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4581 questions

Question 2401Question

Match the non-constitutional statutory bodies listed in List-I with their corresponding parent governing enactments in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
Central Information Commission (CIC)
Competition Commission of India (CCI)
National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC)

Matches

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Answer

Central Vigilance Commission pairs with Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003; Central Information Commission pairs with Right to Information Act, 2005; Competition Commission of India pairs with Competition Act, 2002; National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission pairs with Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Each non-constitutional body listed is correctly matched with its specific governing Parliamentary statute. The CVC derives its statutory backing from the CVC Act of 2003; the CIC was established under Section 12 of the RTI Act, 2005; the CCI operates under the Competition Act, 2002; and the NCDRC operates under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the legislative origin of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).
CVC became a statutory body via Parliament enacting the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.
Tracing statutory evolution from executive creation to legislative backing.
2
Identify the legislative origin of the Central Information Commission (CIC).
CIC was constituted under Section 12 of the Right to Information Act, 2005.
Direct statutory provision identification.
3
Identify the parent governing enactment for the Competition Commission of India (CCI).
CCI was set up under the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002.
Regulatory framework mapping.
4
Identify the governing statute for the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC).
NCDRC functions under the apex statutory mandate of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Connecting statutory consumer governance bodies to updated legislation.

Key Concept

Statutory non-constitutional bodies derive their mandate, structure, and authority from specific Acts of Parliament rather than directly from constitutional provisions.
Question 2402Question

Consider the following statements regarding major infectious human diseases, their causative pathogens, and vectors of public health importance:

1. Scrub Typhus is a bacterial disease caused by *Orientia tsutsugamushi* and is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected larval trombiculid mites (chiggers).
2. Japanese Encephalitis is a viral disease caused by a Flavivirus and is transmitted primarily by mosquitoes of the *Culex* genus, with pigs and wading birds acting as amplifying hosts.
3. Lymphatic Filariasis is a protozoan disease caused by *Wuchereria bancrofti* and is transmitted primarily by the bite of female *Phlebotomus* sandflies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, whereas Statement 3 is incorrect.
Scrub Typhus is caused by the bacterium Orientia tsutsugamushi and is transmitted by chigger mites. Japanese Encephalitis is caused by a mosquito-borne Flavivirus with pigs and ardeid birds serving as key amplifying hosts. Both Statements 1 and 2 are completely accurate. Statement 3 is false because Wuchereria bancrofti is a filarial nematode (helminth), not a protozoan, and its primary vector in India is the Culex quinquefasciatus mosquito rather than the sandfly.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Scrub Typhus.
Scrub Typhus is caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi (an obligate intracellular bacterium) and transmitted by larval trombiculid mites (chiggers). Statement 1 is factually correct.
Verify the pathogen category (bacterium) and vector (chigger mite) for Scrub Typhus.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Japanese Encephalitis.
Japanese Encephalitis is caused by the Japanese Encephalitis Virus (a single-stranded RNA virus of the genus Flavivirus) and transmitted principally by Culex tritaeniorhynchus mosquitoes, with pigs and water birds serving as amplifying reservoirs. Statement 2 is factually correct.
Verify the viral nature, mosquito vector family, and host reservoirs of Japanese Encephalitis.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Lymphatic Filariasis.
Lymphatic Filariasis is caused by parasitic filarial nematodes (roundworms/helminths) such as Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi. In India, its principal vector is the Culex quinquefasciatus mosquito. Sandflies (Phlebotomus species) transmit Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar), not filariasis. Thus, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Identify taxonomic misclassifications of the pathogen (helminth vs protozoan) and vector misattribution (mosquito vs sandfly).
4
Synthesize the statement evaluations to select the correct choice.
Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Combine verified truth values of all three statements.

Key Concept

Classification of infectious human diseases by pathogen type (bacterial, viral, helminthic) and specific vector-host transmission dynamics.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2403Question

Arrange the following stages of monetary policy transmission in chronological sequence, starting from the initial policy action taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to its ultimate impact on economic activity.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence begins with the RBI lowering the policy repo rate, followed by commercial banks reducing their lending rates, which stimulates private consumption and corporate investment, and concludes with an expansion in overall macroeconomic aggregate demand.
Monetary transmission originates at the central bank level through policy repo rate adjustments. Financial intermediaries then alter their marginal lending rates. Lower borrowing costs subsequently stimulate private spending and capital investments, culminating in an increase in overall macroeconomic output.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the initial monetary policy trigger.
The RBI reduces the policy repo rate under LAF (item_1).
Monetary policy transmission starts with the central bank adjusting its signal policy rate.
2
Trace the response of financial intermediaries.
Commercial banks lower their MCLR and lending interest rates (item_2).
Lower central bank borrowing costs prompt commercial banks to reduce lending rates for consumers and enterprises.
3
Evaluate the behavioral response of real economy borrowers.
Private consumption expenditure and corporate investment expand (item_3).
Cheaper loan interest costs encourage firms to invest in capital projects and households to spend more.
4
Determine the final macroeconomic outcome.
Overall aggregate demand and GDP output increase (item_4).
Higher consumption and investment spending together raise total economic output and growth.

Key Concept

Monetary Policy Transmission Mechanism
Question 2404Question

Match the essential vitamins listed in List-I with their corresponding deficiency disorders listed in List-II, and identify the correct pairs:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Vitamin B3 (Niacin)
Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid)
Vitamin D (Calciferol)

Matches

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Answer

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) pairs with Beriberi; Vitamin B3 (Niacin) pairs with Pellagra; Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid) pairs with Scurvy; Vitamin D (Calciferol) pairs with Rickets.
Each vitamin plays a specific biochemical role: Thiamine (B1) deficiency produces Beriberi; Niacin (B3) deficiency causes Pellagra; Ascorbic Acid (Vitamin C) deficiency causes Scurvy; and Calciferol (Vitamin D) deficiency leads to Rickets due to defective mineralization of bone matrix.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) function and deficiency.
Thiamine is critical for carbohydrate metabolism and nerve function. Deficiency causes Beriberi.
Matches Vitamin B1 to Beriberi.
2
Analyze Vitamin B3 (Niacin) function and deficiency.
Niacin is required for cellular respiration. Deficiency causes Pellagra.
Matches Vitamin B3 to Pellagra.
3
Analyze Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid) function and deficiency.
Ascorbic acid is necessary for collagen formation and tissue repair. Deficiency causes Scurvy.
Matches Vitamin C to Scurvy.
4
Analyze Vitamin D (Calciferol) function and deficiency.
Calciferol regulates intestinal calcium uptake. Deficiency leads to Rickets in growing children.
Matches Vitamin D to Rickets.

Key Concept

Vitamin Deficiency Disorders and Human Nutritional Physiology
Question 2405Question

Match the poverty estimation committees and inequality metrics in List-I with their corresponding methodology or definition in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Suresh Tendulkar Committee (2009)
C. Rangarajan Committee (2014)
Palma Ratio
Gini Coefficient

Matches

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Answer

The correct matching aligns Suresh Tendulkar Committee with MRP expenditure methodology, C. Rangarajan Committee with MMRP and reinstated nutritional norms, Palma Ratio with the income share ratio of the top 10% to the bottom 40%, and Gini Coefficient with the geometric ratio derived from the Lorenz Curve.
Each item in List-I maps uniquely to its corresponding definition in List-II: Suresh Tendulkar Committee established MRP-based estimates including health and education; C. Rangarajan Committee established MMRP-based estimates incorporating calorie, protein, and fat requirements; Palma Ratio computes the top 10% to bottom 40% income share; and Gini Coefficient evaluates the area between the line of equality and the Lorenz curve.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the poverty estimation committees in List-I
The Tendulkar Committee (2009) introduced MRP and included expenditure on education and health, discarding direct calorie anchors. The Rangarajan Committee (2014) reintroduced calorie-protein-fat nutritional standards and adopted MMRP.
Differentiating reference periods (MRP vs MMRP) and calorie norm reliance is essential to distinguish between official poverty estimation frameworks in India.
2
Analyze the inequality metrics in List-I
The Palma Ratio isolates the upper tail (top 10%) relative to the lower tail (bottom 40%). The Gini Coefficient summarizes overall distribution by calculating the relative area between the Lorenz curve and the 45-degree line of perfect equality.
Palma ratio measures structural concentration at the distribution extremes, whereas Gini coefficient summarizes aggregate inequality.
3
Construct the correct pair mappings
Suresh Tendulkar Committee maps to MRP health/education focus; C. Rangarajan Committee maps to MMRP with nutritional norms; Palma Ratio maps to top 10% over bottom 40% share; Gini Coefficient maps to Lorenz curve area calculation.
Ensures every expert panel and statistical metric is accurately paired with its specific technical feature.

Key Concept

Poverty Estimation Methodologies and Inequality Indicators
Question 2406Question

Match List-I (Constitutional Articles of the Union Executive) with List-II (Their Respective Provisions) and select the correct matching pairs:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 56
Article 61
Article 67
Article 78

Matches

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Answer

Article 56 matches with Term of office of the President; Article 61 matches with Procedure for impeachment of the President; Article 67 matches with Term of office and removal procedure of the Vice-President; and Article 78 matches with Duties of Prime Minister as respects the furnishing of information to the President.
Article 56 specifies the 5-year tenure of the President. Article 61 establishes the procedure for impeaching the President for violation of the Constitution. Article 67 deals with the tenure and removal procedure of the Vice-President. Article 78 details the constitutional duty of the Prime Minister to keep the President informed about decisions of the Council of Ministers and legislative proposals.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify constitutional provisions related to the President's tenure and impeachment.
Article 56 lays down the President's 5-year tenure, while Article 61 lays down the detailed impeachment procedure for violation of the Constitution.
Under Part V of the Constitution, Article 56 governs presidential tenure, and Article 61 specifies the special parliamentary procedure for impeachment.
2
Examine constitutional provisions governing the Vice-President's office.
Article 67 defines the tenure of the Vice-President and the procedure for removal by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
Article 67 specifically outlines the removal process of the Vice-President, who serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States.
3
Evaluate provisions outlining the channel of communication between the Executive head and the Council of Ministers.
Article 78 obligates the Prime Minister to furnish information regarding Union administrative affairs and proposals for legislation to the President.
Article 78 is the constitutional link maintaining the flow of information between the Prime Minister and the President.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles and Procedures of the Union Executive
Question 2407Question

Match the early nationalist leaders and economic thinkers listed in List-I with their prominent published works and treatises on colonial economic critique in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Dadabhai Naoroji
Romesh Chunder Dutt
G. V. Joshi
Dinshaw Wacha

Matches

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Answer

Dadabhai Naoroji correctly pairs with 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India'; Romesh Chunder Dutt correctly pairs with 'The Economic History of India'; G. V. Joshi correctly pairs with 'Writings and Speeches on Indian Economic Problems'; and Dinshaw Wacha correctly pairs with 'Recent Economic History of India and Military Expenditure'.
The correct matching pairs each Moderate nationalist leader with their influential treatise on Indian economic critique under colonial rule: Dadabhai Naoroji wrote 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', Romesh Chunder Dutt wrote 'The Economic History of India', G. V. Joshi wrote 'Writings and Speeches on Indian Economic Problems', and Dinshaw Wacha wrote on Indian financial management and military expenditure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the author of 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India'.
Dadabhai Naoroji wrote this landmark work, establishing the Drain of Wealth theory during the early phase of Indian nationalism.
It served as the foundational text exposing colonial economic exploitation.
2
Identify the author of 'The Economic History of India'.
Romesh Chunder Dutt (R.C. Dutt) authored this classic two-volume work evaluating land revenue policies and industrial decline under British rule.
He systematically documented the economic impact of colonial administration from 1757 to 1900.
3
Match G. V. Joshi and Dinshaw Wacha to their respective economic treatises.
G. V. Joshi authored 'Writings and Speeches on Indian Economic Problems', while Dinshaw Wacha authored critical analyses on financial management and military expenditure.
Both were leading Moderate economic analysts associated with the Indian National Congress.

Key Concept

Economic Nationalism and Drain Theory in the Early Phase of INC
Question 2408Question

Vitamins are essential organic micronutrients required for key physiological functions in the human body. Which of the following statements regarding vitamins and deficiency disorders are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: Vitamin A deficiency is associated with night blindness (nyctalopia) and xerophthalmia.; Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy, characterized by bleeding gums and delayed wound healing.

Answer

The statements highlighting that Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness/xerophthalmia and Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy are correct. Rickets and scurvy are non-communicable nutritional deficiencies, not infectious diseases caused by viruses, protozoa, or vectors.
The statements asserting that Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness and Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy are anatomically and physiologically accurate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the physiological role of Vitamin A
Vitamin A is required for visual pigment formation in rod cells. Severe deficiency causes night blindness and xerophthalmia.
Establishes correct link between Vitamin A and its clinical deficiency manifestations.
2
Analyze the physiological role of Vitamin C
Vitamin C serves as a essential co-factor for collagen hydroxylases. Deficiency results in weak blood vessel walls, bleeding gums, and scurvy.
Establishes correct link between Vitamin C and collagen tissue integrity.
3
Evaluate statements regarding etiology of Rickets and Scurvy
Both conditions stem from nutritional deficiencies (Vitamin D/calcium and Vitamin C respectively). They are not infectious diseases transmitted by pathogens or vectors.
Differentiates non-communicable nutritional deficits from pathogen-driven infectious diseases.

Key Concept

Nutritional Deficiencies vs. Pathogenic Infectious Diseases
Question 2409Question

Which administrative body in India is mandated to evaluate production costs and recommend the Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for major agricultural crops?

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Answer: Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)

Answer

Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is the specialized body under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare responsible for formulating and submitting price policy reports to recommend Minimum Support Prices for 22 mandated crops and Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mandate for recommending agricultural support prices in India.
The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) analyzes factors such as cost of cultivation, market demand-supply trends, and inter-crop price parity to recommend MSPs.
CACP is the specialized advisory body established specifically to submit price policy reports for mandated agricultural commodities.
2
Distinguish between the recommending authority and the approving authority.
CACP recommends the prices, whereas the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approves and announces the final MSP values.
Understanding institutional division of labor prevents confusing advisory bodies with executive approval cabinets.

Key Concept

Institutional Framework of Minimum Support Price (MSP) Determination
Question 2410Question

Consider the following physical observations commonly seen in daily life:

1. A straight pencil partially immersed in a glass of water appears bent at the air-water boundary.
2. Stars twinkle in the night sky when observed from the ground, whereas planets shine with a steady brightness.
3. The Sun appears slightly flattened (oval-shaped) near the horizon during sunrise and sunset.

Which of the following optical phenomena is primarily responsible for all three of these observations?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Boundary and atmospheric refraction of light rays

Answer

Boundary and atmospheric refraction of light rays is primarily responsible for all three observations.
The correct answer highlights boundary and atmospheric refraction of light rays. Refraction occurs when light alters its speed and direction upon moving through media of different optical densities. The apparent displacement of a submerged pencil, the scintillation (twinkling) of point-like starlight through turbulent air layers, and the vertical foreshortening (flattening) of the solar disk near the horizon are all classical manifestations of optical refraction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Observation 1 (submerged pencil bending)
Light rays traveling from the submerged portion of the pencil pass from water (denser medium) into air (rarer medium), bending away from the normal. The eye traces these rays back in straight lines, making the pencil appear elevated and bent at the boundary.
This is a direct application of Snell's law of refraction at a sharp interface.
2
Analyze Observation 2 (twinkling of stars vs. steady planets)
Starlight traverses atmospheric layers of constantly fluctuating temperature and density, continuously changing its refractive index and causing the apparent position and brightness of the point-like star to fluctuate rapidly. Planets, being larger extended sources, average out these atmospheric refraction fluctuations.
Atmospheric refraction acting on point sources causes scintillation (twinkling).
3
Analyze Observation 3 (flattening of the Sun near the horizon)
Light from the lower edge of the Sun passes through a thicker and denser atmospheric layer than light from the upper edge, undergoing greater upward refraction. This vertical compression makes the circular solar disk appear flattened into an ellipse.
Differential atmospheric refraction causes unequal displacement between the top and bottom of the solar disk.
4
Synthesize the underlying unifying physical law
All three phenomena stem from the bending of light caused by variations in the refractive index of optical media, which is defined as refraction.
Identifying refraction as the common mechanism resolves the question.

Key Concept

Refraction of Light and Atmospheric Refraction
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2411Question

Which of the following statements regarding polymers and their daily life or industrial applications are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Teflon (polytetrafluoroethylene) is used as a non-stick coating on cookware due to its high thermal stability and chemical inertness.; Bakelite is a thermosetting plastic used to make electrical switches and utensil handles because it is a poor conductor of electricity and heat.; Vulcanization of natural rubber involves heating raw rubber with elemental sulfur to improve its elasticity and tensile strength.

Answer

The correct statements are those describing Teflon as a non-stick coating, Bakelite as a thermosetting plastic for electrical switches, and vulcanization of natural rubber using sulfur.
Teflon is resistant to heat and chemicals, making it ideal for non-stick cookware coatings. Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer used in heat-resistant handles and electrical appliances. Vulcanization cross-links rubber molecules with sulfur to make it stronger and more elastic. In contrast, PVC is a thermoplastic that can be repeatedly softened and reshaped upon heating.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the properties of Teflon
Teflon (PTFE) is chemically inert and withstands high temperatures, so its application in non-stick cookware is correct.
Verify the household application of polytetrafluoroethylene.
2
Evaluate the classification and use of Bakelite
Bakelite is a phenol-formaldehyde resin classified as a thermosetting plastic, making it ideal for electrical fittings and cookware handles.
Confirm thermal and electrical conductivity characteristics.
3
Evaluate the classification of Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
PVC is a thermoplastic, not a thermosetting plastic. It softens upon heating and can be recycled/reshaped.
Differentiate between thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics.
4
Evaluate the vulcanization process of rubber
Vulcanization uses sulfur to create disulfide bonds across polymer chains, enhancing elasticity and durability.
Verify the chemical process of rubber strengthening.

Key Concept

Classification and industrial applications of synthetic polymers and modified natural rubber
Question 2412Question

Consider the following statements regarding the World Trade Organization (WTO) Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) and India's food security subsidy mechanism:

1. Subsidies categorized under the Amber Box are considered trade-distorting and, for developing nations like India, are subject to a de minimis limit of 10%10\% of the total value of agricultural production.
2. The External Reference Price (ERP) used to calculate Market Price Support under WTO AoA rules is fixed at historical international prices from 198619881986\text{--}1988, without indexation for inflation.
3. The Peace Clause agreed upon at the Bali Ministerial Conference (20132013) provides permanent, unrestricted legal protection to member states for commercial agricultural export subsidies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct combination of statements is '1 and 2 only'.
The option stating '1 and 2 only' is correct. Developing nations have a 10%10\% de minimis threshold under Amber Box trade-distorting subsidies. Furthermore, India's primary dispute at the WTO centers on the fact that Market Price Support is measured against an outdated base period (198619881986\text{--}1988) without adjusting for inflation. Statement 3 is false because the Bali Peace Clause applies strictly to public stockholding for food security, not commercial export subsidies.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Amber Box subsidies and de minimis caps.
Statement 1 is TRUE.
Under the WTO Agreement on Agriculture (AoA), Aggregate Measurement of Support (AMS) included in the Amber Box is subject to de minimis caps—5%5\% of agricultural production value for developed countries and 10%10\% for developing countries like India.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the calculation methodology of External Reference Price (ERP).
Statement 2 is TRUE.
Market Price Support (MPS) is calculated as the difference between the domestic administered price (MSP) and the ERP. Under WTO AoA rules, the ERP is fixed at 198619881986\text{--}1988 international prices, creating a structural distortion because it does not account for subsequent inflation.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the scope of the Bali Peace Clause.
Statement 3 is FALSE.
The Peace Clause negotiated at the 2013 Bali Ministerial Conference protects public stockholding programs for food security purposes against WTO dispute challenges if procurement prices exceed AMS limits. It does NOT protect commercial export subsidies.

Key Concept

WTO Agreement on Agriculture (AoA), Amber Box Subsidies, and Public Stockholding Peace Clause
Question 2413Question

Arrange the following historical milestones associated with the constitutional developments and framing of the Indian Constitution in their correct chronological order from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: Announcement of the Mountbatten Plan (June 3, 1947), Royal Assent to the Indian Independence Act (July 18, 1947), Appointment of the Drafting Committee (August 29, 1947), and Formal introduction of the Draft Constitution in the Constituent Assembly (November 4, 1948).
The correct chronological order starts with the Mountbatten Plan announced on June 3, 1947, followed by the Royal Assent to the Indian Independence Act on July 18, 1947. Next, the Drafting Committee was appointed on August 29, 1947, and finally, the Draft Constitution prepared by the committee was introduced in the Constituent Assembly on November 4, 1948.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the exact date for each event in the framing and constitutional transition period.
Announcement of Mountbatten Plan: June 3, 1947; Royal Assent to Indian Independence Act: July 18, 1947; Appointment of Drafting Committee: August 29, 1947; Introduction of Draft Constitution: November 4, 1948.
Accurate historical dates provide the baseline for chronological sequencing.
2
Sequence the events chronologically from earliest to latest.
June 3, 1947 -> July 18, 1947 -> August 29, 1947 -> November 4, 1948.
Ordering by timeline resolves the correct progression of events.

Key Concept

Chronology of Constituent Assembly Milestones and Transfer of Power
Question 2414Question

Match the Constitutional Articles related to the Indian Judiciary in List-I with their corresponding powers and constitutional provisions in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 139A
Article 142
Article 144
Article 227

Matches

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Answer

Article 139A pairs with the power to transfer cases involving similar questions of law. Article 142 pairs with orders necessary for doing complete justice. Article 144 pairs with civil and judicial authorities acting in aid of the Supreme Court. Article 227 pairs with the High Court's power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals in its jurisdiction.
Each item in List-I correctly corresponds to its specific constitutional mandate under the Indian Constitution. Article 139A authorizes case transfers across High Courts to the Supreme Court. Article 142 empowers the apex court to pass orders for complete justice. Article 144 creates an obligation for civil and judicial executive arms to assist the Supreme Court. Article 227 vests superintendence over lower courts and tribunals within a High Court's jurisdiction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional scope of Article 139A
Article 139A deals with the transfer of cases when cases involving identical or substantially similar questions of law are pending before the Supreme Court and/or multiple High Courts.
This provision helps prevent conflicting judgments across different High Courts on the same constitutional question.
2
Identify the mandate of Article 142
Article 142 equips the Supreme Court with broad constitutional jurisdiction to execute decrees or pass orders required for doing complete justice.
It ensures technical procedural hurdles do not impede equitable justice.
3
Analyze Article 144 and Article 227
Article 144 binds civil and judicial authorities to aid Supreme Court directives, while Article 227 gives High Courts power of administrative and judicial superintendence over tribunals and lower courts.
Article 144 ensures enforcement of apex court orders nation-wide, while Article 227 maintains state-level judicial hierarchy and administrative control.

Key Concept

Constitutional Jurisdiction and Powers of Supreme Court and High Courts
Question 2415Question

Match the chemical compounds and industrial materials in List-I with their corresponding primary application or functional property in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Calcium Carbide (CaC2CaC_2)
Sodium Benzoate (C6H5COONaC_6H_5COONa)
Superphosphate of Lime
Bakelite Polymer

Matches

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Answer

Calcium Carbide matches with artificial fruit ripening via moisture-triggered acetylene generation; Sodium Benzoate matches with food preservation in acidic environments; Superphosphate of Lime matches with water-soluble phosphatic fertilizer production via sulfuric acid treatment of rock phosphate; and Bakelite Polymer matches with thermosetting resin used for electrical insulation and cookware handles.
Each compound is accurately matched with its primary chemical role: Calcium Carbide releases acetylene for fruit ripening; Sodium Benzoate serves as an acidic food preservative; Superphosphate of Lime provides water-soluble phosphorus for crops; and Bakelite provides heat-resistant electrical insulation as a thermosetting plastic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the chemical reactivity and practical use of Calcium Carbide (CaC2CaC_2).
Calcium carbide undergoes hydrolysis upon contact with water to produce acetylene gas (C2H2C_2H_2) according to the reaction: CaC2+2H2OCa(OH)2+C2H2CaC_2 + 2H_2O \rightarrow Ca(OH)_2 + C_2H_2.
Acetylene gas acts as an analogue to ethylene, inducing artificial ripening in fruits like mangoes and bananas.
2
Determine the mode of action of Sodium Benzoate (C6H5COONaC_6H_5COONa).
In acidic media (such as fruit juices and carbonated beverages), sodium benzoate converts into undissociated benzoic acid.
The undissociated acid readily diffuses across microbial cell walls to disrupt glucose fermentation, acting as an effective preservative.
3
Evaluate the industrial synthesis of Superphosphate of Lime fertilizer.
Insoluble calcium phosphate mineral in rock phosphate is treated with sulfuric acid: Ca3(PO4)2+2H2SO4Ca(H2PO4)2+2CaSO4Ca_3(PO_4)_2 + 2H_2SO_4 \rightarrow Ca(H_2PO_4)_2 + 2CaSO_4.
The resulting monocalcium phosphate is water-soluble, allowing plant roots to readily absorb bioavailable phosphate nutrients.
4
Identify the polymer structure and physical properties of Bakelite.
Bakelite is produced by step-growth condensation polymerization of phenol with formaldehyde in the presence of an acid or base catalyst.
Extensive 3D covalent cross-linking makes Bakelite a thermosetting plastic that does not melt upon heating, making it suitable for electrical switches and appliance handles.

Key Concept

Chemical compounds in daily life and industrial applications
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2416Question

Consider the following statements regarding human infectious diseases and their etiology:

1. Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) is caused by a protozoan parasite transmitted to humans through the bite of infected sandflies.
2. Human African Trypanosomiasis (Sleeping Sickness) is a bacterial infection transmitted by the bite of tsetse flies.
3. Dengue is a viral infection transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Aedes aegypti mosquitoes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
The correct response includes statements 1 and 3. Kala-azar is indeed a parasitic protozoan disease transmitted by sandflies, and Dengue is an arboviral disease transmitted by female Aedes mosquitoes. Statement 2 is incorrect because Sleeping Sickness is caused by protozoan parasites (Trypanosoma brucei), not bacteria.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze statement 1
Kala-azar is caused by Leishmania parasites (protozoa) and spread by phlebotomine sandflies, making statement 1 true.
Verify the pathogen and vector for Kala-azar.
2
Analyze statement 2
Sleeping Sickness is caused by microscopic protozoan parasites of the species Trypanosoma brucei, not bacteria, making statement 2 false.
Verify the pathogen classification for Human African Trypanosomiasis.
3
Analyze statement 3
Dengue is caused by the Dengue virus (FLAVIVIRIDAE family) and transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, making statement 3 true.
Verify the pathogen and vector for Dengue.

Key Concept

Distinction between protozoan, bacterial, and viral pathogens in vector-borne diseases
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2417Question

Which of the following optical phenomena occurring in the Earth's atmosphere are primarily caused by atmospheric refraction of light?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The apparent early sunrise and delayed sunset relative to the geometrical position of the Sun; The apparent twinkling of stars when viewed from the Earth's surface; The apparent flattened or oval shape of the Sun at sunrise and sunset

Answer

The optical phenomena caused by atmospheric refraction are the apparent early sunrise and delayed sunset, the twinkling of stars, and the apparent vertical flattening of the Sun's disc near the horizon. The reddish appearance of the Sun during sunrise and sunset is caused by Rayleigh scattering of light.
Atmospheric refraction occurs because Earth's atmosphere becomes progressively denser toward the surface, continuously bending incoming light rays. This bending elevates the apparent position of celestial objects, creating the illusion of early sunrise and delayed sunset, flattens the Sun's disc due to unequal refraction at its top and bottom edges, and causes stars (point sources) to twinkle as light passes through shifting air layers.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary mechanism of atmospheric refraction
Light bends toward the normal as it moves from optically rarer outer atmospheric layers to denser layers near Earth's surface.
Gradual variation in atmospheric density creates a refractive index gradient.
2
Evaluate atmospheric refraction effects on solar observation
Bending of light causes the Sun to appear approximately 0.50.5^\circ higher near the horizon, leading to early sunrise, delayed sunset, and vertical compression (flattening) of the solar disc.
Differential bending occurs across the vertical height of the solar disc and relative to the true horizon.
3
Evaluate starlight propagation through atmospheric turbulence
Point sources of light fluctuate in position and intensity (twinkling).
Random variations in refractive index along the light path continuously alter ray paths.
4
Distinguish refraction from scattering phenomena
The reddening of the Sun is driven by wavelength-dependent scattering (Scattering1λ4\text{Scattering} \propto \frac{1}{\lambda^4}), not refraction.
Rayleigh scattering removes short-wavelength blue light over long atmospheric path lengths.

Key Concept

Atmospheric Refraction vs Rayleigh Scattering
Question 2418Question

When the Vice-President of India acts as President or discharges the functions of the President during a vacancy, which of the following statements correctly describes their constitutional status and entitlement to salary?

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Answer: They cease to perform the duties of the Chairman of the Council of States and are entitled to the salary and allowances of the President.

Answer

They cease to perform the duties of the Chairman of the Council of States and are entitled to the salary and allowances of the President.
According to Article 65(3) read with Article 97 of the Constitution of India, when the Vice-President acts as President or discharges the functions of the President, they enjoy all the powers, privileges, and emoluments of the President. Concurrently, they cease to perform the duties of the Ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and are not entitled to the salary payable to the Chairman under Article 97.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional provisions governing the Vice-President when acting as President.
Article 65(1) states that during a casual vacancy in the office of the President, the Vice-President acts as President until a new President assumes office.
To establish the legal framework under Part V of the Constitution.
2
Evaluate the duties and salary restrictions under Article 65(3) and Article 97.
During this period, the Vice-President is entitled to all powers, immunities, and emoluments of the President and is barred from performing the duties of the Chairman of the Council of States or drawing the Chairman's salary.
To determine the exact functional and financial adjustments required by the Constitution.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions regarding the Vice-President acting as President (Article 65 and Article 97)
Question 2419Question

Which of the following human diseases is caused by a virus and transmitted primarily through the bite of an infected Aedes mosquito?

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Answer: Dengue

Answer

Dengue is caused by a virus and transmitted primarily by the bite of an infected Aedes mosquito.
Dengue is an acute febrile viral disease caused by the dengue virus, belonging to the genus Flavivirus. It is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female mosquitoes, predominantly Aedes aegypti.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the biological nature of the pathogen and the vector mentioned in the stem.
The target disease requires a viral pathogen and transmission via an Aedes mosquito vector.
Different human infectious diseases are distinguished by their specific pathogen types (virus, bacterium, protozoan) and modes of transmission.
2
Evaluate Dengue against these criteria.
Dengue is caused by an RNA virus of the Flaviviridae family and transmitted by infected female Aedes mosquitoes (Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus).
This matches both criteria specified in the question.

Key Concept

Disease Etiology and Insect Vectors
Question 2420Question

Regarding the constitutional provisions governing the Union Council of Ministers under Article 75 of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: The salaries and allowances of Union Ministers are determined from time to time by Parliament by law.; A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister, but ceases to be one if not elected within six consecutive months.; The President administers the oaths of office and secrecy to a Minister before the Minister enters upon their office.

Answer

The correct statements are that the salaries and allowances of Ministers are determined by Parliament by law, a non-member appointed as a Minister must secure a seat in either House within six consecutive months, and the President administers the oaths of office and secrecy before a Minister assumes office.
The statements confirming parliamentary determination of salaries, the six-month membership window for non-parliamentarian ministers, and presidential administration of oaths accurately reflect Articles 75(6), 75(5), and 75(4) of the Indian Constitution.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement regarding collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers.
Article 75(3) mandates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha), not Parliament as a whole.
Collective responsibility is owed specifically to the popularly elected lower house to maintain executive accountability.
2
Evaluate the statement regarding ministerial salaries and allowances.
Article 75(6) empowers Parliament to determine ministerial salaries and allowances by law.
Parliament holds financial authority over executive emoluments.
3
Evaluate the statement regarding non-parliamentarians joining the Council of Ministers.
Article 75(5) permits a non-member to be appointed as a Minister, provided they become a member of either House of Parliament within six consecutive months.
This allows technical experts or leaders to join the Cabinet while maintaining democratic parliamentary tenure requirements.
4
Evaluate the statement regarding administration of oaths.
Article 75(4) requires the President to administer the oaths of office and secrecy according to the Third Schedule.
The President is the executive head of the Union who formalizes ministerial appointments.

Key Concept

Constitutional Provisions of Article 75 and Executive Accountability
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