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Question 2421Question →

Match the common chemical substances in List-I with their primary applications in daily life and industry in List-II. Which of the following options represents the correct pairing of each substance with its application?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Quicklime (CaOCaO)
Milk of Magnesia (Mg(OH)2Mg(OH)_2)
Baking Soda (NaHCO3NaHCO_3)
Gypsum (CaSO4⋅2H2OCaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Quicklime matches with cement manufacturing; Milk of Magnesia matches with antacid application; Baking soda matches with leavening agent and fire extinguisher; Gypsum matches with retarding cement setting time.
Each chemical substance is correctly paired with its specific real-world application based on its chemical properties: Quicklime in cement making, Milk of Magnesia as an antacid, Baking soda in food/fire safety, and Gypsum for delaying cement hardening.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the industrial application of Quicklime (CaOCaO)
Quicklime is key to forming calcium silicates in cement manufacturing.
Understanding primary inorganic chemical raw materials.
2
Identify the medicinal role of Milk of Magnesia (Mg(OH)2Mg(OH)_2)
Milk of Magnesia neutralizes stomach acid (HClHCl) safely as an antacid.
Acid-base neutralization in household medicine.
3
Identify the household uses of Baking Soda (NaHCO3NaHCO_3)
Baking Soda releases CO2CO_2 gas when heated or mixed with acid, aiding baking dough expansion and smothering flames.
Thermal decomposition of hydrogen carbonates.
4
Identify the construction function of Gypsum (CaSO4⋅2H2OCaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O)
Gypsum slows down the hydration rate of cement, retarding its setting time.
Modifying physical characteristics of industrial materials.

Key Concept

Everyday and industrial applications of common inorganic chemical compounds
Question 2422Question →

Regarding the proposals put forward by the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) to resolve the constitutional deadlock and facilitate the transfer of power in India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It proposed a three-tier administrative framework with the grouping of British Indian provinces into Sections A, B, and C.; It rejected the Muslim League's demand for a fully sovereign, independent state of Pakistan.

Answer

The correct statements are that the plan proposed a three-tier administrative framework with provincial grouping into Sections A, B, and C, and that it explicitly rejected the demand for a separate fully sovereign state of Pakistan.
The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 presented a compromise formula for the transfer of power. It advocated a three-tier political structure comprising the Union, three provincial groupings (Sections A, B, and C), and individual provinces. Furthermore, the Mission rejected the creation of a separate sovereign Pakistan, concluding that partition would not solve the minority problem and would disrupt administrative, defense, and communications infrastructure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the structural proposal of the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946).
Confirm that the plan recommended a central Union controlling defense, foreign affairs, and communications, while grouping provinces into Sections A (non-Muslim majority), B (North-West Muslim majority), and C (North-East Muslim majority).
This establishes the validity of the three-tier administrative arrangement.
2
Evaluate the plan's stance on the demand for Pakistan.
Recognize that the Cabinet Mission rejected a fully independent Pakistan to preserve Indian administrative unity and protect sizeable minorities.
This confirms the rejection of full partition at that stage.
3
Examine the mode of election for the Constituent Assembly and provincial group exit rights.
Identify that election to the Constituent Assembly was indirect via Provincial Assemblies and that provinces retained the right to opt out of groups after the first general election under the new constitution.
This invalidates the assertions of direct universal suffrage and permanent group lock-in.

Key Concept

Cabinet Mission Plan 1946 Provisions
Question 2423Question →

When the Reserve Bank of India purchases government securities from commercial banks through Open Market Operations (OMO), what is the immediate impact on banking system liquidity and bond yields?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: System liquidity increases and bond yields decrease

Answer

System liquidity increases and bond yields decrease
When the Reserve Bank of India buys government securities in the open market, it credits funds to the accounts of commercial banks, thereby augmenting overall banking system liquidity. Furthermore, RBI's buying intervention increases demand for securities, raising their market prices and consequently driving down bond yields.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the cash flow from RBI's purchase of government securities
RBI pays cash to commercial banks in exchange for securities, directly increasing loanable funds and banking system liquidity.
Open Market Purchases act as an expansionary monetary policy tool to inject primary liquidity.
2
Determine the impact of RBI's market purchase on bond prices and bond yields
Increased demand for government securities pushes bond prices up, causing bond yields to fall.
Bond prices and market interest yields share a strict inverse relationship.

Key Concept

Open Market Operations (OMO) and Bond Yield Mechanics
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2424Question →

Which of the following statements regarding human immunoglobulin functions, immune cell receptor interactions, and pathogen neutralization mechanisms are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Secretory Immunoglobulin A (IgA) exists predominantly as a dimeric molecule joined by a Joining (J) chain and a secretory component, providing primary mucosal immunity against respiratory and enteric pathogens.; Immunoglobulin E (IgE) binds via its Fc region to high-affinity FcεRI receptors on mast cells and basophils, triggering mediator release in type I hypersensitivity reactions and anti-helminthic immunity.; Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is the only human antibody class capable of crossing the placental barrier, a process mediated by active transport via neonatal Fc receptors (FcRn).

Answer

The statements confirming that secretory IgA functions as a dimeric mucosal barrier, IgE binds FcεRI receptors on mast cells to mediate type I hypersensitivity and helminth defense, and IgG crosses the placenta via neonatal Fc receptors (FcRn) are correct.
The correct statements accurately detail human immunoglobulin physiology: Secretory IgA functions as a dimeric molecule linked by a J chain and secretory component for mucosal lining protection. IgE binds high-affinity FcεRI receptors on mast cells/basophils, mediating allergic degranulation and anti-helminth defense. IgG is actively transported across the placenta by neonatal Fc receptors (FcRn) to provide fetal passive immunity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the structural and functional properties of Secretory IgA.
Secretory IgA is composed of two IgA monomers linked by a J chain and wrapped by a protective secretory component derived from polymeric immunoglobulin receptors. It protects mucosal membranes in the gastrointestinal, respiratory, and urogenital tracts.
Verifies that the statement on dimeric secretory IgA structure and mucosal pathogen protection is scientifically accurate.
2
Assess the receptor binding and physiological role of Immunoglobulin E (IgE).
IgE binds with high affinity to FcεRI receptors on mast cells and basophils. Antigen cross-linking induces immediate degranulation, releasing histamine and leukotrienes central to type I hypersensitivity and parasite immunity.
Confirms the correctness of the statement detailing IgE Fc receptor interaction and allergic/helminthic immune pathways.
3
Analyze the structural organization and temporal response of Immunoglobulin M (IgM).
Serum IgM is a pentameric complex held together by disulfide bonds and a J chain, specializing in agglutination and early complement activation during primary immune responses. It is not a monomer responsible for secondary long-term memory.
Identifies the incorrect statement mischaracterizing IgM monomeric state and secondary immune memory functions.
4
Examine the mechanism of placental antibody transfer in human pregnancy.
IgG is the sole antibody isotype that crosses the placental barrier into fetal circulation. This active transcytosis is mediated by placental neonatal Fc receptors (FcRn) binding the Fc portion of IgG.
Validates that maternal-fetal IgG placental transport via FcRn confers essential passive immunity.

Key Concept

Structure, isotype-specific effector functions, and receptor interactions of human immunoglobulins in mucosal defense, passive immunity, and hypersensitivity.
Question 2425Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the official evolution of poverty estimation methodologies in India:

1. The Y. K. Alagh Task Force (1979) established poverty lines based on a minimum daily nutritional requirement of 2400 kcal per person in rural areas and 2100 kcal per person in urban areas.
2. The D. T. Lakdawala Committee (1993) recommended updating state-specific poverty lines using the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) for rural areas and the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) for urban areas.
3. The Lakdawala Committee discontinued the earlier practice of scaling National Sample Survey (NSS) consumption expenditure data to match National Accounts Statistics (NAS) aggregate data.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
All three statements are historically and methodologically accurate. The Alagh Task Force (1979) fixed the daily caloric consumption norms (2400 kcal rural / 2100 kcal urban). The Lakdawala Committee (1993) introduced state-specific poverty lines updated via CPI-AL and CPI-IW, while simultaneously eliminating the pro-rata adjustment of NSS survey estimates to match National Accounts Statistics (NAS) data.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the Y.K. Alagh Task Force (1979).
Statement 1 is correct.
The 1979 Alagh Task Force formally introduced calorie-based poverty lines of 2400 kcal/day for rural areas and 2100 kcal/day for urban areas based on average body requirements and activity levels.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the D.T. Lakdawala Committee (1993) inflation indexing.
Statement 2 is correct.
The Lakdawala Committee recommended disaggregated state-specific poverty lines updated for inflation using CPI-AL for rural workers and CPI-IW for urban industrial workers.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding NAS data adjustment.
Statement 3 is correct.
Prior to 1993, NSS survey estimates were pro-rata adjusted upward to match NAS aggregate consumption figures. The Lakdawala Committee ended this adjustment practice, relying directly on unadjusted NSS survey distribution.

Key Concept

Methodological Milestones in Indian Poverty Estimation (Alagh and Lakdawala Committees)
Question 2426Question →

During the early Moderate phase of the Indian National Congress (1885–1905), nationalist leaders articulated specific administrative and civil rights demands aimed at reforming colonial administration. Which of the following was a primary administrative demand advocated by the Moderates during this period?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Simultaneous holding of the Indian Civil Services examination in India and England, along with raising the age limit for candidates.

Answer

Simultaneous holding of the Indian Civil Services examination in India and England, along with raising the age limit for candidates.
The early phase of the Indian National Congress (1885–1905) was characterised by Moderate leadership that prioritised administrative Indianisation. A major plank of their campaign was demanding simultaneous Civil Services examinations in India and England alongside raising the age limit, enabling educated Indians to enter senior administrative positions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the core political and administrative demands of the Moderate phase of the Indian National Congress (1885–1905).
The Moderates focused on constitutional agitation, Indianisation of administrative services, expansion of legislative councils, reduction of military expenditure, and civil liberty protections.
Establishing the scope of Moderate methods differentiates their early administrative reforms from later extremist mass movement demands.
2
Evaluate the key administrative reform regarding the public services.
Early nationalists protested against the lowering of the age limit for the Civil Services (reduced to 19 by Lord Lytton) and demanded simultaneous examinations in India and England.
Holding exams exclusively in London placed a severe financial and socio-cultural barrier on Indian candidates.

Key Concept

Early Administrative Demands of the Moderate Phase of INC
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2427Question →

Match the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) monetary policy tools and money supply aggregates in List I with their corresponding functional definitions in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Reserve Money (M0M_0)
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
Standing Deposit Facility (SDF)
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Reserve Money (M0M_0) matches with Currency in circulation plus bankers' deposits with the RBI; Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) matches with Mandatory percentage of NDTL maintained in liquid assets; Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) matches with Liquidity absorption tool without collateral; Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) matches with Penal rate window for overnight emergency borrowing.
Reserve Money (M0M_0) represents total high-powered money in the economy consisting of currency with the public, bankers' deposits with RBI, and other deposits. SLR requires banks to maintain a fixed percentage of NDTL in approved liquid assets like government bonds. SDF is the uncollateralized facility used by RBI to absorb surplus liquidity. MSF is the emergency borrowing window for banks operating at a penal rate above the repo rate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the composition of high-powered money / monetary base (M0M_0)
Reserve Money (M0M_0) represents total monetary liabilities of RBI, equal to currency in circulation + bankers' deposits + other deposits with RBI.
This establishes the core aggregate definition of monetary base.
2
Differentiate statutory reserve requirements (SLR vs CRR)
SLR requires banks to hold liquid assets (such as G-secs, cash, gold) as a proportion of NDTL.
This prevents over-leveraging and ensures liquidity safety.
3
Distinguish between liquidity adjustment facilities (SDF vs MSF)
SDF absorbs liquidity without requiring collateral, whereas MSF acts as an emergency overnight lending corridor at a penal rate.
SDF operates as the floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor without collateral, while MSF operates as the ceiling.

Key Concept

Monetary Policy Instruments and Money Supply Aggregates
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2428Question →

Match each type of unemployment in Column I with its appropriate economic definition or characteristic in Column II. Which of the following pair combinations correctly matches all items?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Disguised Unemployment
Structural Unemployment
Frictional Unemployment
Seasonal Unemployment

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Disguised Unemployment matches with zero marginal productivity of labor; Structural Unemployment matches with skill mismatch due to economic shifts; Frictional Unemployment matches with transitional job search gaps; and Seasonal Unemployment matches with cyclic work demand tied to specific times of the year.
Each unemployment type corresponds strictly to its underlying economic mechanism: Disguised unemployment reflects zero marginal labor productivity; Structural unemployment reflects economic/technological skill mismatch; Frictional unemployment represents transitional job search lag; and Seasonal unemployment reflects weather or harvest cycle fluctuations.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Disguised Unemployment
Identify that extra workers do not increase total output, corresponding to zero marginal productivity.
Disguised unemployment is defined by redundant labor where marginal product equals zero.
2
Analyze Structural Unemployment
Link it to long-term changes in technology and industry that create skill mismatches.
Structural unemployment results from systemic changes in economic structure rather than short-term fluctuations.
3
Analyze Frictional and Seasonal Unemployment
Match frictional unemployment with short-term job transition search time, and seasonal unemployment with annual seasonal cycles.
Frictional is voluntary/transitional search time, whereas seasonal is linked to climate and production cycles.

Key Concept

Classifications of Unemployment in Indian Economic Context
Question 2429Question →

Match the human endocrine glands listed in List-I with their primary hormones listed in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Pancreas
Thyroid Gland
Adrenal Medulla
Pineal Gland

Matches

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Answer

Pancreas corresponds to Insulin, Thyroid Gland corresponds to Thyroxine, Adrenal Medulla corresponds to Adrenaline, and Pineal Gland corresponds to Melatonin.
Each endocrine gland matches directly with its characteristic primary hormone secretion: the pancreas produces insulin, the thyroid gland produces thyroxine, the adrenal medulla produces adrenaline, and the pineal gland produces melatonin.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Match the Pancreas with its hormone.
Pancreas secretes Insulin.
Insulin is synthesized by pancreatic beta cells to lower blood glucose.
2
Match the Thyroid Gland with its hormone.
Thyroid Gland secretes Thyroxine.
Thyroxine regulates general cellular metabolism and energy production.
3
Match the Adrenal Medulla with its hormone.
Adrenal Medulla secretes Adrenaline.
Adrenaline increases heart rate and blood flow during stressful acute conditions.
4
Match the Pineal Gland with its hormone.
Pineal Gland secretes Melatonin.
Melatonin secretion is modulated by light exposure to maintain diurnal rhythm.

Key Concept

Human Endocrine System and Secretory Hormones
Question 2430Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Rajagopalachari (C.R.) Formula of 1944 devised to solve the political deadlock between the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League:

1. The Muslim League was to endorse the Indian demand for independence and cooperate with the Congress in forming a provisional interim government at the centre.
2. A plebiscite of all inhabitants in the demarcated contiguous Muslim-majority areas of North-West and North-East India was to decide whether or not to form a separate sovereign state.
3. The terms and provisions of the formula were to be implemented immediately while World War II was still ongoing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The Rajagopalachari Formula of 1944 was a tacit acceptance of the demand for Pakistan under specific conditions. It required the League to cooperate with Congress in an interim government during the transition. A post-war commission would demarcate Muslim-majority areas where all inhabitants would vote on separation. Crucially, these proposals were to be implemented only after the end of World War II and the complete transfer of power by Great Britain. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct while statement 3 is incorrect.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Muslim League cooperation.
Statement 1 is correct.
The C.R. Formula required the Muslim League to support the Congress demand for complete independence and join in forming an interim federal government.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the plebiscite mechanism.
Statement 2 is correct.
It proposed appointing a commission after the war to demarcate contiguous districts in the North-West and North-East with absolute Muslim majorities, where a plebiscite of all inhabitants (not just Muslims) would decide on separation.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the timeline of implementation.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The formula explicitly stated that its provisions would be binding only in the event of full transfer of power by Great Britain after the termination of World War II.

Key Concept

Rajagopalachari (C.R.) Formula of 1944
Question 2431Question →

Match the physical applications and everyday observations in List-I with their underlying governing physics principles in List-II, and select the correct matching combination.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Spontaneous upward movement of ink through blotting paper and oil climbing a cotton lamp wick
Apparent shift in the perceived pitch of a train whistle as it passes a stationary observer
Silvering on the inner glass surfaces of a vacuum thermos flask to maintain liquid temperature
Operation of oceanographic SONAR systems to map seabed topography and locate submerged vessels

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Spontaneous upward movement of ink matches Capillary action driven by surface tension; Apparent shift in train whistle pitch matches Doppler Effect; Silvering on vacuum thermos flask surfaces matches Reflection of infrared thermal radiation; and Operation of SONAR matches Reflection and echo timing of ultrasonic acoustic waves.
Each everyday observation is correctly paired with its underlying physical principle: capillary action drives fluid transport through porous media; relative wave source motion causes pitch shifts governed by the Doppler Effect; highly reflective silver coatings suppress thermal energy transfer by reflecting infrared radiation; and SONAR uses reflected ultrasonic acoustic waves for underwater object localization.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the liquid transport phenomenon in blotting paper and lamp wicks (Item 1).
Correlated with Capillarity and Surface Tension (Right Item 1).
Fine interconnected pores act as narrow capillary tubes where adhesive forces between liquid molecules and porous material overcome gravitational forces.
2
Examine the pitch variation of a moving sound source (Item 2).
Correlated with the Doppler Effect (Right Item 2).
Relative velocity between a wave emitter and detector alters the observed frequency of sound waves.
3
Examine thermal loss prevention techniques in vacuum thermos flasks (Item 3).
Correlated with Thermal Radiation Reflection (Right Item 3).
A reflective silver coating lowers emissivity and reflects electromagnetic radiation in the infrared spectrum.
4
Examine underwater distance measurement via acoustic signals (Item 4).
Correlated with Ultrasonic Echo Ranging (Right Item 4).
SONAR relies on sending ultrasonic pulses through water and tracking their reflected echo return times.

Key Concept

Everyday Applications of Mechanics, Acoustics, and Thermal Physics Principles
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2432Question →

Polaroid sunglasses are widely used to reduce glare from horizontal reflective surfaces such as wet asphalt roads and water bodies during sunny days. Which wave property of light is primarily utilized by polaroid lenses to eliminate this reflective glare?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Polarization by reflection, where reflected light becomes predominantly horizontally polarized and is blocked by vertically aligned polarizing filters.

Answer

Polarization by reflection, where reflected light becomes horizontally polarized and is selectively absorbed by vertically aligned polarizing filters in the lenses.
When natural unpolarized light reflects off a flat horizontal surface, the reflected rays become polarized parallel to that surface (horizontally). Polaroid lenses feature vertically oriented transmission axes that selectively absorb this horizontally polarized glare while permitting useful ambient light to pass.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the nature of unpolarized sunlight and its reflection off horizontal surfaces.
Unpolarized sunlight contains electric field oscillations in all planes perpendicular to the propagation direction. When it reflects off smooth non-metallic horizontal surfaces (like water or road asphalt), the electric field components parallel to the surface (horizontal plane) are preferentially reflected.
According to Brewster's law, at specific reflection angles, the reflected light becomes strongly linearly polarized in the horizontal plane.
2
Determine the operating principle of polaroid sunglasses.
Polaroid sunglasses are manufactured with their transmission axis aligned vertically.
Vertically oriented polarizing filters absorb horizontally polarized light waves while allowing vertically polarized ambient light to pass through, effectively cutting off the glaring reflections.

Key Concept

Polarization of Light and Brewster's Law
Question 2433Question →

Consider the following statements regarding major human infectious diseases and their modes of transmission:

1. Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) is caused by a protozoan parasite and is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected sandflies.
2. Japanese Encephalitis is a bacterial disease transmitted to humans primarily through the bite of infected Anopheles mosquitoes.
3. Chikungunya is caused by an RNA virus and is transmitted to humans primarily by Aedes mosquitoes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) is caused by the protozoan parasite Leishmania donovani and transmitted to humans via phlebotomine sandflies. Chikungunya is caused by an RNA alphavirus transmitted principally by Aedes mosquitoes. Conversely, Japanese Encephalitis is a mosquito-borne viral encephalitis caused by a flavivirus and transmitted by Culex mosquitoes (predominantly Culex tritaeniorhynchus), making statement 2 false and rendering the option specifying '1 and 3 only' the correct choice.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)
Statement 1 is correct.
Visceral Leishmaniasis is caused by the protozoan parasite Leishmania donovani and is transmitted by the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies (Phlebotomus argentipes).
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Japanese Encephalitis
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Japanese Encephalitis is caused by the Japanese Encephalitis Virus (a flavivirus, not a bacterium) and is transmitted primarily by mosquitoes of the Culex genus (mainly Culex tritaeniorhynchus), not Anopheles mosquitoes.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Chikungunya
Statement 3 is correct.
Chikungunya is an infection caused by the Chikungunya virus (an RNA virus of the Togaviridae family) transmitted to humans by Aedes mosquitoes (Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus).

Key Concept

Classification of infectious human diseases by pathogen type (protozoan, viral, bacterial) and their specific insect vectors
Question 2434Question →

Arrange the following cellular events occurring during Prophase I of Meiosis I in the correct chronological order from beginning to end:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order of events during meiotic Prophase I is: (1) Chromatin condensation (Leptotene), (2) Synaptonemal complex formation and pairing (Zygotene), (3) Recombination nodules and crossing over (Pachytene), (4) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex and visible chiasmata (Diplotene), and (5) Terminalisation of chiasmata and nuclear envelope breakdown (Diakinesis).
Prophase I of meiosis consists of five sequential stages: Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, and Diakinesis. Chromatin condensation initiates in Leptotene, followed by homologous pairing and synaptonemal complex formation in Zygotene. Recombination modules catalyze crossing over in Pachytene. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex in Diplotene reveals chiasmata, which then undergo terminalisation alongside nuclear membrane breakdown in Diakinesis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the first substage of Prophase I (Leptotene).
Chromatin condenses into long thread-like structures visible under light microscopy.
Compaction of genetic material is the prerequisite step before homologous chromosome pairing can take place.
2
Identify the second substage of Prophase I (Zygotene).
Homologous chromosomes align side-by-side (synapsis) mediated by the zipper-like synaptonemal complex.
Stabilizing pair structure is required to position non-sister chromatids in close proximity for recombination.
3
Identify the third substage of Prophase I (Pachytene).
Recombination nodules form and non-sister chromatids undergo enzymatic reciprocal crossing over.
Genetic variation is introduced through physical exchange of DNA segments between paired homologues.
4
Identify the fourth substage of Prophase I (Diplotene).
The synaptonemal complex degrades, causing homologues to separate except at points of crossing over (chiasmata).
Desynapsis allows structural visualization of the X-shaped chiasmata locations.
5
Identify the fifth substage of Prophase I (Diakinesis).
Chiasmata shift toward the ends of chromosomes (terminalisation), the nucleolus degrades, and the nuclear envelope disintegrates.
Prepares the bivalent chromosomes for alignment along the metaphase plate in Meiosis I.

Key Concept

Substages and Molecular Events of Meiotic Prophase I
Question 2435Question →

Under the statutory framework established by the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is laid down as the nodal statutory body for policy layout and coordination of disaster management in India. Who among the following serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Prime Minister of India

Answer

The Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority.
Under Section 3(2)(a) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) consists of a Chairperson and up to nine other members nominated by the Chairperson. The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the NDMA.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the governing statute for disaster management in India.
The relevant legislation is the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
Statutory non-constitutional bodies derive their composition and authority directly from their enabling enactments.
2
Analyze Section 3 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 regarding NDMA establishment and leadership.
Section 3(2)(a) specifies that the Authority consists of a Chairperson who is the Prime Minister of India ex-officio.
This top-tier leadership ensures cross-ministerial authority and rapid executive mobilization during national emergencies.

Key Concept

Statutory Leadership of National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
Question 2436Question →

Vinegar is widely used in household cooking, food preservation, and pickling to prevent food spoilage. Which organic acid is the primary active component present in household vinegar?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Acetic acid

Answer

Acetic acid is the primary constituent of household vinegar.
Acetic acid (CH3COOHCH_3COOH), also known systematically as ethanoic acid, is produced via bacterial fermentation of ethanol and forms the essential acidic ingredient (usually 4–8% by volume) in commercial and household vinegar.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the chemical composition of household vinegar.
Household vinegar is a dilute aqueous solution consisting mainly of acetic acid (CH3COOHCH_3COOH) in water.
Fermentation of ethanol by acetic acid bacteria yields acetic acid, which provides vinegar with its characteristic sour taste and preservative qualities.

Key Concept

Chemical compounds in everyday household use
Question 2437Question →

With reference to India's Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP), which of the following missiles was developed specifically as a surface-to-air missile system?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Akash

Answer

Akash
Akash was developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) as a medium-range surface-to-air missile system capable of targeting aircraft, helicopters, and drones.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary missiles developed under India's Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
The five core missiles developed under IGMDP are Prithvi, Agni, Trishul, Akash, and Nag.
Recognizing the core missile list is the first step in identifying their roles.
2
Classify each missile by its operational role and deployment domain.
Prithvi and Agni are surface-to-surface ballistic missiles, Nag is an anti-tank missile, and Akash (along with Trishul) is a surface-to-air missile.
Matching the operational role confirms which missile is dedicated to air defense against surface targets.

Key Concept

Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) Classifications
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2438Question →

With reference to the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 and the composition of the Constituent Assembly of India, consider the following statements:

1. Members from British Indian provinces were directly elected on the basis of universal adult franchise.
2. Seats allocated to each province were divided among three main communities—Muslims, Sikhs, and General—in proportion to their respective populations.
3. Representatives of the Princely States were to be nominated by the heads of those states.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

2 and 3 only
Under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, the Constituent Assembly was framed as a partly elected and partly nominated body. Representatives of British Indian provinces were elected indirectly by provincial legislative assemblies using single transferable vote. Within each province, seats were allocated to three defined communities (Muslims, Sikhs, and General) according to population proportions. Representatives from Princely States were nominated by their respective rulers. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the election method of provincial representatives.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Members of the Constituent Assembly from British Indian provinces were indirectly elected by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies using the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote, not by direct universal adult franchise.
Direct election on the basis of adult suffrage was rejected at the time due to practical constraints and time limits under the Cabinet Mission Plan.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding communal allocation of seats in provinces.
Statement 2 is correct. Seats allocated to each British province were divided among three principal communities—Muslims, Sikhs, and General (all except Muslims and Sikhs)—in proportion to their populations.
This communal grouping ensured representative proportion for religious groups as per the Cabinet Mission framework.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding representation from Princely States.
Statement 3 is correct. The 93 seats allotted to the Princely States were to be filled by representatives nominated by the heads/rulers of the Princely States.
The Princely States were not part of British India and did not have elective legislative assemblies under the same framework, necessitating nomination by their respective rulers.

Key Concept

Composition and election scheme of the Constituent Assembly under the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2439Question →

Regarding the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) under the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, which of the following provisions are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: The Central Vigilance Commissioner holds office for a term of four years from the date of entering office or until attaining the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.; The Selection Committee for recommending the appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

Answer

The provisions stating a 4-year or 65-year age tenure limit and the Prime Minister leading the selection committee are correct.
The statements confirming the 4-year/65-year tenure limit and the Prime Minister heading the appointment selection committee accurately reflect the provisions of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statutory tenure provision of the Central Vigilance Commission.
The Central Vigilance Commissioner serves a tenure of 4 years or until reaching 65 years of age.
This is mandated under Section 4(1) of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.
2
Examine the composition of the recommendation committee.
The Prime Minister chairs the 3-member committee alongside the Home Minister and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha.
Section 4(1) explicitly outlines the 3-member committee headed by the Prime Minister.
3
Verify post-retirement employment and constitutional status provisions.
Members are barred from future government employment, and the body is statutory rather than constitutional.
The CVC was established as a statutory body via parliament act in 2003, with strict post-tenure disqualifications.

Key Concept

Statutory framework, appointment, and tenure restrictions of the Central Vigilance Commission
Question 2440Question →

Arrange the following composite development indicators in the correct chronological order of their introduction in global development literature, from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Physical Quality of Life Index (1979) → Human Development Index (1990) → Gender Inequality Index (2010) → Planetary pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (2020).
The correct chronological timeline begins with PQLI in 1979, followed by HDI in 1990, GII in 2010, and PHDI in 2020.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the year of formulation for the Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI).
PQLI was established in 1979 by Morris D. Morris.
It was created as an early composite measure aggregating infant mortality, life expectancy at age one, and basic literacy.
2
Determine the launch year of the Human Development Index (HDI).
HDI was launched in 1990 by Mahbub ul Haq and Amartya Sen under the UNDP.
It shifted focus from purely income-based growth metrics to human-centered development indicators.
3
Identify the introduction year of the Gender Inequality Index (GII).
GII was introduced in the 2010 Human Development Report.
It provided a refined framework measuring gender disparities in reproductive health, empowerment, and economic status.
4
Identify the publication year of the Planetary pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (PHDI).
PHDI was introduced in the 2020 UNDP report.
It adjusts traditional HDI to account for environmental degradation by factoring in per capita carbon emissions and material footprint.

Key Concept

Historical evolution and timeline of global development indicators
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