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Question 2241Question →

With reference to the statutory provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 passed by the British Parliament, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It designated the Governor-General of India and provincial governors as constitutional (nominal) heads of their respective territories.; It provided for the lapse of British paramountcy over the Indian princely states and treaty relations with tribal areas.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Indian Independence Act of 1947 designated the Governor-General and provincial governors as nominal constitutional heads, and declared the lapse of British paramountcy over princely states and tribal areas.
The Indian Independence Act of 1947 explicitly transformed the Governor-General and provincial governors into nominal constitutional heads acting on the advice of their respective councils of ministers. Furthermore, it declared the complete lapse of British paramountcy over Indian princely states and treaty arrangements with tribal areas on August 15, 1947.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional status of executive heads under the Indian Independence Act of 1947.
The Act stripped executive discretionary powers from the Governor-General of India and provincial governors, transforming them into nominal constitutional heads bound by ministerial advice.
This established responsible cabinet-style governance for the two new Dominions.
2
Evaluate the provisions regarding princely states and tribal treaty agreements.
Section 7 explicitly terminated British paramountcy over princely states and lapsed treaty relations with tribal areas as of August 15, 1947.
Sovereignty reverted to the states, giving them the freedom to accede to India or Pakistan, or remain independent.
3
Identify misattributions regarding central dyarchy and judicial bodies.
Central dyarchy and the setting up of the Federal Court were provisions of the Government of India Act 1935.
These features belong to earlier colonial constitutional reforms and were not part of the 1947 transfer of power legislation.

Key Concept

Key provisions of the Indian Independence Act 1947
Question 2242Question →

Match the medieval Bhakti saints listed in List I with their corresponding regional devotional compositions and poetic forms listed in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Basavanna
Lalleshwari (Lal Ded)
Srimanta Sankardeva
Chandidasa

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Basavanna matches with Vachanas, Lalleshwari (Lal Ded) matches with Vakhs, Srimanta Sankardeva matches with Kirtana Ghosha, and Chandidasa matches with Shrikrishna Kirtana.
Basavanna corresponds to Vachanas (Kannada short devotional prose), Lalleshwari corresponds to Vakhs (Kashmiri mystical verses), Srimanta Sankardeva corresponds to Kirtana Ghosha (Assamese devotional hymns), and Chandidasa corresponds to Shrikrishna Kirtana (Bengali Vaishnava poetry).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the literary genre of 12th-century Kannada Virashaiva reformer Basavanna.
Basavanna wrote Vachanas, which are rhythmic prose poems promoting ethical living and devotion to Shiva.
Vachana literature served as the primary vernacular vehicle for the Sharana movement in Karnataka.
2
Identify the poetic form composed by 14th-century Kashmiri saint Lalleshwari.
Lalleshwari (Lal Ded) authored four-line mystical quatrains called Vakhs.
Vakhs represent the earliest tradition of Kashmiri vernacular Bhakti poetry.
3
Identify the masterwork of Assamese Neo-Vaishnava reformer Srimanta Sankardeva.
Sankardeva authored the Kirtana Ghosha, a collection of narrative verses meant for communal devotional singing.
The Kirtana Ghosha established the doctrinal foundation of Ekasarana Dharma in Assam.
4
Identify the work written by early Bengali Vaishnava poet Chandidasa.
Chandidasa composed Shrikrishna Kirtana, depicting the divine love of Radha and Krishna in early Bengali.
This composition profoundly influenced later Gaudiya Vaishnava traditions.

Key Concept

Vernacular Literature and Regional Traditions of Medieval Bhakti Saints
Question 2243Question →

Regarding the accounting classification of transactions in India's Balance of Payments (BoP) and external sector, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Remittances sent by non-resident workers to their families in India are categorized as secondary income (private transfers) under the Current Account.; Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity flows into domestic enterprises are classified under the Capital Account as non-debt creating financial transactions.

Answer

The correct statements are that remittances from non-resident workers are categorized as secondary income under the Current Account, and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity flows are classified under the Capital Account as non-debt creating flows.
The statements concerning worker remittances and FDI equity flows are correct. Remittances do not create future financial claims or debt liabilities, making them current transfer receipts (secondary income) under the Current Account. Foreign direct investments acquire ownership equity in domestic enterprises, directly altering the economy's foreign financial asset-liability position under the Capital Account.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the classification of worker remittances in Balance of Payments accounting.
Remittances represent unrequited unilateral transfers without financial obligation.
Unrequited transfers belong to secondary income under the Current Account.
2
Evaluate the accounting treatment of interest payments on External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
Interest payments service existing debt as an investment income outflow.
Debt servicing cost (interest) is an income flow recorded under primary income in the Current Account, whereas principal loan disbursal and amortization are recorded in the Capital Account.
3
Determine the classification of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity inflows.
FDI brings in cross-border foreign equity capital.
Cross-border ownership of enterprise equity creates foreign financial assets/liabilities under the Capital Account.
4
Examine the classification of Non-Resident External (NRE) deposit balance shifts.
NRE deposits constitute banking capital liabilities.
Commercial bank deposit liabilities owed to non-residents form part of foreign banking capital under the Capital Account.

Key Concept

Classification of Economic Transactions between Current and Capital Accounts in Balance of Payments
Question 2244Question →

Regarding the constitutional provisions and legislative powers of the Union Executive of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: The President can promulgate an ordinance under Article 123 when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.; An ordinance promulgated by the President has the same force as an Act of Parliament, but it automatically ceases to operate six weeks after the reassembly of Parliament.

Answer

The correct statements are that the President can promulgate an ordinance when either House of Parliament is not in session, and that such an ordinance carries the full force of an Act of Parliament but ceases to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles.
Under Article 123 of the Constitution of India, the President can issue an ordinance when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session, because an Act cannot be passed by a single House alone. Furthermore, such an ordinance has the same effect as a parliamentary statute, but it must be submitted to Parliament upon reassembly and automatically lapses six weeks from the date of reassembly unless ratified earlier.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the session prerequisite for Ordinance Promulgation under Article 123.
Since parliamentary legislation requires concurrence from both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, Parliament is deemed unable to pass ordinary legislation if either House is prorogued or not in session.
This establishes the necessity condition allowing the President to promulgate ordinances.
2
Evaluate the legal effect and lifetime limitations of an Ordinance.
An ordinance holds identical legal force to an Act passed by Parliament, but Article 123(2)(a) mandates that it must be laid before Parliament and expires six weeks after Parliament reconvenes unless passed or disapproved sooner.
This maintains parliamentary supremacy over temporary executive lawmaking.
3
Examine the nature of presidential discretion and formal naming of executive actions under Articles 74, 77, and 123.
Ordinance power is executive-driven on the advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74, and Article 77(1) explicitly dictates that all executive actions are formally taken in the name of the President.
This invalidates assertions claiming independent presidential discretion or executive actions taken in the Prime Minister's name.

Key Concept

Ordinance-Making Power of the President (Article 123) and Conduct of Government Business (Article 77)
Question 2245Question →

Based on the Census of India 2011 data, arrange the following Indian states in descending order of their population density (number of persons per square kilometre):

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct descending sequence of states by population density according to Census 2011 is Bihar (1,106 persons/km²), West Bengal (1,028 persons/km²), Kerala (860 persons/km²), and Uttar Pradesh (829 persons/km²).
According to Census 2011, Bihar has the highest population density among all states in India with 1,106 persons/km², followed by West Bengal with 1,028 persons/km², Kerala with 860 persons/km², and Uttar Pradesh with 829 persons/km².

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Retrieve the population density figures for each listed state from the Census 2011 data.
Bihar = 1,106/km²; West Bengal = 1,028/km²; Kerala = 860/km²; Uttar Pradesh = 829/km².
Population density measures the concentration of population relative to land area (persons per square kilometre).
2
Arrange the states from highest density figure to lowest density figure.
1,106 persons/km² (Bihar) > 1,028 persons/km² (West Bengal) > 860 persons/km² (Kerala) > 829 persons/km² (Uttar Pradesh).
Ordering requires comparing the numerical density values in descending order.

Key Concept

Spatial Distribution of Population Density in India (Census 2011)
Question 2246Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the writ jurisdiction and constitutional powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts in India are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: The High Court under Article 226 has the authority to issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any ordinary legal right.; The power of judicial review of High Courts and the Supreme Court under Articles 226 and 32 forms part of the basic structure of the Constitution of India.

Answer

The correct statements are that High Courts under Article 226 can issue writs for both Fundamental Rights and ordinary legal rights, and that the power of judicial review under Articles 32 and 226 forms an essential part of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution.
High Courts under Article 226 possess broader subject-matter writ powers than the Supreme Court under Article 32 because High Courts can enforce both Fundamental Rights and ordinary legal remedies. Furthermore, judicial review under Articles 32 and 226 was definitively established as a basic structure feature of the Indian Constitution in L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the scope of High Court writ jurisdiction under Article 226 compared to Supreme Court under Article 32.
Article 226 covers Fundamental Rights and 'any other purpose' (ordinary legal rights), making its subject-matter scope wider than Article 32.
Article 32 is restricted specifically to enforcing Part III Fundamental Rights, whereas Article 226 extends to non-fundamental legal rights.
2
Examine constitutional status of judicial review under Articles 32 and 226.
The Supreme Court in L. Chandra Kumar (1997) declared judicial review under Articles 32 and 226 as part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Constitutional amendments cannot eliminate judicial review powers of the High Courts or Supreme Court.
3
Assess the nature of contempt powers under Articles 129 and 215.
Articles 129 and 215 grant inherent constitutional status to the Supreme Court and High Courts as Courts of Record with power to punish for contempt.
Statutory law (such as the Contempt of Courts Act) cannot curtail or abrogate constitutional powers vested directly by Articles 129 and 215.

Key Concept

Constitutional Jurisdiction of Supreme Court and High Courts
Question 2247Question →

Match the following Reserve Bank of India (RBI) monetary policy mechanisms and liquidity tools in List I with their corresponding statutory or operational features in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
Standing Deposit Facility (SDF)
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)

Matches

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Answer

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) matches with the mandatory cash reserve earning no interest; Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) matches with the reserve maintained in liquid assets under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) matches with the uncollateralized liquidity absorption mechanism at the LAF floor; Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) matches with the overnight penal borrowing window at the LAF ceiling.
Each instrument aligns with its exact regulatory authority and operational purpose: Cash Reserve Ratio is a non-interest-bearing cash reserve held directly with the RBI; Statutory Liquidity Ratio represents liquid assets (like G-Secs) held under the Banking Regulation Act; Standing Deposit Facility acts as the uncollateralized liquidity absorber at the corridor floor; and Marginal Standing Facility serves as the emergency penal borrowing window at the corridor ceiling.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the operational framework of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).
CRR is held exclusively in cash form directly with the Reserve Bank of India under Section 42(1) of the RBI Act, 1934, and earns no interest for commercial banks.
Establishes the distinction between CRR and other reserve ratios that allow interest-yielding assets.
2
Examine the statutory mandate of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
SLR is governed by Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, requiring banks to invest a portion of their NDTL in liquid assets like unencumbered government securities, cash, and gold.
Differentiates SLR as a self-maintained liquid asset portfolio under banking regulation law.
3
Identify the feature distinguishing Standing Deposit Facility (SDF).
Introduced as an uncollateralized liquidity absorption tool, SDF allows RBI to suck out liquidity without pledging G-Secs, serving as the floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor.
Separates SDF from collateral-backed instruments like traditional Reverse Repo.
4
Evaluate the mechanism of Marginal Standing Facility (MSF).
MSF operates as an emergency overnight window for banks facing acute liquidity shortages, allowing borrowing above the Repo rate and defining the ceiling of the LAF corridor.
Confirms MSF as the top rate of the LAF corridor.

Key Concept

RBI Monetary Policy Instruments and Liquidity Management Corridor
Question 2248Question →

Match the infrastructure project delivery and financing models in List-I with their corresponding operational features in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) Toll
Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM)
Engineering, Procurement, and Construction (EPC)
Toll-Operate-Transfer (TOT)

Matches

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Answer

Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) Toll pairs with private developer bearing traffic risk and user fee recovery; Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) pairs with 40% government grant during construction and 60% annuity payments; Engineering, Procurement, and Construction (EPC) pairs with 100% government funding and private design/construction execution; Toll-Operate-Transfer (TOT) pairs with monetization of operational public assets via upfront lump-sum payment.
Each infrastructure model correctly matches its defining financial and risk-sharing structure: BOT Toll assigns 100% traffic risk and toll collection rights to the private developer; HAM splits costs into 40% government grant and 60% annuity; EPC is fully government-funded; and TOT monetizes completed government assets via upfront concession fees.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the features of Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) Toll
Identify that BOT Toll places traffic and commercial risk on the private concessionaire who collects tolls directly.
Differentiates BOT Toll from annuity-based or government-funded contract models.
2
Analyze the financial structure of the Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM)
Identify the 40:60 risk-sharing mix (40% construction grant by authority, 60% annuity payment over time).
HAM was introduced to mitigate high commercial risks associated with BOT Toll models.
3
Examine the Engineering, Procurement, and Construction (EPC) procurement model
Confirm 100% government funding where private entities act purely as design and construction contractors.
EPC carries zero operational or traffic risk for the private contractor.
4
Examine the Toll-Operate-Transfer (TOT) asset monetization model
Match it with the leasing of already operational public road projects against an upfront concession fee.
TOT is designed to recycle government capital from completed roads into new infrastructure projects.

Key Concept

Public-Private Partnership (PPP) Models and Infrastructure Financing Mechanisms
Question 2249Question →

Regarding the physiographic characteristics of the Peninsular Plateau and Indian Islands, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Western Ghats form a continuous relief wall that is crossed mainly through mountain passes such as Thal Ghat and Bhor Ghat.; The Ten Degree Channel is a maritime water body that geographically separates the Andaman Islands group from the Nicobar Islands group.

Answer

The statements confirming that the Western Ghats form a continuous wall crossed via specific mountain passes and that the Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands are correct.
The Western Ghats are higher in average elevation (900–1600 m) and continuous, making passes such as Thal Ghat and Bhor Ghat essential for crossing. Additionally, the Ten Degree Channel situated along 10° N latitude physically separates the Andaman group of islands from the Nicobar group.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the elevation and continuity of the Western and Eastern Ghats.
The Western Ghats form an unbroken wall with an average elevation of 900–1600 meters crossed by passes like Thal Ghat and Bhor Ghat, whereas the Eastern Ghats are lower (average ~600 m) and heavily dissected by rivers.
Topographic continuity and elevation distinguish the Western Ghats as a major relief divide compared to the discontinuous Eastern Ghats.
2
Evaluate the geographical location of the Ten Degree Channel.
The Ten Degree Channel separates Little Andaman in the north from Car Nicobar in the south.
This latitudinal water gap serves as the explicit physiographic boundary separating the two island subgroups.
3
Examine the geological origin of Lakshadweep Islands.
Lakshadweep Islands are composed of biogenic coral reefs (atolls), not volcanic basaltic rocks.
Volcanic landforms in Indian island territory are confined to specific features like Barren Island in the Andaman Sea.

Key Concept

Physiographic features and structural origins of the Peninsular mountains and Indian Island territories
Question 2250Question →

Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, an Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner can be removed from office ONLY on the recommendation of which of the following constitutional authorities?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Chief Election Commissioner

Answer

The Chief Election Commissioner
Under the second proviso to Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India, an Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. This specific requirement safeguards non-chief election commissioners from arbitrary removal by the executive branch.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional provisions governing the removal procedure of Election Commissioners and Regional Commissioners.
Article 324(5) of the Constitution outlines the conditions of service and tenure safeguards for members of the Election Commission of India.
Constitutional safeguards ensure institutional independence while maintaining structural hierarchy within the commission.
2
Analyze the proviso to Article 324(5) regarding non-chief commissioners.
The second proviso to Article 324(5) mandates that any other Election Commissioner or Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
This provision prevents executive overreach and protects non-chief commissioners from arbitrary dismissal while preserving administrative cohesion.

Key Concept

Removal safeguards and procedural conditions for Election Commissioners under Article 324
Question 2251Question →

Match the endocrine glands listed in List-I with their primary secreted hormones listed in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Pancreas
Thyroid Gland
Adrenal Gland
Pituitary Gland

Matches

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Answer

Pancreas matches with Insulin, Thyroid Gland matches with Thyroxine, Adrenal Gland matches with Adrenaline, and Pituitary Gland matches with Growth Hormone.
The correct mapping pairs each gland with its principal endocrine secretion: Pancreas pairs with Insulin, Thyroid Gland pairs with Thyroxine, Adrenal Gland pairs with Adrenaline, and Pituitary Gland pairs with Growth Hormone.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary hormone secreted by the Pancreas.
The Pancreas secretes Insulin.
Insulin is produced by pancreatic beta cells to manage blood sugar.
2
Identify the primary hormone secreted by the Thyroid Gland.
The Thyroid Gland secretes Thyroxine.
Thyroxine regulates body metabolism.
3
Identify the primary hormone secreted by the Adrenal Gland.
The Adrenal Gland secretes Adrenaline.
Adrenaline is responsible for emergency stress reactions.
4
Identify the primary hormone secreted by the Pituitary Gland.
The Pituitary Gland secretes Growth Hormone.
Growth Hormone targets tissues across the body to promote growth.

Key Concept

Human Endocrine System and Hormonal Functions
Question 2252Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India:

1. It captures price variations at the bulk sale level prior to reaching retail consumers.
2. It accounts for price changes in both goods and services.
3. It is published by the Office of Economic Adviser in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
The combination indicating statements 1 and 3 only is correct because WPI measures prices at the wholesale bulk transaction level and is compiled by the Office of Economic Adviser under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Services are not included in WPI, making statement 2 false.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the transaction level of WPI.
Statement 1 is correct.
WPI tracks price changes at the first point of bulk sale in domestic markets before goods reach retail outlets.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding product coverage in the WPI commodity basket.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Unlike the Consumer Price Index (CPI), WPI covers only physical commodities (Manufactured Products, Primary Articles, Fuel & Power) and excludes services.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the compiling and releasing authority.
Statement 3 is correct.
WPI is released on a monthly basis by the Office of Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Key Concept

Wholesale Price Index (WPI) basket composition, coverage, and publishing agency
Question 2253Question →

Under the Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), what is the maximum financial health coverage provided per eligible family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: ₹5 lakh

Answer

₹5 lakh per family per year
The correct answer specifies ₹5 lakh, which is the exact cashless cover provided per eligible family per annum for secondary and tertiary healthcare under Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core financial entitlement under Ayushman Bharat - PM-JAY.
AB-PMJAY is designed to cover secondary and tertiary care hospitalization across empaneled public and private hospitals.
The government established a defined benefit cover amount to protect vulnerable families from catastrophic health expenditures.
2
Recall the exact statutory coverage ceiling per family unit.
The scheme provides a cashless and paperless benefit cover of ₹5 lakh per family per year.
The sum assured is floater-based across family members without restrictions on family size or age.

Key Concept

Financial entitlement ceiling under Ayushman Bharat - PM-JAY
Question 2254Question →

Match the physical applications and everyday observations in List-I with their underlying governing physics principles in List-II, and select the correct matching order.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Curved trajectory of a rapidly spinning ball through air during flight
Accelerated rate of cooling of hot liquid when poured into a wide saucer
Voltage transformation between isolated electrical circuits in a power transformer
High-frequency ultrasonic acoustic wave emission from a driven quartz crystal

Matches

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Answer

The curved flight of a spinning ball matches the pressure gradient from velocity variation (Magnus Effect); the accelerated cooling of liquid in a saucer matches enhanced heat loss via increased evaporative surface area; voltage step in a transformer matches EMF generation from varying magnetic flux (Faraday's Law); and ultrasonic wave emission from quartz matches lattice deformation under electrical fields (Piezoelectric Effect).
Each everyday observation maps precisely to its fundamental physical principle: spinning ball motion maps to fluid pressure gradients (Magnus Effect), liquid cooling in saucers maps to surface area dependence of evaporation, transformer operation maps to magnetic flux induction (Faraday's Law), and quartz ultrasonic generation maps to electromechanical crystal lattice distortion (Piezoelectric Effect).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze fluid dynamics of spinning bodies in motion
The air velocity relative to the ball surface is higher on one side than the other, yielding a pressure differential perpendicular to the motion axis (Magnus Effect).
Explains why spinning sports balls curve in flight.
2
Analyze thermodynamic energy transfer across phase boundaries
Evaporation rate scales directly with exposed surface area, increasing latent heat loss.
Explains why spreading a liquid over a broader area accelerates cooling.
3
Analyze electromagnetic energy transfer mechanisms
Time-varying current induces time-varying magnetic flux, which induces electromotive force in nearby coils via Faraday's Law.
Underpins contactless voltage stepping in electrical power transformers.
4
Analyze electromechanical transduction in crystalline materials
Electric potential applied across non-centrosymmetric crystals generates cyclic physical strains producing ultrasonic vibrations.
Underpins ultrasonic pulse generation using quartz transducers.

Key Concept

Interdisciplinary principles of fluid dynamics, thermodynamics, electromagnetism, and solid-state acoustics in daily technology and natural phenomena
Question 2255Question →

In a family consisting of five members—A,B,C,D,A, B, C, D, and EE—AA is the father of BB, CC is the mother of DD, BB and DD are siblings, and EE is the brother of AA. Based on the given information, how is DD related to EE?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Cannot be determined

Answer

The relationship cannot be determined because the gender of DD is not explicitly specified.
The option stating that the relationship cannot be determined is correct because DD is the child of EE's brother AA. While EE is definitely the uncle of DD, DD can be either a nephew or a niece depending on DD's gender, which is not provided.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze parentage and generation of AA, BB, CC, and DD.
AA is the father of BB, CC is the mother of DD, and BB and DD are siblings. Thus, AA and CC are married, and DD is a child of AA and CC.
Establishing the parents of DD determines DD's position in the family tree relative to AA.
2
Determine the relationship between EE and AA's children.
EE is the brother of AA. Therefore, EE is the paternal uncle of both BB and DD.
The brother of one's father is one's paternal uncle.
3
Determine the gender of DD to find DD's specific relationship to uncle EE.
No statement defines whether DD is male or female. DD could be either a nephew (male) or a niece (female) to EE.
In blood relations, gender cannot be assumed without explicit confirmation.

Key Concept

Gender Ambiguity in Kinship Puzzles
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2256Question →

In the analysis of India's external trade sector and exchange rate dynamics, the Reserve Bank of India compiles indices for the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) and the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER). Which of the following statements accurately describes the economic relationship between the REER index, domestic inflation differentials, and external trade competitiveness?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: An increase in the REER index above its base value signifies a real appreciation of the Indian Rupee, indicating a loss of international price competitiveness for Indian exports.

Answer

An increase in the REER index above its base value signifies a real appreciation of the Indian Rupee, indicating a loss of international price competitiveness for Indian exports.
The Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) measures the weighted average of a country's currency relative to an index or basket of major trading partner currencies, adjusted for inflation differentials. In the RBI's index compilation, an increase in the REER index indicates that the domestic currency is appreciating in real terms. Consequently, Indian goods become relatively more expensive abroad, which diminishes international price competitiveness.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Define the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) index formula and components.
REER is calculated as the weighted geometric average of nominal bilateral exchange rates (NEER) adjusted for price differentials between India and its trading partners: REER=NEER×(Pdomestic/Pforeign)REER = NEER \times (P_{domestic} / P_{foreign}).
Understanding the mathematical formulation clarifies how price levels and nominal exchange rates jointly determine the REER index.
2
Analyze the directional economic meaning of an increase in the REER index.
An increase in the REER index (above the base year value of 100) indicates that the domestic currency has appreciated in real terms, meaning domestic goods have become relatively more expensive compared to foreign goods.
In index construction, values exceeding 100 signify real appreciation, whereas values below 100 signify real depreciation.
3
Evaluate the impact of real currency appreciation on external trade competitiveness.
Real appreciation makes Indian export items costlier in foreign markets and imported items cheaper in domestic markets, thereby deteriorating export competitiveness and expanding the trade deficit.
Price competitiveness depends on inflation-adjusted relative prices across trading partners.

Key Concept

Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) and Trade Competitiveness
Question 2257Question →

Match the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) monetary policy mechanisms and liquidity tools in List I with their corresponding operational characteristics in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Standing Deposit Facility (SDF)
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR)
Open Market Operations (OMO) Sales

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) matches with uncollateralized liquidity absorption at the LAF floor; Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) matches with overnight borrowing at penal rates using SLR quota securities; Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) matches with fine-tuning liquidity absorption at auction rates; and OMO Sales match with outright secondary market sales for durable liquidity extraction.
Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) functions without collateral backing; Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) allows emergency overnight borrowing at a penal rate using SLR quota; Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) operates as a flexible auction-based fine-tuning mechanism; and OMO sales permanently absorb durable liquidity through outright market transactions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Standing Deposit Facility (SDF)
Identify that SDF allows RBI to absorb liquidity without binding collateral (government securities), serving as the lower bound of the LAF corridor.
SDF was specifically implemented to empower RBI to manage surplus liquidity without collateral constraints.
2
Analyze Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
Identify that MSF provides emergency overnight liquidity to banks facing severe shortfalls at a rate higher than the Repo rate, allowing a dip into SLR securities.
MSF acts as a safety valve for scheduled commercial banks beyond normal LAF limits.
3
Analyze Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR)
Identify that VRRR is a fine-tuning operation where rates are determined by competitive auctions rather than fixed rates.
RBI uses variable rate auctions (VRR/VRRR) for dynamic liquidity management.
4
Analyze Open Market Operations (OMO) Sales
Identify that outright sales of G-Secs permanently absorb primary liquidity from the market.
Unlike repos/reverse repos which are self-reversing, outright OMO transactions permanently change bank reserves.

Key Concept

Operating Framework of RBI Monetary Policy Tools and Liquidity Management Facilities
Question 2258Question →

Consider the following statements regarding Red and Yellow soils in India:

1. They develop on crystalline igneous rocks in regions of low rainfall in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan Plateau.
2. The reddish color of these soils is mainly attributed to a wide diffusion of iron oxide in crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
3. They are naturally rich in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic humus, making them highly fertile without chemical fertilizers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
The correct option identifies that Red soils develop on crystalline igneous rocks under low rainfall conditions and derive their reddish hue from diffused iron oxide, while correctly excluding the claim of high nitrogen and humus content.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding origin and distribution
Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in low rainfall tracts of the Deccan Plateau (e.g., Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, southeastern Maharashtra). Statement 1 is correct.
Verifies pedological origin and regional occurrence.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding color origin
The reddish color is caused by the diffusion of iron oxide in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form. Statement 2 is correct.
Verifies chemical composition responsible for coloration.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding chemical/nutrient composition
Red soils are generally deficient in nitrogen, phosphoric acid, organic matter (humus), and lime. They are typically poorly fertile unless supplemented with fertilizers and irrigation. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Verifies fertility profile and nutrient deficiencies.

Key Concept

Pedological characteristics, distribution, and nutrient profile of Red and Yellow soils in India
Question 2259Question →

Surface tension is an important property of liquids observed in daily life. Which of the following everyday phenomena are directly caused by surface tension? Select all the correct statements.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Raindrops acquiring a spherical shape as they fall; Small insects like water striders walking across the surface of a pond

Answer

Raindrops forming spherical shapes and water striders walking on water surfaces are both direct manifestations of liquid surface tension.
Raindrops acquiring a spherical shape and small insects walking on water are both direct manifestations of surface tension. Cohesive forces draw surface liquid molecules inward, giving droplets a minimal surface area shape (a sphere) and creating a tensile film strong enough to support small insects.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Define surface tension and identify its physical characteristics.
Surface tension is the tendency of liquid surfaces at rest to shrink into the minimum surface area possible owing to cohesive forces among molecules.
Understanding the fundamental cause of surface tension helps evaluate its everyday effects.
2
Evaluate the choices related to fluid behavior.
A sphere has the minimum surface area for a given volume, so falling raindrops become spherical. Cohesive forces also create a surface layer that supports light objects such as water striders.
Both behaviors minimize surface energy and demonstrate surface tension.
3
Evaluate optical choices.
The apparent bending of objects in water and road mirages are optical phenomena driven by light refraction and total internal reflection.
These effects depend on light propagation speeds through different media, not cohesive liquid forces.

Key Concept

Surface tension in liquids due to intermolecular cohesive forces
Question 2260Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP) used in poverty estimation in India:

1. Consumer expenditure data for high-frequency consumption items such as edible oil, vegetables, and spices are recorded using a 7-day recall period.
2. Expenditure on low-frequency items such as clothing, footwear, and durable goods is recorded using a 365-day recall period.
3. The Rangarajan Committee (2014) rejected the MMRP methodology and recommended reverting strictly to the 30-day Uniform Reference Period (URP).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The option selecting '1 and 2 only' is correct because under MMRP, high-frequency food items use a 7-day recall period and low-frequency non-food items use a 365-day recall period. Furthermore, the Rangarajan Committee supported MMRP rather than reverting to URP, making statement 3 false.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding recall periods for high-frequency items.
Statement 1 is correct. MMRP records expenditure on 5 high-frequency food items (vegetables, fruits, edible oil, egg/fish/meat, and spices) over a 7-day recall period.
A 7-day window minimizes recall decay for daily consumption items.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding recall periods for low-frequency items.
Statement 2 is correct. Low-frequency items (clothing, footwear, education, medical expenses, durable goods) are recorded over a 365-day recall period.
An annual recall period prevents seasonal skewing in expenditure calculations.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the Rangarajan Committee recommendation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Rangarajan Committee (2014) explicitly adopted MMRP as the standard methodology, deeming it superior to URP and MRP.
MMRP captures realistic household consumption patterns across varied expenditure frequencies.

Key Concept

Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP) in Poverty Estimation
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