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Question 2441Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts in India:

1. The writ jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226 is broader than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32 because it extends to non-fundamental legal rights.
2. The Supreme Court's power to grant Special Leave to Appeal under Article 136 applies to decisions rendered by tribunals constituted under laws relating to the Armed Forces.
3. The High Court's power of superintendence under Article 227 applies over all subordinate courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction, excluding military tribunals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
The option selecting statements 1 and 3 only is correct. Article 226 gives High Courts broader subject-matter writ powers ('for any other purpose') than Article 32. Additionally, both Article 136(2) and Article 227(4) constitutionally exclude courts-martial and military tribunals from the respective Special Leave Appeal and High Court superintendence jurisdictions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Writ Jurisdiction scope (Article 32 vs Article 226).
Article 32 allows writ petitions strictly for enforcement of Fundamental Rights, whereas Article 226 enables High Courts to issue writs for Fundamental Rights as well as 'for any other purpose' (ordinary legal rights). Statement 1 is correct.
Constitutional provisions explicitly define the remedy scope under Article 226 wider than Article 32.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Special Leave Petition under Article 136.
Article 136(2) explicitly states that nothing in Article 136(1) applies to any judgment, determination, sentence or order passed by any court or tribunal constituted under any law relating to the Armed Forces. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Armed forces tribunals are constitutional exceptions to Article 136.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding High Court Superintendence under Article 227.
Article 227(4) explicitly specifies that the power of superintendence does not extend to any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces. Statement 3 is correct.
Military courts are statutory exceptions to High Court administrative and judicial superintendence under Article 227.

Key Concept

Scope of Writ Jurisdiction and Exceptions to Supreme Court / High Court Authority
Question 2442Question →

Consider the following statements regarding India's Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme:

1. Stage I utilizes Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) fueled by natural uranium.
2. Stage II involves Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) designed to use plutonium derived from Stage I to breed fissile material from thorium.
3. Stage III envisions Advanced Heavy Water Reactors (AHWRs) fueled primarily by Uranium-235.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The statements describing Stage I (PHWRs utilizing natural uranium) and Stage II (Fast Breeder Reactors converting Thorium to fissile material) are factually accurate. The third statement is incorrect because Stage III is designed around the Thorium and Uranium-233 fuel cycle, not Uranium-235.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Stage I reactors and fuel.
Statement 1 is correct. Stage I uses Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) fueled by natural uranium, which produces electricity and fissile Plutonium-239 as a byproduct.
Natural uranium primarily consists of Uranium-238, which transmutes into Plutonium-239 during reactor operations.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Stage II reactors and fuel breeding.
Statement 2 is correct. Stage II employs Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) fueled by Plutonium-239 with a Thorium-232 blanket to breed Uranium-233.
Fast Breeder Reactors produce more fissile material than they consume, enabling the transition to thorium-based reactors.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Stage III reactor fuel composition.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Stage III utilizes Advanced Heavy Water Reactors (AHWRs) based on the Thorium-232 and Uranium-233 fuel cycle, not Uranium-235.
India possesses vast reserves of Thorium, making Uranium-233 (bred from Thorium) the target fuel for Stage III rather than rare imported Uranium-235.

Key Concept

India's Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme
Question 2443Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the structural features and evolution of temples during the Gupta period:

1. The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh is an early example of the Panchayatana layout that introduced a curvilinear spire (Shikhara) over the sanctum.
2. The Bhitargaon temple in Kanpur is a notable Gupta-era brick structure featuring a high terraced basement and an early stepped Shikhara.
3. Early Gupta structural temples were characterized by a flat roof, a plain unadorned Garbhagriha, and a shallow pillared porch in front.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements are correct (1, 2 and 3).
The correct response identifies that all three statements are historically and architecturally valid. Gupta architecture demonstrates a clear evolution from basic flat-roofed single-chamber shrines (like Sanchi Temple 17) to elaborate terraced brick structures (Bhitargaon) and classic stone Panchayatana temples featuring early Shikharas (Deogarh).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1
Statement 1 is correct.
The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh (Uttar Pradesh), built in the early 6th century CE during the late Gupta period, is recognized for its Panchayatana style (main shrine surrounded by four subsidiary shrines) and for incorporating an early form of a curvilinear Shikhara over the Garbhagriha.
2
Analyze Statement 2
Statement 2 is correct.
The Bhitargaon Temple in Kanpur district, Uttar Pradesh, constructed in the 5th century CE, is one of the oldest surviving terracotta brick temples with a high plinth and a prominent early stepped Shikhara.
3
Analyze Statement 3
Statement 3 is correct.
The earliest phase of Gupta temple building (e.g., Temple No. 17 at Sanchi and the Kankali Devi temple at Tigawa) consisted of a simple flat-roofed square Garbhagriha with plain interior walls and a small open pillared porch (Mandapa) at the entrance.

Key Concept

Evolutionary phases of Gupta temple architecture from simple flat-roofed structures to complex Nagara style foundations.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2444Question →

In India, agricultural fertilizer subsidies constitute a major component of government fiscal allocation and food security policy. Which of the following statements regarding the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) policy and fertilizer subsidy mechanisms in India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Under the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme, the subsidy rate for Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers is determined on a per-kilogram nutrient basis, leaving their retail market prices to be declared by fertilizer companies.; Urea is excluded from the NBS regime, with its Maximum Retail Price (MRP) continuing to be statutorily controlled and fixed by the Central Government.

Answer

The correct statements are that the NBS scheme fixes subsidy rates per kilogram of nutrient for P&K fertilizers while allowing market pricing, and that urea remains outside the NBS regime under statutory government price control.
The correct statements accurately identify the core mechanisms of India's fertilizer subsidy regime: Phosphatic and Potassic fertilizers operate under the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) policy where per-nutrient subsidy rates are fixed while MRPs are deregulated, whereas Urea is excluded from NBS and remains subject to statutory MRP fixation by the Union Government.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the pricing and subsidy structure of P&K fertilizers under the NBS policy.
Confirm that NBS fixes per-kg nutrient subsidy rates for P&K fertilizers, while retail prices are market-determined by manufacturers.
This incentivizes efficient fertilizer usage and price reflection based on raw material costs.
2
Evaluate the regulatory regime governing Urea in India.
Confirm that Urea is kept outside NBS and its retail price is statutorily fixed by the Central Government.
Urea remains heavily subsidized and price-controlled to shield farmers from high nitrogen costs, though it leads to skewed NPK usage ratios.
3
Examine the operational mechanism of Fertilizer Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
Identify that DBT pays the subsidy to companies upon PoS device verification of sales to farmers, not cash transfer to farmers' bank accounts.
Direct cash transfers to farmers are complex due to tenant farming issues and landholding records, so point-of-sale verification at retail outlets is utilized.
4
Check provisions regarding micro-nutrient fortification under NBS.
Verify that additional subsidy per tonne is allocated for micro-nutrient fortified fertilizers.
The policy aims to tackle soil micronutrient deficiencies by encouraging manufacturers to incorporate Zinc and Boron.

Key Concept

Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) policy and Fertilizer Subsidy Delivery Architecture in Indian Agriculture
Question 2445Question →

Regarding human infectious diseases, their causative agents, and transmission mechanisms, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Lymphatic filariasis is a parasitic infection caused by microscopic filarial worms such as WuchereriaWuchereria bancroftibancrofti, primarily transmitted to humans through the bites of infected mosquitoes.; Leptospirosis is a bacterial zoonotic disease caused by spirochetes of the genus LeptospiraLeptospira, commonly contracted through exposure to water or soil contaminated with the urine of infected animals.

Answer

The correct statements are the ones describing Lymphatic Filariasis as a filarial worm infection transmitted by mosquitoes and Leptospirosis as a bacterial zoonotic disease caused by LeptospiraLeptospira spirochetes.
The statements correctly identifying Lymphatic Filariasis (filarial worm transmitted by mosquito vectors) and Leptospirosis (bacterial spirochete infection spread via urine-contaminated water/soil) accurately reflect established epidemiological and physiological facts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the etiology and transmission of Lymphatic Filariasis and Leptospirosis.
Lymphatic Filariasis is a parasitic worm infection (WuchereriaWuchereria bancroftibancrofti) transmitted by mosquitoes. Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection (LeptospiraLeptospira) contracted via exposure to contaminated animal urine.
Both descriptions accurately match the pathogen classification and primary vector/route of transmission.
2
Evaluate the statements regarding Rabies and Chikungunya.
Rabies is caused by a Lyssavirus (not ClostridiumClostridium tetanitetani). Chikungunya is caused by an Alphavirus transmitted by AedesAedes mosquitoes (not a protozoan transmitted by sandflies).
Identifying pathogen type (viral vs bacterial vs protozoan) and vector species shows both statements conflate distinct disease etiologies.

Key Concept

Classification of infectious human diseases by pathogen type (bacterial, viral, helminthic) and vectors
Question 2446Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the administrative and economic demands raised by early leaders of the Indian National Congress during its Moderate phase (1885–1905) are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Separation of the executive and judicial functions of administration to ensure civil liberties; Reduction in imperial military expenditure and greater allocation of public funds towards technical education and agriculture

Answer

The correct demands articulated during the Moderate phase are the separation of the executive and judicial functions and the reduction of imperial military expenditure in favor of technical education.
During the early phase of the Indian National Congress (1885–1905), Moderate leaders focused on constitutional and administrative reforms. Key demands included separating judicial functions from executive authority to prevent administrative abuse and reducing excessive military expenditures so that public revenue could be reallocated toward technical education, industrial development, and agricultural relief.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze administrative reform demands of the early Moderate phase (1885–1905).
The demand for separating executive powers from judicial authority was a key administrative plank to protect citizens from magisterial abuse.
District magistrates held both executive and judicial authority, leading to compromised judicial impartiality.
2
Analyze fiscal and economic priorities advocated by early INC leaders.
Leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji and G.K. Gokhale strongly criticized excessive military budgets and pushed for funds to be allocated to technical education and development.
Colonial military spending drained Indian revenue to fund imperial expansion overseas.
3
Evaluate statements regarding political goals and civil service reforms.
Demands focused on Indianization of services via simultaneous ICS exams (not abolition) and constitutional self-governance within the empire (not immediate Purna Swaraj).
Complete independence was declared as a goal at the 1929 Lahore session, whereas early Moderates worked within constitutional frameworks.

Key Concept

Administrative and Economic Demands of Early INC Moderates
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2447Question →

With reference to human infectious diseases, vector transmission, and pathogen classification, consider the following statements:

1. Japanese Encephalitis is caused by a flavivirus and is transmitted primarily to humans by infected CulexCulex mosquitoes, with pigs acting as key amplifying hosts.
2. Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferiBorrelia\ burgdorferi, transmitted through the bite of infected hard-bodied IxodesIxodes ticks.
3. Chagas disease (American Trypanosomiasis) is caused by the protozoan parasite Trypanosoma cruziTrypanosoma\ cruzi and is primarily transmitted by triatomine bugs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 3

Answer

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.
All three statements accurately describe the etiology and transmission dynamics of their respective diseases: Japanese Encephalitis is flaviviral (CulexCulex-borne with pig amplifying hosts), Lyme disease is bacterial (Borrelia burgdorferiBorrelia\ burgdorferi via IxodesIxodes ticks), and Chagas disease is protozoan (Trypanosoma cruziTrypanosoma\ cruzi via triatomine bugs).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Japanese Encephalitis.
Statement 1 is correct. Japanese Encephalitis is a viral zoonotic disease caused by a single-stranded RNA virus of the genus FlavivirusFlavivirus. It is transmitted by CulexCulex mosquitoes (primarily Culex tritaeniorhynchusCulex\ tritaeniorhynchus), where domestic pigs and wild wading birds serve as main amplifying hosts.
Verifying the viral etiology, mosquito vector genus, and animal reservoir hosts.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Lyme disease.
Statement 2 is correct. Lyme disease is a bacterial zoonosis caused by the obligate spirochete Borrelia burgdorferiBorrelia\ burgdorferi (and related species), transmitted to humans via bites from infected black-legged ticks of the genus IxodesIxodes.
Verifying the bacterial nature of the spirochete and the tick vector.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Chagas disease.
Statement 3 is correct. Chagas disease (American Trypanosomiasis) is caused by the flagellated protozoan parasite Trypanosoma cruziTrypanosoma\ cruzi, vector-borne transmitted through the feces of blood-sucking triatomine bugs ('kissing bugs').
Verifying the protozoan pathogen classification and insect vector.

Key Concept

Pathogen classification (viral vs. bacterial vs. protozoan) and vector biology of human infectious diseases
Question 2448Question →

Consider the following statements regarding optical phenomena observed in daily life:

1. Polarized sunglasses effectively reduce glare from horizontal surfaces such as water or asphalt because light reflected at Brewster's angle is predominantly horizontally polarized.
2. The white appearance of clouds, as opposed to the blue color of a clear sky, is attributed to Mie scattering by water droplets that scatter all visible wavelengths almost equally.
3. In the formation of a primary rainbow, sunlight undergoes two internal reflections and two refractions inside a raindrop, resulting in an inverted color sequence relative to a secondary rainbow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The option stating '1 and 2 only' is correct. Glare reduction in polaroids relies on blocking horizontally polarized light reflected off flat surfaces (Statement 1). Clouds appear white because large droplet diameters cause Mie scattering, which scatters all colors of light equally (Statement 2). Statement 3 is incorrect because a primary rainbow is formed by a single internal reflection combined with two refractions inside raindrops, whereas a secondary rainbow involves two internal reflections.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding glare and polarization.
Statement 1 is TRUE.
When unpolarized light strikes a smooth horizontal reflecting surface (like water or wet roads) near Brewster's angle, the reflected light becomes polarized parallel to the surface (horizontally polarized). Polarized sunglasses contain vertically oriented polarizing filters that absorb this horizontally polarized light, effectively eliminating glare.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding cloud color and scattering type.
Statement 2 is TRUE.
Rayleigh scattering occurs when scattering particles are much smaller than the wavelength of light (d≪λ d \ll \lambda), selectively scattering shorter blue wavelengths. In clouds, water droplets are significantly larger than light wavelengths (d≥λd \ge \lambda), triggering Mie scattering, which scatters all visible light wavelengths nearly equally, causing clouds to appear white.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding rainbow optics.
Statement 3 is FALSE.
A primary rainbow is formed when sunlight enters a spherical raindrop, undergoes refraction upon entry, one internal reflection at the back of the droplet, and a second refraction upon exit (1 reflection, 2 refractions). A secondary rainbow involves two internal reflections and two refractions (2 reflections, 2 refractions), which also makes it fainter and causes its color order (red inside, violet outside) to be reversed compared to the primary rainbow.

Key Concept

Optical Phenomena in Daily Life (Polarization, Mie Scattering, and Rainbow Internal Reflection)
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2449Question →

Match the Committees of the Constituent Assembly of India in List-I with their respective Chairpersons in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Steering Committee
Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee
States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States)
Order of Business Committee

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Steering Committee corresponds to Dr. Rajendra Prasad; Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee corresponds to J.B. Kripalani; States Committee corresponds to Jawaharlal Nehru; Order of Business Committee corresponds to Dr. K.M. Munshi.
The Constituent Assembly appointed several committees to handle specific tasks of constitution-making. The Steering Committee was headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee by J.B. Kripalani, the States Committee by Jawaharlal Nehru, and the Order of Business Committee by Dr. K.M. Munshi.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the leadership of the Steering Committee.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad chaired the Steering Committee.
As President of the Constituent Assembly, he led procedural and steering committees.
2
Identify the chairperson of the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee.
J.B. Kripalani chaired the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee.
While Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel chaired the main Advisory Committee, J.B. Kripalani headed the sub-committee specifically responsible for fundamental rights.
3
Identify the chairperson of the States Committee.
Jawaharlal Nehru chaired the States Committee.
Nehru headed key federal committees, including Union Powers, Union Constitution, and the States Committee.
4
Identify the chairperson of the Order of Business Committee.
Dr. K.M. Munshi chaired the Order of Business Committee.
Dr. K.M. Munshi managed the scheduling and prioritization of legislative business within the Assembly.

Key Concept

Committees of the Constituent Assembly and their Chairpersons
Question 2450Question →

Arrange the following stages of India's Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme in their correct sequential order of implementation, starting from the initial stage to the final stage.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence of India's Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme is: Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) using natural uranium, followed by Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) using plutonium, and culminating in Advanced reactors utilizing Thorium-232 and Uranium-233.
India's nuclear power programme was envisioned in three sequential stages to overcome natural uranium constraints and leverage abundant domestic thorium. Stage 1 employs Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) using natural uranium to yield power and plutonium-239. Stage 2 deploys Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) using plutonium-239 to breed more plutonium and convert Thorium-232 to Uranium-233. Stage 3 employs reactors utilizing the Thorium-232 and Uranium-233 fuel cycle for ultimate self-sustained nuclear energy production.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the foundation of India's nuclear plan formulated by Dr. Homi J. Bhabha.
The plan begins with Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) using natural uranium reserves to generate power and produce Plutonium-239.
Natural uranium is limited in India, making PHWRs the necessary initial fuel-building block.
2
Determine the second stage reactor technology.
Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) utilize the reprocessed Plutonium-239 from Stage 1 to breed additional fissile fuel and convert Thorium into Uranium-233.
Stage 2 acts as a bridge to convert Thorium into usable fissile material.
3
Determine the third and final stage reactor technology.
Advanced reactors (AHWRs/Thermal Breeders) utilize Thorium-232 and Uranium-233.
This stage enables complete utilization of India's extensive Thorium reserves to ensure long-term energy self-reliance.

Key Concept

India's Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme
Question 2451Question →

With reference to Public Interest Litigation (PIL) and judicial provisions under the Constitution of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A PIL can be entertained by both the Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.; The traditional rule of locus standi is relaxed in PIL matters to permit public-spirited citizens to file petitions on behalf of vulnerable social groups.

Answer

The correct statements are those affirming that PIL can be filed under Article 32 and Article 226, and that the traditional doctrine of locus standi is relaxed in public interest petitions.
The statements confirming that PIL can be entertained under Article 32 (Supreme Court) and Article 226 (High Courts), and that the rule of locus standi is relaxed for public interest cases, are correct based on Indian constitutional law jurisprudence.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate constitutional provisions governing Public Interest Litigation (PIL).
Articles 32 and 226 empower the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively to entertain PIL petitions for enforcing fundamental and public rights.
Judicial precedents have firmly established epistolary jurisdiction and PIL under both Articles 32 and 226.
2
Examine the doctrine of locus standi in PIL jurisprudence.
The strict rule that only an aggrieved person can file a writ petition is relaxed in PIL cases.
This relaxation ensures access to justice for marginalized citizens who cannot approach the court on their own.
3
Check Article 227 limitations regarding Armed Forces tribunals.
Article 227(4) explicitly removes military courts and tribunals from High Court superintendence.
Armed Forces courts operate under dedicated statutory systems exempt from Article 227.
4
Determine the scope of PIL against private entities.
PIL cannot be maintained for purely private contractual disputes against non-state actors.
PIL requires a public interest element, breach of public duty, or involvement of state action.

Key Concept

Public Interest Litigation (PIL) and Constitutional Jurisdictional Limits
Question 2452Question →

In the study of human health, vector-borne infectious diseases present complex interactions between pathogens, vectors, and human hosts. Which of the following statements regarding the etiology and vector transmission of these human diseases are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium and is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.; Chagas disease (American Trypanosomiasis) is caused by the protozoan parasite Trypanosoma cruzi and is transmitted primarily by triatomine bugs.

Answer

The statements asserting that Malaria is caused by Plasmodium protozoa transmitted by female Anopheles mosquitoes, and that Chagas disease is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi protozoa transmitted by triatomine bugs, are correct.
Malaria is accurately paired as a protozoan disease (PlasmodiumPlasmodium) transmitted by female AnophelesAnopheles mosquitoes. Chagas disease is accurately identified as a protozoan disease caused by Trypanosoma cruziTrypanosoma\ cruzi and transmitted via triatomine bugs (kissing bugs). Both descriptions correctly identify the pathogen kingdom/domain and vector.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the etiology of Malaria.
Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites (PlasmodiumPlasmodium species) and vectored by female AnophelesAnopheles mosquitoes.
Verify the pathogen category (protozoan) and vector (female Anopheles mosquito).
2
Analyze the etiology of Human African Trypanosomiasis (Sleeping Sickness).
Sleeping Sickness is caused by protozoa (Trypanosoma bruceiTrypanosoma\ brucei), not bacteria.
Identify pathogen confusion in classifying protozoan infections as bacterial.
3
Analyze the etiology of Chagas disease.
Chagas disease is caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruziTrypanosoma\ cruzi and vectored by triatomine bugs.
Confirm both the protozoan nature of the pathogen and the correct insect vector.
4
Analyze the etiology of Plague.
Plague is caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestisYersinia\ pestis transmitted by rat fleas (Xenopsylla cheopisXenopsylla\ cheopis), not a virus or mosquito.
Distinguish bacterial zoonoses from viral or mosquito-borne diseases.

Key Concept

Vector-borne Human Pathogen Classification (Protozoan vs Bacterial vs Viral Pathogens and Vector Associations)
Question 2453Question →

Under the flexible inflation targeting framework of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which financial metric serves as the official operational target of monetary policy?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Weighted Average Call Rate (WACR)

Answer

The Weighted Average Call Rate (WACR) serves as the official operational target of monetary policy in India.
In RBI's operational framework, monetary policy operations are calibrated to anchor the Weighted Average Call Rate (WACR) around the policy Repo Rate. The WACR reflects the cost of uncollateralized overnight borrowing among commercial banks, making it the immediate operational target of liquidity management.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the distinction between the nominal anchor, intermediate target, and operational target in the RBI's monetary policy framework.
The nominal anchor is headline CPI inflation (4%±2%4\% \pm 2\%). The operational target is the overnight uncollateralized call money rate, specifically the Weighted Average Call Rate (WACR).
Monetary policy operations (like LAF Repo, SDF, MSF, and OMO) are designed to steer day-to-day money market rates so that WACR closely tracks the policy Repo Rate.
2
Evaluate the option choices against the operational target definition.
WACR is directly guided by RBI's Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor to transmit policy rates across the broader financial system.
Aligning WACR with the policy Repo Rate ensures smooth transmission of monetary signals to bank lending and deposit rates.

Key Concept

Operational Target of RBI Monetary Policy
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2454Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the institutional design and implementation of Land Reforms and Land Titling in India post-Independence:

1. The first phase of land ceiling laws (1950s–1960s) generally took the individual as the unit of application, whereas the revised national guidelines of 1972 recommended taking the family as the unit.
2. In early tenancy reform legislations, the term 'personal cultivation' was defined loosely without requiring personal manual labor, which resulted in widespread evictions of tenants through 'voluntary surrenders'.
3. The National Land Records Modernization Programme (NLRMP), launched in 2008, was designed to transition the Indian land administration system from a presumptive title framework to a conclusive title framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
The option selecting statements 1, 2, and 3 is correct because all three statements describe historical and policy facts regarding Indian land reform phases accurately. The shift from individual to family units occurred post-1972, broad definitions of personal cultivation led to tenant evictions via voluntary surrenders, and NLRMP aimed to transition from presumptive to conclusive titling.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding land ceiling policy evolution.
Statement 1 is correct.
During the first phase of land ceiling legislation in the 1950s and 1960s, state laws applied ceiling limits on an individual landholder basis. This allowed large landowners to distribute holdings among family members. To curb this, the 1972 National Guidelines recommended treating a family (husband, wife, and minor children) as a single unit with reduced ceiling limits.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding tenancy reform loopholes.
Statement 2 is correct.
Early tenancy laws permitted landowners to resume land for 'personal cultivation'. However, 'personal cultivation' was defined broadly without mandating actual physical manual labor by the owner (allowing personal supervision or family supervision), leading landowners to force tenants into 'voluntary surrenders' to resume land.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding land title modernization programmes.
Statement 3 is correct.
The National Land Records Modernization Programme (NLRMP), launched in 2008 (later restructured as DILRMP), explicitly aimed to replace India's deed-registration system (presumptive title) with a title-certification system (conclusive land titling based on Torrens principles).

Key Concept

Land Ceiling Acts, Tenancy Reform Loopholes, and Conclusive Land Titling
Question 2455Question →

Typhoid fever is a common water-borne infectious disease in humans caused by Salmonella typhi. What type of pathogen is Salmonella typhi?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Bacterium

Answer

Bacterium
Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi, which is a pathogenic Gram-negative bacterium that spreads through contaminated food and water, affecting the intestinal tract and bloodstream.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the causative organism for Typhoid fever
Salmonella typhi
Typhoid fever is contracted through contaminated food or water containing the organism Salmonella typhi.
2
Classify Salmonella typhi within biological taxonomy
Gram-negative bacterium
Salmonella typhi is a rod-shaped, Gram-negative, flagellated bacterium belonging to the family Enterobacteriaceae.

Key Concept

Human Disease Pathogen Classification
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2456Question →

Arrange the following milestones in Indian defense technology in chronological order of their initial successful flight testing, starting from the earliest to the most recent:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: (1) First flight test of the Prithvi surface-to-surface missile (1988), followed by (2) First flight test of the Akash surface-to-air missile (1990), then (3) First flight test of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile (2001), and finally (4) First flight test of the Agni-V intercontinental ballistic missile (2012).
The correct chronological sequence is determined by the historical launch dates of each defense platform: Prithvi-I in 1988, Akash in 1990, BrahMos in 2001, and Agni-V in 2012.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the maiden flight test year of Prithvi.
Prithvi-I was first successfully flight-tested in February 1988 as part of the IGMDP.
Establishes the starting point for India's tactical missile program.
2
Identify the maiden flight test year of Akash.
Akash surface-to-air missile underwent its first flight test in 1990.
Places Akash after Prithvi in the development timeline of IGMDP missiles.
3
Identify the maiden test year of BrahMos.
BrahMos supersonic cruise missile was first test-fired in June 2001.
Establishes the early 2000s milestone for joint tactical cruise missile technology.
4
Identify the maiden flight test year of Agni-V.
Agni-V ICBM completed its maiden flight test in April 2012.
Marks the long-range intercontinental strategic missile milestone as the most recent of the group.

Key Concept

Chronology of Indian defense technology and missile program development milestones.
Question 2457Question →

Match the everyday physical applications in List-I with their underlying physics principles in List-II, and identify the correct set of matching pairs.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Working of hydraulic brakes in automobiles
Brilliant sparkling of a professionally cut diamond
Melting of a safety fuse wire during an electrical overload
Apparent loss of weight of a stone submerged in water

Matches

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Answer

The correct matching pairs connect: Hydraulic brakes with Pascal's Law; Brilliant sparkling of a diamond with Total internal reflection; Melting of a safety fuse with Joule heating effect; and Apparent loss of weight of a submerged stone with Archimedes' principle.
Each item in List-I correctly pairs with its foundational governing principle in List-II: hydraulic brakes rely on Pascal's law of fluid pressure; the brilliance of diamonds stems from total internal reflection; safety fuse wires function through Joule heating; and the buoyancy of submerged objects follows Archimedes' principle.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the principle behind hydraulic brakes in vehicles.
Hydraulic systems use incompressible fluids to transmit fluid pressure undiminished to brake shoes.
This direct application of fluid statics corresponds to Pascal's Law.
2
Examine the optical mechanism causing a diamond to shine brilliantly.
Light entering the diamond strikes inner faces at angles greater than the critical angle, trapping light through repeated internal reflection.
This matches total internal reflection.
3
Evaluate the thermal effect of electric current in a safety fuse wire.
Excess current generates heat proportional to current squared (I2I^2), raising the wire's temperature to its melting point.
This describes the Joule heating effect of electric current.
4
Determine the principle explaining reduced apparent weight of submerged objects.
Water exerts an upthrust force equal to the weight of displaced water.
This is defined by Archimedes' principle of buoyancy.

Key Concept

Everyday Applications of Fundamental Physics Laws
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2458Question →

Match the physiological processes and agricultural biotechnology mechanisms listed in List-I with their corresponding biological functions or modes of action listed in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Glomalin production by Vesicular-Arbuscular Mycorrhizal (VAM) fungi
Richmond-Lang effect mediated by Cytokinins
Systemic Acquired Resistance (SAR) pathway
RNA Interference (RNAi) technology in crop protection

Matches

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Answer

Glomalin production by VAM fungi matches with soil structure stabilization and phosphorus mobilization; the Richmond-Lang effect matches with delay of leaf senescence by maintaining protein synthesis and preventing chlorophyll loss; Systemic Acquired Resistance (SAR) matches with long-distance salicylic acid signaling and PR protein expression; and RNA Interference (RNAi) technology matches with sequence-specific mRNA degradation in target pests.
Each plant process is paired precisely with its established bio-molecular mechanism: VAM glomalin secretion stabilizes soil aggregates and improves phosphorus availability; cytokinin action responsible for the Richmond-Lang effect prevents chlorophyll breakdown; Systemic Acquired Resistance relies on salicylic acid-mediated induction of PR proteins; and pest-targeted RNAi acts via sequence-specific destruction of target pest mRNA.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the function of Vesicular-Arbuscular Mycorrhizal (VAM) fungi and glomalin in agricultural soil science.
Glomalin is a hydrophobic glycoprotein secreted by endomycorrhizal fungi (VAM) that promotes soil aggregate stability and assists in mobilizing immobile soil minerals, especially phosphorus.
Establishing the biochemical link between VAM fungi, glomalin secretion, and soil aggregate formation.
2
Analyze the plant physiological term 'Richmond-Lang effect'.
The Richmond-Lang effect specifically refers to cytokinin-induced preservation of chlorophyll content and inhibition of protein degradation, delaying leaf senescence.
Distinguishing hormone-specific physiological effects from general growth mechanisms.
3
Evaluate the mechanism of Systemic Acquired Resistance (SAR) in plant pathology.
SAR relies on endogenous salicylic acid accumulation following initial pathogen attack, leading to systemic synthesis of Pathogenesis-Related (PR) defense proteins throughout the plant.
Connecting plant immunity signaling pathways with systemic transcriptional activation.
4
Examine the mode of action of agricultural RNA Interference (RNAi) pest control.
RNAi technology uses engineered dsRNA sequences matching essential pest genes to cause gene silencing through targeted messenger RNA degradation.
Linking biotechnological gene expression tools to target-specific post-transcriptional silencing mechanisms.

Key Concept

Plant Physiological Signaling, Mycorrhizal Interactions, and Crop Biotechnology Applications
Question 2459Question →

Match the prominent Bhakti movement philosophers listed in List I with their corresponding philosophical schools listed in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Ramanujacharya
Madhvacharya
Nimbarkacharya
Vallabhacharya

Matches

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Answer

Ramanujacharya matches with Vishishtadvaita (Qualified Non-Dualism), Madhvacharya matches with Dvaita (Dualism), Nimbarkacharya matches with Dvaitadvaita (Dualistic Non-Dualism), and Vallabhacharya matches with Shuddhadvaita (Pure Non-Dualism).
Each medieval Bhakti philosopher formulated a distinct Vedantic school of thought. Ramanujacharya expounded Vishishtadvaita, Madhvacharya expounded Dvaita, Nimbarkacharya expounded Dvaitadvaita, and Vallabhacharya expounded Shuddhadvaita.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the philosophical tradition founded by Ramanujacharya.
Ramanujacharya propounded Vishishtadvaita (Qualified Non-Dualism).
He asserted that Brahman is qualified by matter and individual souls.
2
Identify the doctrine of Madhvacharya.
Madhvacharya propounded Dvaita (Dualism).
He taught that God, individual souls, and matter are eternally distinct entities.
3
Identify the doctrine of Nimbarkacharya.
Nimbarkacharya propounded Dvaitadvaita (Dualistic Non-Dualism).
He emphasized Radha-Krishna worship through the dual doctrine of difference and non-difference.
4
Identify the doctrine of Vallabhacharya.
Vallabhacharya propounded Shuddhadvaita (Pure Non-Dualism).
He taught that the entire world is real and non-different from Brahman without the illusion of Maya.

Key Concept

Philosophical Schools of the Bhakti Movement
Question 2460Question →

Match the following historical committees/commissions associated with Indian constitutional developments and the transfer of power with their primary scope or objective:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Muddiman Committee (1924)
Butler Committee (1927)
Sapru Committee (1945)
Radcliffe Commission (1947)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Muddiman Committee (1924) matches with inquiring into Dyarchy under the 1919 Act; Butler Committee (1927) matches with examining relations between British Paramountcy and Princely States; Sapru Committee (1945) matches with constitutional proposals rejecting partition; Radcliffe Commission (1947) matches with demarcating the boundary lines of Bengal and Punjab.
Each committee is correctly mapped to its historical mandate: the Muddiman Committee reviewed Dyarchy under the GOI Act 1919; the Butler Committee evaluated Paramountcy regarding Princely States; the Sapru Committee sought an undivided constitutional framework; and the Radcliffe Commission established the physical boundaries for Partition in 1947.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the purpose of the Muddiman Committee (1924).
It was set up to evaluate the administrative working of Dyarchy introduced in provinces by the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919.
Official criticism of provincial Dyarchy prompted the British government to review its operational success.
2
Identify the focus of the Butler Committee (1927).
It investigated the legal and political relationship between the British Crown (Paramountcy) and the Princely States of India.
The growing national movement required defining Paramountcy and protecting the rulers' constitutional relationship with the Crown.
3
Analyze the recommendations of the Sapru Committee (1945).
It presented a non-party constitutional report advocating an undivided India with extensive minority rights, firmly rejecting the division of the country.
The committee aimed to resolve political deadlocks prior to the Cabinet Mission.
4
Determine the mandate of the Radcliffe Commission (1947).
It was tasked with drawing the boundary line separating India and Pakistan across Punjab and Bengal based on contiguous majority areas.
The Indian Independence Act of 1947 necessitated rapid demarcation of physical borders.

Key Concept

Committees and Commissions on Constitutional Developments and Transfer of Power
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