Examkin

All practice questions

4581 questions

All types4,581Multiple choice2,372Multiple select712True / False174Numeric188Matching670Ordering415Fill in the blank20Short answer30
Question 2261Question →

Match the Sufi orders (Silsilas) in medieval India listed in List I with their corresponding prominent spiritual masters listed in List II. Which of the following pairings correctly matches each Sufi Silsila to its exponent?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Suhrawardi Silsila
Naqshbandi Silsila
Firdausi Silsila
Qadiriyya Silsila

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct association pairs Suhrawardi Silsila with Bahauddin Zakariya, Naqshbandi Silsila with Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi, Firdausi Silsila with Shaikh Sharfuddin Yahya Maneri, and Qadiriyya Silsila with Mian Mir.
The correct alignment correctly pairs Suhrawardi Silsila with Bahauddin Zakariya who centered his activities in Multan; Naqshbandi Silsila with Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi, a major 17th-century reformer; Firdausi Silsila with Shaikh Sharfuddin Yahya Maneri who worked extensively in Bihar; and Qadiriyya Silsila with Mian Mir, a respected Sufi mystic of Lahore.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the founder and key regional center of Suhrawardi Silsila in India
Suhrawardi Silsila was founded in India by Sheikh Bahauddin Zakariya in Multan.
This establishes the first pair.
2
Identify the leading exponent of Naqshbandi Silsila in the late 16th and early 17th centuries
Naqshbandi Silsila was led and popularized by Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
This establishes the second pair.
3
Identify the key master associated with Firdausi Silsila in Bihar
Firdausi Silsila, a branch of the Suhrawardi order, was actively popularized in Bihar by Shaikh Sharfuddin Yahya Maneri.
This establishes the third pair.
4
Identify the prominent master of the Qadiriyya Silsila associated with Dara Shikoh
Qadiriyya Silsila in India counted Mian Mir of Lahore as one of its most revered spiritual leaders.
This establishes the fourth pair.

Key Concept

Sufi Orders (Silsilas) and Spiritual Masters in Medieval India
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2262Question →

Which of the following financial transactions are correctly classified under the Current Account of India's Balance of Payments (BoP)? Select all correct options.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Interest income received by domestic financial institutions on investments made abroad; Unilateral personal remittances sent by non-resident Indian workers to families in India

Answer

Interest income received on foreign investments and unilateral personal remittances from non-resident workers are classified under the Current Account.
In Balance of Payments framework, the Current Account covers international transactions in goods, services, primary income (which includes investment returns such as interest, profits, and dividends), and secondary income (which includes personal remittances and unrequited transfers). Therefore, interest income earned from foreign investments and personal remittances received from overseas workers are both current account transactions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the sub-components of the Current Account in Balance of Payments accounting.
The Current Account consists of visible trade (goods balance), invisible trade (services balance), primary income (compensation of employees and investment income like interest, profit, dividends), and secondary income (unilateral transfers like remittances, gifts, and grants).
Current account entries reflect net income generated and unrequited transfers that do not directly alter cross-border financial claim liabilities.
2
Identify the sub-components of the Capital Account.
The Capital Account includes foreign direct investment (FDI), foreign portfolio investment (FPI), external commercial borrowings (ECBs), foreign central bank loans, and banking capital (including NRI deposits).
Capital account transactions directly involve changes in international asset ownership or debt liability claims.
3
Evaluate the given choices against BoP accounting classifications.
Interest income on foreign investments (primary income) and personal worker remittances (secondary income) belong to the Current Account, whereas External Commercial Borrowings and Foreign Direct Investment belong to the Capital Account.
Matching each item to its respective BoP category confirms the correct choices.

Key Concept

Distinction between Balance of Payments Current Account (goods, services, primary and secondary income) and Capital Account (FDI, FPI, ECBs, banking capital).
Question 2263Question →

Under Article 74(1) of the Constitution of India, as amended by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, which of the following statements correctly describes the constitutional position of the President regarding the advice tendered by the Union Council of Ministers?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, but must act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.

Answer

The President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, but must act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.
The correct option accurately states the proviso added to Article 74(1) by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978. While the President can request the Council of Ministers to reconsider their advice, the President must act according to the advice tendered after such reconsideration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core constitutional provision being tested.
Article 74(1) governs the executive relation between the President and the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
Understanding the scope of ministerial advice is essential to understanding the parliamentary form of government in India.
2
Analyze the impact of key Constitutional Amendment Acts.
The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) made Cabinet advice strictly binding on the President. The 44th Amendment Act (1978) introduced a proviso allowing the President to return advice once for reconsideration.
The 44th Amendment restored a limited check by giving the President one-time suspensive power to request reconsideration.
3
Evaluate the binding nature post-reconsideration.
Once the Council of Ministers reconsider the advice and resubmit it (whether modified or unchanged), the President is constitutionally obligated to accept it.
This maintains the supremacy of the elected Council of Ministers responsible to the Lok Sabha.

Key Concept

Presidential Obligation to Ministerial Advice under Article 74
Question 2264Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional funds of the Union Government of India:

1. All revenues received by the Government of India, treasury bills issued, and receipts from the recovery of loans form part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. Payments and executive disbursements out of the Public Account of India require prior parliamentary appropriation under Article 266(2).
3. The Contingency Fund of India is placed at the disposal of the President of India to enable advances for meeting unforeseen expenditure pending parliamentary authorization.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

The statements asserting that the Consolidated Fund includes revenues and loan recoveries, and that the Contingency Fund is placed at the disposal of the President, are correct.
Statement 1 is accurate because Article 266(1) mandates that all revenue, borrowings, and loan repayments belong to the Consolidated Fund of India. Statement 3 is accurate because Article 267(1) establishes the Contingency Fund under the President's authority to cover urgent, unforeseen expenditure pending legislative approval. Statement 2 is inaccurate because the Public Account of India (Article 266(2)) handles fiduciary/banking transactions (such as Provident Fund deposits) which are executed by administrative action without needing parliamentary appropriation laws.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the composition of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Statement 1 is correct under Article 266(1) of the Constitution of India, which specifies that all revenues received, money raised by loans/treasury bills, and loan recovery receipts credit into the Consolidated Fund.
It forms the primary operational fund of the Union Government.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding parliamentary appropriation for the Public Account of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect under Article 266(2). Payments from the Public Account relate to banking-type transactions (e.g., provident funds, judicial deposits, national small savings fund) and are operated by executive action without requiring parliamentary approval.
The government acts merely as a trustee or banker for public account funds.
3
Examine Statement 3 regarding the nature and operating authority of the Contingency Fund of India.
Statement 3 is correct under Article 267(1). The fund is placed at the disposal of the President of India (held on their behalf by the Finance Secretary) to meet emergency or unforeseen expenditures before Parliament formalizes the outlay through supplementary demands.
It ensures the executive has immediate liquidity in emergencies without violating constitutional norms.

Key Concept

Constitutional Funds of the Union Government (Consolidated Fund, Public Account, and Contingency Fund)
Question 2265Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan-Dhan Yojana (PM-KMY):

1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented on a 60:40 fund-sharing pattern between the Central and State Governments.
2. Small and marginal farmers holding cultivable land up to 2 hectares between the entry age of 18 to 40 years are eligible to enroll.
3. The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) serves as the designated Pension Fund Manager for managing the pension fund payouts.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The PM-KMY offers a minimum assured monthly pension of ₹3,000 to small and marginal farmers (owning land up to 2 hectares) upon attaining 60 years of age, provided they enroll between 18 and 40 years. LIC administers the pension fund management. Statement 1 is incorrect because the scheme is a 100% Central Sector Scheme fully funded by the Central Government.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the administrative and financial structure of PM-KMY.
Statement 1 is incorrect because PM-KMY is a Central Sector Scheme (100% funded by the Central Government through the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare), not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme requiring a 60:40 state matching contribution.
Central Sector Schemes are fully funded from the Union budget, whereas Centrally Sponsored Schemes involve cost-sharing with states.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding beneficiary eligibility criteria.
Statement 2 is correct. Small and Marginal Farmers (SMFs) owning cultivable land up to 2 hectares as per land records of the concerned State/UT, aged between 18 and 40 years, are eligible to join the voluntary, contributory pension scheme.
The entry age bracket (18–40 years) and maximum landholding cap (2 hectares) define the target beneficiary group for PM-KMY.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the institutional pension manager.
Statement 3 is correct. The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) acts as the Pension Fund Manager and is responsible for managing subscriber accounts and disbursing monthly pensions upon beneficiaries turning 60.
LIC handles fund management and monthly pension payouts of ₹3,000 under the scheme.

Key Concept

Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan-Dhan Yojana (PM-KMY) Institutional Architecture and Eligibility
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2266Question →

In a state administration academy, a cohort of 150150 officer trainees completed specialized skill modules in Artificial Intelligence (AA), Blockchain Technology (BB), and Cyber Security (CC). Data from the academy administration indicates:
- 7575 trainees enrolled in Artificial Intelligence (AA)
- 6565 trainees enrolled in Blockchain Technology (BB)
- 6060 trainees enrolled in Cyber Security (CC)
- 3030 trainees enrolled in both Artificial Intelligence and Blockchain Technology
- 2525 trainees enrolled in both Blockchain Technology and Cyber Security
- 2020 trainees enrolled in both Artificial Intelligence and Cyber Security
- 1010 trainees enrolled in all three modules

Based on the provided data, which of the following statements regarding the trainee enrollment are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The total number of trainees enrolled in exactly one training module is 8080.; The total number of trainees enrolled in at least two training modules is 5555.

Answer

The statements asserting that 8080 trainees are enrolled in exactly one training module and that 5555 trainees are enrolled in at least two training modules are correct.
The correct evaluation shows that exactly one module enrollment totals 35+20+25=8035 + 20 + 25 = 80, and at least two modules enrollment totals 45+10=5545 + 10 = 55.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the region for trainees taking all three modules.
n(A∩B∩C)=10n(A \cap B \cap C) = 10.
This fundamental triple intersection value must be subtracted from pairwise intersections to isolate dual-module regions.
2
Calculate trainees enrolled in exactly two modules.
Only A and B=30−10=20A \text{ and } B = 30 - 10 = 20; Only B and C=25−10=15B \text{ and } C = 25 - 10 = 15; Only A and C=20−10=10A \text{ and } C = 20 - 10 = 10. Total taking exactly two modules = 20+15+10=4520 + 15 + 10 = 45.
Subtracting the triple intersection isolates individuals taking exclusively two subjects.
3
Calculate trainees enrolled in exactly one module.
Only A=75−(20+10+10)=35A = 75 - (20 + 10 + 10) = 35; Only B=65−(20+15+10)=20B = 65 - (20 + 15 + 10) = 20; Only C=60−(10+15+10)=25C = 60 - (10 + 15 + 10) = 25. Total taking exactly one module = 35+20+25=8035 + 20 + 25 = 80.
Subtracting dual and triple overlaps from total single set numbers yields single-module counts.
4
Determine total trainees taking at least one module and trainees taking none.
Total taking at least one module =80 (single)+45 (double)+10 (triple)=135= 80 \text{ (single)} + 45 \text{ (double)} + 10 \text{ (triple)} = 135. Trainees taking none =150−135=15= 150 - 135 = 15.
Applying set summation gives total enrolled trainees, from which the non-enrolled count is derived.

Key Concept

Three-Set Venn Diagram Region Decomposition using Inclusion-Exclusion Principle
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2267Question →

Consider the following statements regarding early medieval rock-cut architectural traditions in the Deccan:

1. The Kailashanatha temple at Ellora (Cave 16) was excavated monolithically from top to bottom out of a single basalt rock face under the patronage of the Rashtrakuta ruler Krishna I.
2. The Ravana Phadi cave at Aihole is one of the earliest rock-cut shrines carved under the Western Chalukyas of Badami, featuring notable relief sculptures of Shiva as Nataraja.
3. The Ravana Phadi cave architecture is constructed using dressed ashlar masonry with lime mortar to form a soaring curvilinear Nagara shikhara.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because Ravana Phadi is a monolithic rock-cut cave temple, not a structural masonry building with lime mortar.
The statement asserting that Kailashanatha at Ellora was carved top-to-bottom under Rashtrakuta ruler Krishna I is historically precise. Likewise, the statement noting Ravana Phadi at Aihole as an early Western Chalukyan rock-cut shrine with Nataraja sculptures is accurate. Conversely, describing Ravana Phadi as a structural masonry building with a curvilinear shikhara misidentifies a rock-cut cave as structural architecture.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1
Statement 1 is correct. The Kailashanatha temple (Cave 16, Ellora) is a famous monolithic rock-cut structure carved downward from the living rock under Rashtrakuta king Krishna I (8th century CE).
Verifying patronage and construction methodology for Ellora Cave 16.
2
Analyze Statement 2
Statement 2 is correct. Ravana Phadi at Aihole is an early 6th-century rock-cut cave commissioned during the Early Western Chalukya period, containing distinct sculptures of ten-armed Nataraja and Saptamatrikas.
Verifying site attributes and artistic features of Ravana Phadi.
3
Analyze Statement 3
Statement 3 is incorrect. Ravana Phadi is an excavated rock-cut cave, not a structural temple constructed with ashlar masonry, mortar, or a superstructure shikhara.
Distinguishing between rock-cut excavation and structural masonry techniques.

Key Concept

Deccan Rock-Cut Architecture (Rashtrakutas and Early Western Chalukyas)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2268Question →

Arrange the following prominent Bhakti movement philosophers and saints in correct chronological order of their historical period, from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is Adi Shankaracharya (8th century CE), Ramanujacharya (11th–12th century CE), Basavanna (12th century CE), and Sant Kabir (15th century CE).
Chronologically, Adi Shankaracharya (8th century CE) came first, followed by Ramanujacharya (11th–12th century CE), then Basavanna (12th century CE), and finally Sant Kabir (15th century CE).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the historical era of Adi Shankaracharya
Adi Shankaracharya lived in the 8th century CE (c. 788–820 CE), consolidating Advaita Vedanta philosophy.
Establishes the earliest anchor point in the timeline.
2
Identify the historical era of Ramanujacharya
Ramanujacharya lived during the 11th–12th century CE (c. 1017–1137 CE), championing Vishishtadvaita.
Places Ramanujacharya immediately following Adi Shankaracharya.
3
Identify the historical era of Basavanna
Basavanna flourished in the mid-12th century CE (c. 1134–1196 CE) during the Kalachuri reign in Karnataka.
Positions Basavanna in the 12th century after Ramanujacharya.
4
Identify the historical era of Sant Kabir
Sant Kabir lived in the 15th century CE (c. 1398–1518 CE) during the Delhi Sultanate era.
Establishes Kabir as the latest among the given Bhakti figures.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of Bhakti thinkers and socio-religious reformers in medieval India
Question 2269Question →

With reference to the Appellate Jurisdiction and Special Leave Petitions (SLP) under Article 136 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence, or order in any cause or matter passed by any court or tribunal in the territory of India.
2. The provisions of Article 136 do not apply to any judgment, determination, sentence, or order passed by any court or tribunal constituted under any law relating to the Armed Forces.
3. Special Leave Petitions can only be entertained against final orders of a High Court and cannot be granted against interlocutory or interim orders.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The correct option is the one stating that only 1 and 2 are correct. Article 136(1) authorizes the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal against any judgment, decree, determination, or order of any court or tribunal in India. Article 136(2) explicitly excludes military tribunals from this provision. Statement 3 is false because Article 136 extends to both final and interlocutory/interim orders.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the scope of Article 136(1)
Article 136(1) gives plenary discretionary power to the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence, or order in any cause or matter passed by any court or tribunal in India.
This establishes the wide constitutional scope of Special Leave Petitions.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the exception under Article 136(2)
Article 136(2) explicitly states that Article 136(1) shall not apply to any judgment, determination, sentence, or order passed by any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces.
Courts-martial and military tribunals are specifically exempted from Article 136 jurisdiction.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding final versus interlocutory orders
Article 136 applies to 'any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order', which means it covers both final judgments as well as interlocutory orders.
Unlike regular constitutional appeals under Articles 132 or 133 which require final orders, Article 136 is an extraordinary discretionary remedy not limited to final orders.

Key Concept

Discretionary Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 136 (Special Leave Petition)
Question 2270Question →

Regarding the Bombay Presidency Association established in 1885 prior to the first session of the Indian National Congress, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It was founded by Pherozeshah Mehta, K. T. Telang, and Badruddin Tyabji to represent public opinion in western India.; Its formation was largely influenced by reaction against Lord Lytton's imperial policies and the agitation surrounding the Ilbert Bill.

Answer

The statements confirming that the Bombay Presidency Association was founded by Pherozeshah Mehta, K. T. Telang, and Badruddin Tyabji, and that its formation was influenced by opposition to Lord Lytton's policies and the Ilbert Bill controversy are correct.
The Bombay Presidency Association was established in January 1885 by Pherozeshah Mehta, K. T. Telang, and Badruddin Tyabji in response to colonial grievances stemming from Lord Lytton's administration and the Ilbert Bill controversy. The early nationalists aimed at civic awareness, constitutional rights, and legislative representation through organized public advocacy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the leadership and founding details of the Bombay Presidency Association.
Identify that Pherozeshah Mehta, K. T. Telang, and Badruddin Tyabji founded the association in January 1885.
This confirms the accuracy of the statement regarding its founding leadership.
2
Examine the political context leading to its establishment in 1885.
Recognize that reaction to Lord Lytton's policies (Vernacular Press Act, Arms Act) and the Ilbert Bill agitation galvanized Bombay leaders into establishing a structured association.
This validates the statement concerning its political impetus.
3
Evaluate the political goals and statutory nature of early pre-INC associations.
Distinguish early constitutional/administrative demands from later radical demands (Purna Swaraj, 1929) and clarify that it was an independent political association rather than a government council under the Indian Councils Act.
This confirms that the remaining two statements are incorrect.

Key Concept

Founding of pre-Congress political associations and early nationalist mobilization in 19th-century India
Question 2271Question →

With regard to the mechanics of territorial division during the transfer of power in 1947, consider the following statements regarding the Boundary Commissions:

1. Two separate Boundary Commissions were established for Punjab and Bengal, both headed by Sir Cyril Radcliffe as Chairman.
2. The terms of reference instructed the Commissions to demarcate boundaries based on contiguous majority areas of Muslims and non-Muslims, while also taking into account 'other factors'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both 1 and 2 are correct.
The answer stating that both statements are correct is accurate because in June 1947, two Boundary Commissions were established—one for Bengal and one for Punjab—each consisting of four judges (two nominated by Congress and two by the Muslim League) with Sir Cyril Radcliffe serving as the common Chairman. Furthermore, their official mandate specified demarcating boundaries based on contiguous religious majority areas as well as incorporating 'other factors' like canal systems, railway lines, and socio-economic geography.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the leadership and structure of the Boundary Commissions.
Confirm that two separate commissions (one for Punjab and one for Bengal) were appointed on June 30, 1947, with Sir Cyril Radcliffe serving as the joint Chairman of both.
Establishing the leadership structure is essential to evaluating historical administrative setups during partition.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the terms of reference of the Boundary Commissions.
Confirm that the commissions were explicitly directed to demarcate boundaries on the basis of ascertaining contiguous majority areas of Muslims and non-Muslims, and in doing so, to take into account 'other factors' (such as natural boundaries, communication networks, and irrigation canals).
Understanding the terms of reference explains how partition lines were determined.
3
Combine the evaluations to select the correct choice.
Since both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are accurate, the option stating 'Both 1 and 2' is correct.
Both statements reflect historical facts surrounding the 1947 partition mechanism.

Key Concept

Radcliffe Boundary Commissions of 1947 and their Terms of Reference
Question 2272Question →

With reference to the structural accounting of India's Balance of Payments (BoP), consider the following international transactions:

1. Profit repatriated by a multinational enterprise operating in India to its corporate headquarters abroad
2. Unilateral financial grants received by India from a foreign sovereign government for disaster rehabilitation
3. Portfolio investment in equity shares of Indian companies by foreign portfolio investors (FPIs)
4. Inward monetary remittances sent by non-resident Indian workers to their resident families

Which of the transactions listed above are categorized under the Current Account of the Balance of Payments?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer

The transactions classified under the Current Account are 1, 2, and 4 only.
The Current Account of the Balance of Payments records cross-border trade in goods (merchandise), trade in services, primary income (compensation of employees and investment income like profits, dividends, and interest), and secondary income (unilateral transfers such as personal worker remittances and sovereign grants). Profit repatriation by multinational enterprises represents an investment income outflow (primary income debit), while unilateral foreign grants and worker remittances represent transfer credit entries (secondary income). Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI), by contrast, changes external financial liability holdings and belongs to the Capital/Financial Account.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Transaction 1 (Profit Repatriation)
Categorized under Current Account (Primary Income / Investment Income debit entry).
Earnings on cross-border investments, including profit, dividends, and interest, are part of the Primary Income account within the Current Account.
2
Analyze Transaction 2 (Unilateral Foreign Grants)
Categorized under Current Account (Secondary Income / Transfers credit entry).
Government-to-government official grants for assistance or disaster relief represent unrequited transfers without any reciprocal repayment obligation, belonging to Secondary Income.
3
Analyze Transaction 3 (Foreign Portfolio Investment)
Categorized under Capital Account (Financial Account / Foreign Investment).
Transactions in domestic shares, bonds, or financial instruments by foreign investors change the international investment position and financial liability status of the nation, belonging strictly to the Capital Account.
4
Analyze Transaction 4 (Worker Remittances)
Categorized under Current Account (Secondary Income / Transfers credit entry).
Personal transfers sent by non-resident workers to domestic households represent private unilateral transfers, recorded as invisibles under the Current Account.

Key Concept

Balance of Payments (BoP) Account Classification: Current Account vs. Capital Account
Question 2273Question →

In the demographic study of population mobility in India, internal migration is classified into four intra-state and inter-state streams based on origin and destination. According to the Census of India, which migration stream accounts for the largest overall volume of internal migrants, predominantly driven by female movement due to post-marital residence change?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Rural to Rural stream

Answer

Rural to Rural stream
The correct option correctly identifies the Rural to Rural stream. According to Census data in India, internal migration is heavily dominated by female movement associated with marriage. Because the vast majority of the Indian population resides in rural areas, short-distance village-to-village relocation following marriage makes the Rural to Rural stream the single largest category of internal migration in the country.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the four census streams of internal migration in India
Internal migration is divided into: Rural to Rural, Rural to Urban, Urban to Urban, and Urban to Rural.
Understanding stream volumes requires evaluating migration drivers across gender and spatial boundaries.
2
Identify the primary driver of high-volume female migration in India
Marriage is the single main cause for female migration in India, leading to exogamous rural-to-rural movement.
In Indian society, patrilocal post-marital residence rules cause widespread short-distance movement of women from their natal rural homes to their husbands' rural homes.
3
Determine the dominant stream in terms of total migrant numbers
The Rural to Rural stream accounts for over half of total internal migrants, making it the largest stream overall.
Although male economic migration heavily fuels the Rural to Urban stream, total numerical volume across the country is dominated by female marriage-related Rural to Rural migration.

Key Concept

Streams and Determinants of Internal Migration in India
Question 2274Question →

Match each Constitutional Body listed in Column A with its primary constitutional mandate and governing Article specified in Column B. Which of the following combinations correctly pairs every constitutional body with its official provision?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Finance Commission of India
Election Commission of India
Union Public Service Commission

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The Comptroller and Auditor General corresponds to Article 148 (Auditing accounts), the Finance Commission corresponds to Article 280 (Distribution of tax proceeds), the Election Commission corresponds to Article 324 (Superintendence of elections), and the Union Public Service Commission corresponds to Article 315 (Conducting civil service examinations).
Each body is correctly mapped to its principal constitutional article: CAG to Article 148, Finance Commission to Article 280, Election Commission to Article 324, and UPSC to Article 315.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional article and primary mandate of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
Article 148 provides for the CAG as the guardian of the public purse responsible for auditing Union and State expenditures.
Establishes the link between CAG and Article 148.
2
Identify the constitutional article and role of the Finance Commission.
Article 280 mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission to recommend fiscal devolution.
Establishes the link between Finance Commission and Article 280.
3
Identify the constitutional provision for the Election Commission.
Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of parliamentary and state elections in the Election Commission.
Establishes the link between Election Commission and Article 324.
4
Identify the constitutional basis for the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
Article 315 provides for Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States.
Establishes the link between UPSC and Article 315.

Key Concept

Articles and Mandates of Major Indian Constitutional Bodies
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2275Question →

Malaria remains a major public health concern in many tropical and subtropical regions. Which of the following microorganisms is the actual causative pathogen responsible for malaria in humans?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Plasmodium parasite

Answer

The causative pathogen responsible for malaria in humans is the Plasmodium parasite.
The Plasmodium parasite is the single-celled protozoan that invades human erythrocytes and liver cells, causing malaria.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Distinguish between a disease pathogen (the organism causing illness) and a vector (the organism transporting the pathogen).
Plasmodium is identified as the microscopic pathogen, while mosquitoes serve as vectors.
Medical parasitology categorizes infectious diseases by their etiological microbe.
2
Identify the specific microorganism causing malaria.
Plasmodium species (such as P. falciparum and P. vivax) are protozoan parasites responsible for malarial infection.
Female Anopheles mosquitoes only inject Plasmodium sporozoites into the host during a blood meal.

Key Concept

Distinction between infectious pathogens and disease vectors in human health
Question 2276Question →

Match the WTO agricultural subsidy categories in List-I with their corresponding economic features in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Green Box Subsidies
Amber Box Subsidies
Blue Box Subsidies

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Green Box Subsidies match with minimal or non-trade distorting measures exempt from limits; Amber Box Subsidies match with trade-distorting support subject to reduction targets; Blue Box Subsidies match with direct payments tied to production-limiting programs.
Green Box subsidies cause minimal or no trade distortion and are exempt from limits. Amber Box subsidies are trade-distorting measures like MSP and input subsidies subject to limits. Blue Box subsidies are payments tied to production-limiting plans.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the definition of Green Box subsidies under WTO framework.
Green Box covers government assistance like agricultural research and disease control that does not distort trade.
This establishes the pair between Green Box Subsidies and non-trade-distorting policies.
2
Identify the definition of Amber Box subsidies.
Amber Box includes direct support such as procurement price guarantees and subsidized inputs that directly influence market prices and production.
This establishes the pair between Amber Box Subsidies and trade-distorting measures.
3
Identify the definition of Blue Box subsidies.
Blue Box represents direct payments made to farmers conditional on limiting agricultural production.
This completes the matching logic for all three subsidy categories.

Key Concept

WTO Domestic Support Categories (Green, Amber, and Blue Boxes)
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2277Question →

With reference to the relief and structural physiography of the Peninsular Plateau of India, which of the following statements correctly describes the arrangement and structural features of the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Narmada River flows westward through a linear rift valley formed by block faulting, situated between the Vindhya Range to its north and the Satpura Range to its south.

Answer

The statement accurately describing the relief is that the Narmada River flows westward through a linear rift valley formed by block faulting, situated between the Vindhya Range to its north and the Satpura Range to its south.
The Central Highlands of Peninsular India are characterized by block faulting. The Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south act as horst structures enclosing the Narmada graben (rift valley), through which the Narmada River flows westward into the Arabian Sea.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical relative orientation of the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges in Central India.
The Vindhya Range lies to the north of the Satpura Range.
Establishing north-to-south spatial sequence is necessary to evaluate physiographic relations.
2
Examine the linear drainage and structural trough lying between these two ranges.
The Narmada River occupies the fault-trough (graben) formed by parallel block faulting between the Vindhyas (north scarp) and Satpuras (south horst).
Relief features in Central India are largely governed by tectonic rift systems.
3
Evaluate the distractors against known spatial orientations and geological mechanisms.
The Tapi flows south of the Satpuras, Satpura is south (not north) of Vindhya, and the rift is in the Central Highlands (not Eastern Ghats).
Eliminating false directional and regional mismatches leads strictly to the correct statement.

Key Concept

Rift Valleys and Block Mountains of the Peninsular Plateau
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2278Question →

In the accounting framework of India's Balance of Payments (BoP) maintained by the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements regarding transaction classifications:

1. Interest payments made by domestic corporate entities on External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) are recorded as debit entries under the Primary Income (Investment Income) component of the Current Account.
2. Repayment of the principal debt amount of External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) to non-resident lenders is recorded as a debit entry under the Capital Account.
3. Personal worker remittances received by resident households from relatives working abroad are recorded as credit entries under the Capital Account.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Interest paid on external loans (ECBs) is classified under Primary Income (Investment Income) as a debit entry in the Current Account because it represents payment for the service of borrowed capital. Principal repayments reduce external liability and are debit entries in the Capital Account. Statement 3 is incorrect because personal worker remittances are unrequited transfers classified under Secondary Income (Current Account) as credit entries, not in the Capital Account.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding interest payments on External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
Interest payments represent factor income paid for using cross-border debt capital. Servicing debt (interest) is part of Primary Income / Investment Income under Invisibles in the Current Account. Because foreign currency leaves the domestic economy, it is recorded as a debit entry.
Current account covers trade in goods, services, primary income (compensation and investment income), and secondary income.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding principal debt repayments on ECBs.
Repayment of principal borrowing reduces foreign debt liability. Changes in foreign financial assets and liabilities are recorded in the Capital/Financial Account. Outflow of capital to discharge principal liability is recorded as a debit entry under the Capital Account.
Capital account reflects changes in ownership of national financial assets and external liabilities.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding personal worker remittances.
Unilateral transfer payments such as worker remittances involve no economic quid pro quo and fall under Secondary Income (Invisibles) in the Current Account. Incoming remittances from abroad increase current receipts and are recorded as credit entries under the Current Account, NOT the Capital Account.
Misclassifying unrequited transfer receipts into the capital account violates standard Balance of Payments accounting rules (IMF BPM6 manual).

Key Concept

Classification of economic transactions into Current Account (Invisibles: Primary & Secondary Income) versus Capital Account (External Borrowings & Debt Servicing) in Balance of Payments accounting.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2279Question →

With reference to price indices and monetary policy tools in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures price changes strictly for goods and excludes the service sector, whereas the Consumer Price Index (CPI Combined) includes both goods and services.
2. The relative weightage assigned to food items is higher in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) basket than in the Consumer Price Index (CPI Combined) basket.
3. An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by the Reserve Bank of India increases the lendable capacity of commercial banks, thereby expanding market liquidity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

Only statement 1 is correct.
The statement specifying that WPI excludes services while CPI Combined includes both goods and services is accurate. WPI measures wholesale price changes of physical goods, whereas CPI Combined accounts for retail prices paid by end consumers, including key service sectors. The claim regarding food weightage is false because food accounts for nearly 46% of CPI Combined, compared to around 24% in WPI. The claim regarding CRR is also false because raising CRR absorbs liquidity from commercial banks rather than expanding it.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding coverage of services in WPI versus CPI.
Statement 1 is correct.
WPI tracks bulk transaction prices of tangible manufactured, primary, and fuel goods and completely excludes services. CPI Combined captures retail consumption and incorporates services like housing, medical care, and transport.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding food group weightage in CPI vs WPI.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Food & Beverages constitute approximately 45.86% of the CPI Combined basket to reflect household expenditure patterns. In contrast, the food group in WPI (Food Articles under Primary Articles + Food Products under Manufactured Products) accounts for around 24.38% of the total basket.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the monetary transmission of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the specified percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that banks must keep as cash reserves with the RBI. Raising the CRR locks up more funds with the central bank, diminishing banks' loanable resources and tightening market liquidity.

Key Concept

Structural differences between CPI and WPI (service inclusion and basket weightages) and the liquidity impact of quantitative monetary instruments like CRR.
Question 2280Question →

You are serving as a District Magistrate supervising a critical municipal bypass construction project. An unauthorized, unregistered community shrine situated on public land directly obstructs the planned road alignment. While a private developer offers to quietly dismantle the structure overnight using private security to avoid public unrest, local community representatives threaten widespread agitation if the shrine is disturbed, and a local commuter action group demands immediate forced clearance using district police forces to adhere to strict project deadlines. Which of the following represents the most ethically sound and administratively appropriate course of action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Convene a joint consultation with community elders, local civil society representatives, and project engineers to negotiate a mutually agreed relocation of the shrine to adjacent public land with municipal assistance, maintaining transparent public communication throughout.

Answer

The administrator should convene a joint consultation with community elders, civil society representatives, and engineers to negotiate a peaceful relocation of the shrine to adjacent public land, backed by transparent communication.
The choice advocating joint consultation, negotiated relocation to adjacent public land, and transparent public communication represents the ideal administrative response. It adheres to constitutional values, demonstrates administrative empathy and leadership, maintains law and order through dialogue, and preserves public interest by keeping the infrastructure project viable.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the administrative dilemma and legal/ethical tensions.
Identified competing demands: infrastructure delivery vs. community sentiment vs. rule of law.
Civil servants must balance public utility with social harmony through constitutional methods.
2
Evaluate courses of action against principles of administrative propriety, proportionality, due process, and public trust.
Forced demolition, privatization of enforcement, or project abandonment fail ethical and procedural tests.
Administrative decisions must be proportional, legally transparent, and publicly accountable.
3
Select the optimal course of action involving negotiation, relocation assistance, and open dialogue.
Achieves project completion while respecting community sentiment and preventing civil unrest.
Consensus-building combined with administrative support ensures sustainable infrastructure development without compromising social cohesion.

Key Concept

Administrative Propriety and Ethical Stakeholder Negotiation
PreviousPage 114 / 230Next
All practice questions — State PSC Exam | Examkin