requirement (2400 kcal2400\text{ kcal} rural, 2100 kcal2100\text{ kcal} urban); Suresh Tendulkar Committee (2009) pairs with shift away from calorie intake to spending on basic services using Mixed Reference Period (MRP); C. Rangarajan Committee (2014) pairs with recommendation of Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP); and Palma Ratio pairs with the ratio of top 10%10\% income share to bottom 40%40\% income share.
Each item correctly aligns historical policy committees and metric definitions with their specific features: Alagh Committee pioneered calorie-based thresholds (2400/2100 kcal2400/2100\text{ kcal}); Tendulkar Committee adopted MRP while moving away from strict calorie counts; Rangarajan Committee introduced MMRP; and the Palma Ratio compares the top 10%10\% to the bottom 40%40\% income shares.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary methodology of the Y. K. Alagh Task Force (1979).
It introduced official calorie-based nutrition norms (2400 kcal2400\text{ kcal} rural, 2100 kcal2100\text{ kcal} urban).
This defined the baseline consumption basket for early Indian poverty lines.
2
Identify the methodological shift introduced by the Suresh Tendulkar Committee (2009).
It moved away from strict calorie reliance toward private expenditure on health and education using MRP.
It sought to reflect realistic cost of living rather than pure calorie intake.
3
Identify the reference period innovation introduced by the C. Rangarajan Committee (2014).
It adopted the Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP) to capture food and low-frequency purchases accurately.
MMRP accounts for recall bias over 7-day, 30-day, and 365-day recall windows.
4
Define the Palma Ratio inequality metric.
It measures inequality by comparing the top decile (10%10\%) income share to the bottom four deciles (40%40\%).
It addresses the stability of the middle 50%50\% income share observed globally.

Key Concept

Methodological frameworks of Indian poverty estimation committees and income inequality metrics.
Question 2085Question →

During a financial year, a State Government's budgetary accounts reveal the following figures:

- Total Revenue Receipts: ₹2,40,000 crore
- Total Revenue Expenditure: ₹2,85,000 crore
- Total Capital Expenditure: ₹65,000 crore
- Non-Debt Capital Receipts (Recovery of Loans and Disinvestment Proceeds): ₹25,000 crore
- Total Interest Payments on Past Debt: ₹32,000 crore

Based on the given budgetary data, what is the Primary Deficit of the State Government in ₹ crore?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 53000

Answer

The Primary Deficit of the State Government is ₹53,000 crore.
Primary Deficit is defined as Gross Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments. Gross Fiscal Deficit is calculated as Total Expenditure (Revenue Expenditure + Capital Expenditure) minus Total Non-Debt Receipts (Revenue Receipts + Non-Debt Capital Receipts). Substituting the given values: Total Expenditure = ₹2,85,000 crore + ₹65,000 crore = ₹3,50,000 crore; Total Non-Debt Receipts = ₹2,40,000 crore + ₹25,000 crore = ₹2,65,000 crore. Therefore, Gross Fiscal Deficit = ₹3,50,000 crore - ₹2,65,000 crore = ₹85,000 crore. Subtracting Interest Payments of ₹32,000 crore gives a Primary Deficit of ₹53,000 crore.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate Total Budgetary Expenditure
₹3,50,000 crore
Total expenditure includes both operational revenue spending and long-term capital creation: Revenue Expenditure (₹2,85,000 crore) + Capital Expenditure (₹65,000 crore).
2
Calculate Total Non-Debt Receipts
₹2,65,000 crore
Non-debt receipts represent government income that does not create future repayment obligations: Revenue Receipts (₹2,40,000 crore) + Non-Debt Capital Receipts (₹25,000 crore).
3
Calculate Gross Fiscal Deficit
₹85,000 crore
Gross Fiscal Deficit measures total borrowing requirements: Total Expenditure (₹3,50,000 crore) - Total Non-Debt Receipts (₹2,65,000 crore).
4
Calculate Primary Deficit
₹53,000 crore
Primary Deficit isolates current financial year fiscal imbalance by subtracting past debt servicing burdens (Interest Payments of ₹32,000 crore) from the Gross Fiscal Deficit (₹85,000 crore).

Key Concept

Derivation of Fiscal Deficit and Primary Deficit from public budget aggregates
Question 2086Question →

Consider the following statements regarding Peaty and Marshy Soils (locally known as Kari in parts of Kerala) in India:

1. They develop in humid regions characterized by heavy rainfall and dense vegetation growth, leading to a high accumulation of organic matter.
2. These soils are predominantly alkaline in nature and are completely free of soluble mineral salts.
3. They are characteristically heavy, dark in color, and strongly acidic.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

The correct option is the one stating that statements 1 and 3 only are correct.
Peaty and marshy soils form in humid coastal regions (such as Kottayam and Alappuzha districts of Kerala, Sundarbans of West Bengal, and coastal Odisha) under conditions of heavy rainfall and high water table. They are heavy, dark in color, highly acidic, and rich in organic matter (40–50%). Statement 2 incorrectly characterizes them as alkaline and free of soluble salts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding formation and organic content.
Peaty soils originate in areas with high rainfall, high humidity, and dense vegetative cover (such as coastal Kerala, Sundarbans, and coastal Odisha). Organic matter accumulation reaches up to 40–50%. Statement 1 is correct.
Verifies the pedogenic climate and organic composition.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding soil pH and salinity.
Due to massive humification and accumulation of organic acids, peaty soils are strongly acidic (pH often below 5.0) and typically contain considerable amounts of soluble salts and ferrous iron. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Identifies erroneous claims regarding soil chemistry and pH.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding texture and color.
Peaty soils are heavy, dark/black in appearance, and highly acidic. Statement 3 is correct.
Confirms physical attributes of peaty soils.

Key Concept

Pedological and chemical characteristics of Peaty and Marshy Soils in India
Question 2087Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional remedies and writ jurisdictions under Article 32 and Article 226 of the Constitution of India:

1. The Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for any other ordinary legal right.
2. The High Court can refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction under Article 226 if an adequate alternative legal remedy is available.
3. Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right, whereas Article 226 is a constitutional provision conferring discretionary jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32 is limited to the enforcement of Fundamental Rights alone, making it narrower in purpose than the High Court's writ jurisdiction under Article 226, which extends to 'any other purpose' (ordinary legal rights). Moreover, because Article 32 is guaranteed as a Fundamental Right itself, the Supreme Court cannot refuse to exercise its jurisdiction, whereas the High Court's jurisdiction under Article 226 is discretionary.
The correct option is the combination of statements 2 and 3. Under Article 32, the Supreme Court's power to issue writs is exclusively restricted to enforcing Fundamental Rights contained in Part III of the Constitution. In contrast, Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for Fundamental Rights as well as 'for any other purpose' (enforcement of ordinary statutory and legal rights). Furthermore, because Article 32 is guaranteed as a Fundamental Right, the Supreme Court cannot refuse a petitioner seeking remedy for violation of Part III rights, whereas High Court writ jurisdiction under Article 226 is discretionary.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Under Article 32, the Supreme Court can issue writs ONLY for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (Part III). It cannot issue writs for ordinary legal rights, unlike High Courts under Article 226.
2
Analyze Statement 2
Statement 2 is correct.
High Court writ jurisdiction under Article 226 is discretionary in nature; hence, a High Court may refuse to grant writ relief if an efficacious alternative legal remedy exists.
3
Analyze Statement 3
Statement 3 is correct.
Article 32 is included in Part III of the Constitution and is itself a fundamental right to move the Supreme Court. Article 226 falls under Part VI and is a constitutional provision providing discretionary remedy.

Key Concept

Writ Jurisdiction Comparison (Article 32 vs Article 226)
Question 2088Question →

Consider the following statements regarding national income accounting identities and aggregates:

Statement I: Gross National Income (GNI) at market prices is derived by adding Net Primary Income from Abroad (NPIA) to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at market prices.
Statement II: When a country records negative Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA), its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is less than its Gross National Income (GNI).
Statement III: National Income, conceptually measured as Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPFCNNP_{FC}), is calculated by deducting Net Indirect Taxes from Net National Product at Market Prices (NNPMPNNP_{MP}).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Statement I and Statement III only

Answer

Statement I and Statement III only are correct.
The correct option includes Statement I and Statement III while excluding Statement II. Statement I correctly states the identity GNI=GDP+NPIAGNI = GDP + NPIA. Statement III correctly reflects that National Income (NNPFCNNP_{FC}) is derived from NNPMPNNP_{MP} by removing Net Indirect Taxes. Statement II is false because a negative Net Factor Income from Abroad implies domestic economic output (GDPGDP) exceeds national income earned by residents (GNIGNI).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement I
Statement I is correct
Gross National Income (GNI) measures total income earned by residents. GNIMP=GDPMP+Net Primary Income from AbroadGNI_{MP} = GDP_{MP} + \text{Net Primary Income from Abroad}.
2
Evaluate Statement II
Statement II is incorrect
Since GNI=GDP+NFIAGNI = GDP + NFIA, if NFIA<0NFIA < 0, then GNI=GDP−∣NFIA∣GNI = GDP - |NFIA|, which means GDP>GNIGDP > GNI. Thus, GDP is greater than GNI, not less.
3
Evaluate Statement III
Statement III is correct
By definition, National Income corresponds to NNPFCNNP_{FC}, which equals NNPMP−Net Indirect TaxesNNP_{MP} - \text{Net Indirect Taxes} (where Net Indirect Taxes = Indirect Taxes - Subsidies).

Key Concept

National Income Accounting Identities and Aggregates
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2089Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the constitutional safeguards and administrative provisions of the Public Service Commissions in India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the state, but can be removed from office only by the President of India.; The administrative expenses of the Union Public Service Commission, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions of its members and staff, are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Answer

The correct statements are the statement regarding SPSC appointment by the Governor and removal by the President, and the statement asserting that UPSC administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
The statement specifying that SPSC members are appointed by the Governor but removable only by the President, and the statement highlighting that UPSC expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, are accurate statements under Articles 316, 317, and 322 of the Constitution of India.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the appointment and removal authorities for State Public Service Commission members.
According to Article 316, the Governor appoints SPSC members. However, Article 317 stipulates that only the President of India has the power to remove them.
This constitutional provision ensures that state-level commissions maintain operational independence from local political executive pressure.
2
Analyze the procedural requirement for removing an SPSC member on grounds of misbehaviour.
Article 317(1) requires the President to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry, not the State High Court.
The Supreme Court conducts the investigation and reports its findings to the President.
3
Evaluate the financial provisions governing the UPSC.
Article 322 explicitly states that the administrative expenses of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Charged expenses are not subject to annual voting in Parliament, guaranteeing financial autonomy.
4
Verify the constitutional article mapping for the UPSC.
Public Service Commissions are governed by Articles 315–323. Article 324 governs the Election Commission of India.
Mapping Article 324 to UPSC is a common constitutional misquote.

Key Concept

Constitutional safeguards, removal mechanisms, and governing articles of Public Service Commissions (Articles 315-323)
Question 2090Question →

With reference to the physiographic sub-divisions of Peninsular India, which of the following statements accurately explains the geological origin and structural nature of the Western Ghats?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: They form the faulted and eroded western edge (escarpment) of the Peninsular plateau, created during the subsidence of the landmass into the Arabian Sea.

Answer

The statement explaining that the Western Ghats form the faulted and eroded western edge (escarpment) of the Peninsular plateau, created during the subsidence of the landmass into the Arabian Sea.
Geologically, the Western Ghats (Sahyadris) are not true mountain ranges formed by crustal folding. Instead, they are the steep western cliff edge (escarpment) of the Peninsular Plateau. They were formed during the breakup of Gondwanaland when the western part of the plateau faulted and submerged beneath the Arabian Sea, creating a high continuous relief wall facing the western coast.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the geological history of the Peninsular Plateau.
The Peninsular Plateau is part of ancient Gondwanaland consisting of stable Precambrian crystalline rocks.
Understanding structural origin helps distinguish true fold mountains from fault scarps.
2
Evaluate the mechanism that shaped the Western Ghats.
During the rifting of Gondwanaland and the northward drift of the Indian plate, faulting led to the submergence of the western segment into the Arabian Sea, leaving behind a steep relief escarpment known as the Sahyadris / Western Ghats.
This confirms that the Western Ghats are continuous fault-scarp relief features rather than collisional fold mountains.

Key Concept

Geological origin and structural relief characteristics of the Western Ghats escarpment.
Question 2091Question →

Government expenditure in the Union Budget of India is categorized into Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure based on whether it creates assets or reduces liabilities. Which of the following is classified as Revenue Expenditure of the Central Government?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Payment of interest on past public borrowings

Answer

Payment of interest on past public borrowings
Payment of interest on past public debt is a routine operational expenditure. It is incurred for servicing debt and does not lead to asset creation or reduction of the principal loan liability, so it is classified under Revenue Expenditure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Understand the criteria for Revenue Expenditure versus Capital Expenditure.
Revenue Expenditure covers operational, non-asset-creating expenses that do not reduce liabilities, whereas Capital Expenditure creates assets or reduces liabilities.
Public finance guidelines define revenue outlay as maintenance and servicing costs.
2
Evaluate the option regarding interest payments on public borrowings.
Servicing interest on existing debt is a contractual, recurring expenditure that does not reduce the principal debt liability nor build assets.
Hence, interest payment is strictly categorized as Revenue Expenditure.

Key Concept

Classification of Government Expenditure (Revenue vs. Capital)
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2092Question →

With reference to the institutional transition from the Planning Commission to NITI Aayog in Indian economic planning, consider the following statements:

Statement I: NITI Aayog functions primarily as a policy think tank promoting a bottom-up approach to cooperative federalism, unlike the Planning Commission which pursued a top-down planning approach.
Statement II: Unlike the former Planning Commission, NITI Aayog possesses the statutory power to allocate central financial resources directly to state governments.
Statement III: Post-2017, NITI Aayog replaced Five-Year Plans with a long-term economic strategy framework comprising a 15-Year Vision, a 7-Year Strategy, and a 3-Year Action Agenda.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Only Statement I and Statement III

Answer

Only Statement I and Statement III are correct.
Statement I and Statement III are factually accurate. NITI Aayog acts as an advisory body fostering cooperative federalism without possessing resource allocation mandate, and it restructured Indian economic planning into 15-year, 7-year, and 3-year frameworks following the end of Five-Year Plans in 2017.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement I regarding institutional philosophy.
Statement I is correct because NITI Aayog was established on January 1, 2015, as a policy think tank to facilitate structured, bottom-up cooperative federalism, in contrast to the centralized top-down approach of the Planning Commission.
Institutional design of NITI Aayog emphasizes state participation in strategic policy formulation.
2
Evaluate Statement II regarding financial allocation powers.
Statement II is incorrect because NITI Aayog does not allocate funds to state governments or Union ministries. The power to allocate plan funds was transferred to the Department of Expenditure under the Ministry of Finance.
Financial allocation authority was decoupled from advisory planning functions.
3
Evaluate Statement III regarding post-2017 planning horizons.
Statement III is correct because after the 12th Five-Year Plan concluded in 2017, NITI Aayog introduced a multi-tier planning framework: a 15-Year Vision Document, a 7-Year National Development Strategy, and a 3-Year Action Agenda.
Five-Year Plans were replaced by flexible strategic vision documents aligned with modern economic governance.

Key Concept

Institutional architecture and functional differences between NITI Aayog and the Planning Commission
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2093Question →

With reference to the Provisional Government of Free India (Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind) established in October 1943, consider the following statements:

1. It was proclaimed by Subhas Chandra Bose in Singapore as the Head of State, Prime Minister, and Minister for War.
2. The headquarters of the Provisional Government was shifted from Singapore to Rangoon in January 1944.
3. It received formal diplomatic recognition from Axis powers and allied nations during World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
The correct response includes all three statements. On October 21, 1943, Subhas Chandra Bose declared the establishment of the Provisional Government of Free India in Singapore, taking on the roles of Head of State, Prime Minister, and Minister for War. To move closer to the Indian mainland for the upcoming military campaign alongside Japanese forces, the headquarters was moved to Rangoon in January 1944. Furthermore, nine foreign states—including Japan, Germany, Italy, Burma, and Thailand—accorded official diplomatic recognition to the Provisional Government.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the leadership roles and proclamation site.
Statement 1 is correct. On October 21, 1943, Subhas Chandra Bose proclaimed the Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind (Provisional Government of Free India) in Singapore, assuming the charges of Head of State, Prime Minister, and Minister for War and Foreign Affairs.
To verify the initial establishment and leadership structure of the provisional government.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the relocation of the headquarters.
Statement 2 is correct. In January 1944, the government relocated its headquarters to Rangoon (Burma) to serve as a base for military operations on the Indian frontier.
To verify the wartime strategic movements of the Indian National Army and its governing administration.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding international diplomatic recognition.
Statement 3 is correct. The Provisional Government was recognized by Axis powers and their allies, including Japan, Germany, Italy, Croatia, Burma, Thailand, the Philippines, Nationalist China (Nanking government), and Manchukuo.
To assess the diplomatic status achieved by the provisional government during World War II.

Key Concept

Provisional Government of Free India (Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind) and its political and administrative operations
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2094Question →

Which major port of India is situated at the head of the Gulf of Kutch, operates as a tidal port, and primarily serves as a vital hub for importing crude oil, petroleum products, and bulk cargo for northern and northwestern India?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Deendayal Port (Kandla)

Answer

Deendayal Port (Kandla) is the major tidal port situated at the head of the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat.
Deendayal Port (Kandla), situated in the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat, was developed after Independence as a natural deep-water tidal port. It serves as a major trade outlet for northern and northwestern India, handling substantial imports of crude oil, petroleum products, and fertilizers.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical location and unique physical characteristic specified in the question stem.
The port is located at the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat and is classified as a tidal port.
Geographical location (Gulf of Kutch) and hydrological type (tidal port) distinguish Kandla from other ports along the Indian coastline.
2
Evaluate the given port options against these specifications.
Deendayal Port (Kandla) matches the Gulf of Kutch location and tidal port classification. Mormugao is in Goa, Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port is a riverine port in West Bengal, and Jawaharlal Nehru Port is a container hub in Navi Mumbai.
Differentiating ports by location and administrative/operational type identifies the correct choice.

Key Concept

Major Sea Ports of India, Location, and Functional Specialization
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2095Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional position and discretionary powers of the Governor of an Indian State:

1. The Governor is constitutionally bound to reserve any bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President if it endangers the constitutional position of the State High Court.
2. The validity of any action taken by the Governor cannot be questioned in court on the ground that the Governor ought or ought not to have acted in their discretion.
3. Unlike the President of India, the Constitution explicitly provides for the exercise of discretionary powers by the Governor in certain matters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 3

Answer

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.
The correct answer identifies that all three statements are valid constitutional facts. Statement 1 aligns with the mandatory reservation clause of Article 200 regarding High Courts. Statement 2 reflects Article 163(2), which protects the Governor's decision on discretionary matters from judicial questioning. Statement 3 accurately notes the explicit textual presence of discretionary power in Article 163(1) for the Governor, which sets it apart from Article 74 regarding the President.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding reservation of bills for the President.
Statement 1 is correct.
Under the second proviso to Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor must reserve any bill which, in his opinion, would derogate from the powers of the High Court so as to endanger its constitutional position.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding judicial review of gubernatorial discretion.
Statement 2 is correct.
Article 163(2) specifies that if any question arises whether a matter falls within the Governor's discretion, the Governor's decision is final and anything done shall not be called into question in any court.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding textual comparison of discretion between Governor and President.
Statement 3 is correct.
Article 163(1) explicitly uses the clause 'except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion', whereas Article 74 contains no explicit textual grant of discretionary powers to the President.

Key Concept

Constitutional Powers and Discretionary Jurisdiction of the Governor (Articles 163 and 200)
Question 2096Question →

Regarding demographic trends, employment classifications, and national skill development initiatives in India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The demographic dividend phase is characterized by a secular decline in the total dependency ratio resulting from an expanding proportion of the working-age population (15–64 years).; Structural unemployment reflects a persistent mismatch between the skill demands of expanding economic sectors and the existing skill profiles of the labor force.; Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) specifically targets rural poor youth in the 15–35 age group and includes mandatory wage placement benchmarks.

Answer

The statements regarding the mechanism of the demographic dividend, the definition of structural unemployment, and the design features of DDU-GKY are correct, whereas the statement misattributing PMKVY to the Ministry of Rural Development is incorrect.
The demographic dividend is driven by an expanding working-age population relative to dependents, decreasing the dependency ratio. Structural unemployment occurs due to technological and economic shifts creating a gap between job requirements and worker skills. DDU-GKY specifically targets rural poor youth aged 15–35 with placement mandate under the Ministry of Rural Development.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the demographic dividend mechanism.
Demographic dividend represents economic growth potential arising from shifts in population age structure, marked by a growing working-age cohort (15–64 years) relative to dependents, which reduces the total dependency ratio.
Validates the correctness of the demographic trend statement.
2
Examine the implementing ministry and objective of Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY).
PMKVY is executed under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) through National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) for industry-aligned non-farm job roles.
Identifies the error in attributing PMKVY to the Ministry of Rural Development and agricultural employment.
3
Evaluate the cause and nature of structural unemployment.
Structural unemployment stems from long-term changes in economic structure, technological advancements, or systemic skill gaps between labor supply and market demand.
Confirms the accuracy of the structural unemployment definition.
4
Review the target group and placement mandate of Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY).
DDU-GKY operates under the Ministry of Rural Development for rural poor youth (standard age 15–35 years) with a mandatory minimum 70% wage placement rule.
Confirms the validity of the DDU-GKY policy framework statement.

Key Concept

Demographic dividend mechanics, structural unemployment classification, and national skill development program frameworks
Question 2097Question →

Consider the following statements regarding National Income Accounting identities and price deflators in India:

1. The GDP deflator measures the price changes of all domestically produced goods and services in an economy, whereas the Consumer Price Index (CPI) reflects the price changes of a fixed basket of goods and services, including imported consumer goods.
2. If an economy experiences a nominal GDP increase due solely to price inflation while real GDP remains constant, the calculated GDP deflator value will remain unchanged at 100.
3. Under India's revised national accounts methodology, Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices includes net production taxes (production taxes minus production subsidies) but excludes net product taxes (product taxes minus product subsidies).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The GDP deflator covers all domestically produced goods and services, whereas CPI includes imported consumption goods. GVA at basic prices equals GVA at factor cost plus production taxes minus production subsidies, excluding product taxes/subsidies.
The option stating '1 and 3 only' is correct. Statement 1 accurately captures the key structural differences between the GDP deflator (domestic production, dynamic weights) and the Consumer Price Index (includes imports, fixed basket). Statement 3 correctly identifies the official NSO formula for GVA at basic prices, which incorporates production taxes/subsidies but leaves out product taxes/subsidies. Statement 2 is false because a rise in nominal GDP alongside constant real GDP increases the ratio (Nominal GDP/Real GDP)×100(\text{Nominal GDP} / \text{Real GDP}) \times 100, raising the GDP deflator above 100.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the scope of GDP Deflator versus CPI.
Statement 1 is correct. The GDP deflator covers the price changes of all domestically produced final goods and services within GDP, whereas CPI tracks a representative basket of consumer items that includes imported consumer goods.
Understanding basket composition and import inclusions is essential to comparing implicit deflators with explicit price indices.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 using the formula for the GDP Deflator.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The GDP deflator is defined as GDP Deflator=(Nominal GDPReal GDP)×100\text{GDP Deflator} = \left( \frac{\text{Nominal GDP}}{\text{Real GDP}} \right) \times 100. If nominal GDP grows due to inflation while real GDP is constant, the ratio increases above 100.
The GDP deflator measures price changes relative to a base year; pure price inflation drives nominal GDP up, increasing the deflator value.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 using the National Accounts Statistics framework for GVA at basic prices.
Statement 3 is correct. GVA at basic prices=GVA at factor cost+(Production Taxes−Production Subsidies)\text{GVA at basic prices} = \text{GVA at factor cost} + (\text{Production Taxes} - \text{Production Subsidies}). Product taxes and subsidies (such as GST or excise duties on specific goods) are added/subtracted only when moving from GVA at basic prices to GDP at market prices.
Production taxes (e.g., land revenues, stamp duty) are independent of production volume, while product taxes (e.g., GST) depend on output quantity.

Key Concept

National Income Accounting aggregates, GDP Deflator vs CPI, and GVA at Basic Prices
Question 2098Question →

Consider the following statements regarding inequality metrics and poverty measurement concepts:

1. The Palma Ratio is defined as the ratio of the richest 10% of the population's share of gross national income to the poorest 40%'s share.
2. Unlike the Headcount Ratio, the Poverty Gap Ratio accounts for the depth of poverty by measuring the average distance by which poor households fall below the poverty line.
3. Graphically, the Gini Coefficient is calculated as the ratio of the total area under the Lorenz Curve to the total area above the line of perfect equality.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct option is '1 and 2 only'.
The option stating '1 and 2 only' is correct because both statement 1 (defining the Palma Ratio as the ratio of income of the top 10% to the bottom 40%) and statement 2 (defining the Poverty Gap Ratio as measuring the average shortfall/depth of poverty below the threshold) are factually and conceptually accurate. Statement 3 misdefines the geometric ratio for calculating the Gini coefficient.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the Palma Ratio
Statement 1 is CORRECT.
The Palma Ratio was developed by Gabriel Palma as an alternative to the Gini coefficient. It focuses on income concentration by dividing the top 10% share of national income by the bottom 40% share, based on empirical evidence that the middle 50% usually captures a relatively stable half of national income.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the Poverty Gap Ratio
Statement 2 is CORRECT.
While the Headcount Ratio (HCR) merely counts the proportion of the population living below the poverty line without considering how poor they are, the Poverty Gap Ratio measures the mean shortfall from the poverty line expressed as a percentage of the line itself, thus capturing the depth/intensity of poverty.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the graphical formulation of the Gini Coefficient
Statement 3 is INCORRECT.
If AA is the area between the 45-degree line of perfect equality and the Lorenz curve, and BB is the area under the Lorenz curve, the total area under the line of equality is A+B=0.5A + B = 0.5. The Gini Coefficient is given by G=AA+B=2AG = \frac{A}{A + B} = 2A. Statement 3 incorrectly states it as the area under the curve divided by the area above it.

Key Concept

Palma Ratio, Poverty Gap Ratio, and Lorenz Curve / Gini Coefficient geometry
Question 2099Question →

Which of the following options correctly matches the Constitutional Articles related to Indian Public Finance in List-I with their corresponding provisions in List-II?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 265
Article 266(1)
Article 267
Article 280

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 265 matches with 'Prohibition of levying or collecting taxes except by authority of law', Article 266(1) matches with 'Consolidated Funds of India and of the States', Article 267 matches with 'Creation of the Contingency Fund of India at the disposal of the President', and Article 280 matches with 'Constitution and recommendations of the Finance Commission'.
Each constitutional provision is matched directly with its core legal definition under Part XII of the Constitution of India.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Article 265.
Article 265 stipulates that taxation requires statutory authorization.
Prevents executive imposition of taxes without legislative enactment.
2
Analyze Article 266(1).
Article 266(1) establishes the Consolidated Fund.
All revenues, loans raised, and receipts of loan repayments are credited to this fund.
3
Analyze Article 267.
Article 267 establishes the Contingency Fund.
Placed at the disposal of the President to meet urgent unforeseen expenses pending Parliamentary authorization.
4
Analyze Article 280.
Article 280 governs the Finance Commission.
Acts as the quasi-judicial body recommending vertical and horizontal fiscal devolution.

Key Concept

Constitutional Framework of Indian Public Finance and Budgetary Provisions
Question 2100Question →

Evaluate the following statements concerning the constitutional scope of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy in India:

Statement I: A law enacted by Parliament to give effect to the Directive Principles specified in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) cannot be declared void on the ground that it infringes upon Article 14 or Article 19.
Statement II: All Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution are automatically suspended immediately upon the proclamation of a National Emergency on any ground.

Which of the following evaluations is correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

Answer

Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
The evaluation stating that Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect is right. Article 31C insulates laws giving effect to Article 39(b) and (c) from challenges based on Article 14 and Article 19. On the other hand, a National Emergency does not automatically suspend all Part III rights; Article 19 suspends automatically only during an external emergency under Article 358, whereas rights under Articles 20 and 21 remain enforceable at all times.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement I regarding Article 31C and its protection of Directive Principles.
Article 31C (introduced by the 25th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971) explicitly provides that no law giving effect to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) shall be deemed void for inconsistent application with Article 14 (Equality before Law) or Article 19 (Six Freedoms). The Supreme Court upheld this provision in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). Thus, Statement I is correct.
Establishing the constitutional precedence of Article 39(b) and (c) over Articles 14 and 19 under Article 31C.
2
Analyze Statement II regarding the suspension of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
Under Article 358, only Article 19 is automatically suspended, and that too only when a National Emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (external emergency), not armed rebellion. Other Fundamental Rights (excluding Articles 20 and 21) can only be suspended by a specific Presidential Order under Article 359. Rights under Articles 20 and 21 can never be suspended. Thus, Statement II is incorrect.
Distinguishing between automatic suspension under Article 358 and executive suspension by order under Article 359.
3
Combine the evaluations to select the proper option.
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
Matching the derived evaluation with the choices provided.

Key Concept

Interplay between Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles (Part IV) under Article 31C, alongside the emergency suspension mechanisms of Articles 358 and 359.
PreviousPage 105 / 230Next
All practice questions — State PSC Exam | Examkin