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Question 2681Question →

Which of the following in-situ conservation initiatives is primarily established to protect a wild species in its natural habitat within a designated state boundary?

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Answer: Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer

Wildlife Sanctuary is an in-situ conservation mechanism aimed at protecting wild flora and fauna in their natural habitat.
Wildlife Sanctuaries are legally recognized protected areas designed to conserve wild flora, fauna, and natural ecosystems directly within their natural environment, making them a prime example of in-situ conservation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Differentiate between in-situ and ex-situ conservation strategies.
In-situ conservation protects species in their original natural environments, whereas ex-situ conservation preserves species outside their natural habitats.
Understanding the fundamental distinction between on-site and off-site biodiversity protection is essential.
2
Classify the given options based on conservation category.
Wildlife Sanctuaries are in-situ protected areas, while Botanical Gardens, Zoological Parks, and Seed Banks are ex-situ conservation facilities.
Matching each facility to its conservation method helps identify the correct in-situ designation.

Key Concept

In-situ vs Ex-situ Biodiversity Conservation
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2682Question →

Match the following prominent mineral and natural resource belts of Odisha (List-I) with their primary mineral reserves (List-II), and choose the correct pair combinations:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Panchpatmali Hills (Koraput)
Sukinda Valley (Jajpur)
Badampahar (Mayurbhanj)
Talcher Basin (Angul)

Matches

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Answer

Panchpatmali Hills matches with Bauxite, Sukinda Valley matches with Chromite, Badampahar matches with Iron Ore, and Talcher Basin matches with Coal.
Panchpatmali Hills in Koraput is the prime center for bauxite mining. Sukinda Valley in Jajpur district holds virtually all of India's workable chromite reserves. Badampahar in Mayurbhanj district is a famous iron ore mining location. The Talcher Basin in Angul district is a major coalfield supplying several thermal power plants.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary mineral extracted from Panchpatmali Hills in Koraput district.
Panchpatmali is renowned as Odisha's largest bauxite mining belt.
NALCO operates its primary bauxite mine at Panchpatmali to supply the Damanjodi alumina refinery.
2
Determine the resource associated with Sukinda Valley in Jajpur district.
Sukinda Valley is the central hub for chromite mining in India.
The ultramafic complex of Sukinda accounts for almost the entire national production of chromite ore.
3
Associate Badampahar in Mayurbhanj district with its historic mineral deposit.
Badampahar contains major hematite iron ore reserves.
Iron ore from Badampahar historically supplied Tata Steel's early blast furnaces at Jamshedpur.
4
Identify the economic resource mined in the Talcher Basin of Angul district.
Talcher Basin is a major Gondwana coalfield producing thermal coal.
Mahanadi Coalfields Limited (MCL) operates extensive open-cast and underground coal mines in Talcher.

Key Concept

State Mineral Resource Geography and Major Mining Belts
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2683Question →

You are serving as the Head of Department in a State Secretariat. A junior officer submits a formal written grievance alleging workplace harassment, biased performance appraisal, and administrative marginalization by their immediate supervisory officer. Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological sequence to handle this grievance adhering strictly to administrative due process and workplace governance principles.

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Answer

The correct chronological order is: Acknowledge receipt and conduct preliminary scrutiny → Forward allegations to the respondent for a written response → Constitute an independent inquiry committee to examine evidence → Issue a reasoned administrative order based on the committee report → Establish post-decision compliance and anti-retaliation monitoring.
In public administration, handling workplace grievances mandates strict adherence to procedural due process and the principles of natural justice. The sequence must begin with formal acknowledgment and preliminary verification of prima facie merit. Following this, natural justice requires informing the officer against whom allegations are made and seeking their response. Only after initial pleadings are recorded can an independent inquiry committee be constituted to conduct fact-finding hearings. The findings of this committee form the empirical basis for the competent authority to issue a reasoned administrative order. Finally, administrative governance requires follow-up monitoring to ensure compliance and prevent future retaliation against the aggrieved subordinate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Preliminary Scrutiny & Documentation
Receipt is formally acknowledged, establishing administrative record and confirming prima facie validity.
Administrative procedure requires formal recording and validation before escalating matters.
2
Notice & Subordinate Representation
Respondent supervisor receives allegations and submits a defense statement.
Natural justice demands giving the accused officer notice of charges and an opportunity to respond.
3
Fact-Finding & Evidence Examination
The inquiry committee holds hearings, examines appraisals/documents, and compiles a comprehensive report.
Objective decision-making requires unbiased compilation of facts and testimonies.
4
Adjudication & Order Issuance
Competent authority evaluates findings and issues a formal binding administrative order.
Administrative accountability requires executive action based strictly on evidence.
5
Post-Order Oversight
Implementation is verified and safeguards against victimization are instituted.
Ensures sustainable grievance redressal and long-term organizational health.

Key Concept

Due Process and Chronological Workflow in Workplace Grievance Redressal
Question 2684Question →

Match the prominent mining regions of Odisha in List-I with their corresponding primary mineral reserves in List-II, and select the correct matching pairs.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Panchpatmali (Koraput)
Sukinda Valley (Jajpur)
Mayurbhanj District
Birmitrapur (Sundargarh)

Matches

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Answer

Panchpatmali (Koraput) pairs with Bauxite; Sukinda Valley (Jajpur) pairs with Chromite; Mayurbhanj District pairs with Iron Ore; and Birmitrapur (Sundargarh) pairs with Limestone and Dolomite.
The correct pairings accurately link each state mining region with its primary mineral deposit: Panchpatmali with Bauxite (supplying NALCO), Sukinda Valley with Chromite (holding over 90% of national reserves), Mayurbhanj District with Iron Ore (Gorumahisani and Badampahar mines), and Birmitrapur with Limestone and Dolomite.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary mineral resource extracted from Panchpatmali in Koraput district.
Panchpatmali is famous for rich bauxite deposits utilized by NALCO.
Koraput district forms the core of Odisha's bauxite belt.
2
Identify the primary mineral found in Sukinda Valley of Jajpur district.
Sukinda Valley holds the vast majority of India's chromite ore reserves.
It is the chief supplier of chromite for ferro-chrome metallurgical industries.
3
Match Mayurbhanj district with its prominent historical mineral exploitation.
Mayurbhanj is known for high-grade iron ore mines such as Gorumahisani and Badampahar.
These iron ore belts were among the earliest mined in India for steel manufacturing.
4
Match Birmitrapur in Sundargarh district with its characteristic industrial minerals.
Birmitrapur is a major mining center for limestone and dolomite.
These flux minerals are vital inputs for iron and steel plants across Eastern India.

Key Concept

Distribution of major mineral reserves and mining belts in Odisha's state economy
Question 2685Question →

Arrange the following historical milestones in the architectural and cultural heritage of Southern India in correct chronological order from earliest to latest:

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Pallava Shore Temple construction at Mamallapuram (early 8th century CE), followed by the Chola Brihadisvara Temple consecration at Thanjavur (1010 CE), followed by the composition of 'Amuktamalyada' by Krishnadevaraya (early 16th century CE), and finally the Madurai Nayak temple expansions under Thirumalai Nayak (mid-17th century CE).
The correct order follows the historical succession of ruling dynasties in South Indian regional heritage: Pallavas (early 8th century) → Imperial Cholas (early 11th century) → Vijayanagara Empire (early 16th century) → Madurai Nayaks (mid-17th century).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the date of the Pallava architectural achievements at Mamallapuram.
Narasimhavarman II (Rajasimha) ruled in the late 7th and early 8th century CE, with the Shore Temple constructed around 700–728 CE.
This places Pallava structural architecture at the beginning of the timeline among the given items.
2
Identify the timeline of Chola imperial architecture in Thanjavur.
Rajaraja I completed the Brihadisvara Temple in 1010 CE.
The imperial Chola period post-dates the Pallava classical phase.
3
Establish the period of Vijayanagara literary and cultural patronages.
Krishnadevaraya ruled from 1509 to 1529 CE and authored the 'Amuktamalyada' around 1515–1520 CE.
The Vijayanagara golden era succeeded the Chola period.
4
Locate the Madurai Nayak architectural additions in the chronological sequence.
Thirumalai Nayak ruled Madurai from 1623 to 1659 CE, initiating major structural additions to the Meenakshi temple complex.
The Nayak dynasty ruled as successor states after the disintegration of the main Vijayanagara central power.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of South Indian state cultural heritage, patron dynasties, and temple architectural styles.
Question 2686Question →

Arrange the following major international environmental conventions and protocols in chronological order of their adoption, from the earliest to the latest:

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence of adoption from earliest to latest is: Ramsar Convention (1971) → Montreal Protocol (1987) → Kyoto Protocol (1997) → Minamata Convention on Mercury (2013).
The correct sequence arranges the treaties according to their official adoption dates: Ramsar Convention (1971), Montreal Protocol (1987), Kyoto Protocol (1997), and Minamata Convention on Mercury (2013).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the adoption year for each international treaty
Ramsar Convention: 1971; Montreal Protocol: 1987; Kyoto Protocol: 1997; Minamata Convention: 2013.
Identifying exact adoption dates is essential for accurate historical sequencing.
2
Sort the treaties chronologically by year of adoption
1971 (Ramsar) comes before 1987 (Montreal), followed by 1997 (Kyoto), and lastly 2013 (Minamata).
Arranging the years in ascending numerical order yields the correct temporal progression.

Key Concept

Chronological Timeline of Key Environmental Conventions and Protocols
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2687Question →

Match the State Government Welfare Schemes listed in List-I with their corresponding core feature/objective detailed in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana (Rajasthan)
Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana (Madhya Pradesh)
YSR Rythu Bharosa (Andhra Pradesh)
Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana (Uttar Pradesh)

Matches

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Answer

Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana matches Cashless health coverage up to ₹25 lakh₹25\text{ lakh}; Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana matches Direct monthly transfer of ₹1,250₹1,250; YSR Rythu Bharosa matches Annual financial input assistance of ₹13,500₹13,500 including tenant farmers; Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana matches Conditional cash transfers released across six developmental milestones.
Each scheme is correctly mapped according to its sponsoring state government and official policy objective: Rajasthan's health insurance provides up to ₹25 lakh₹25\text{ lakh} coverage; Madhya Pradesh's Ladli Behna scheme provides ₹1,250₹1,250 monthly financial assistance to adult women; Andhra Pradesh's Rythu Bharosa delivers ₹13,500₹13,500 annual support including tenant farmers; and Uttar Pradesh's Kanya Sumangala scheme structures monetary benefits across six developmental milestones of the girl child.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary health mandate of Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Swasthya Bima Yojana.
Recognize that Rajasthan's flagship health scheme provides up to ₹25 lakh₹25\text{ lakh} cashless treatment per family annually.
Health schemes often have distinct maximum financial caps per family.
2
Analyze the financial outlay and target demographic of Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana.
Confirm Madhya Pradesh provides ₹1,250₹1,250 per month directly to eligible female domiciles aged 21–60.
Distinguishes general women welfare schemes from girl-child specific schemes.
3
Examine the agricultural assistance component of YSR Rythu Bharosa.
Match with Andhra Pradesh's provision of ₹13,500₹13,500 annually per farmer family, uniquely covering tenant farmers from marginalized groups.
Inclusion of tenant farmers is a key distinguishing state policy feature.
4
Evaluate the structure of Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana.
Connect Uttar Pradesh's scheme to the 6-stage milestone-based conditional cash transfer for female child welfare.
Milestone-based transfers encourage institutional delivery, vaccination, and school retention.

Key Concept

State Welfare Schemes and Eligibility Criteria
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2688Question →

Arrange the following historic temple monuments of Odisha in chronological order of their original construction, from the earliest to the latest:

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Answer

The correct chronological order of construction from earliest to latest is: Parasuramesvara Temple, Bhubaneswar (c. 7th century CE) → Mukteshvara Temple, Bhubaneswar (c. 10th century CE) → Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneswar (c. 11th century CE) → Sun Temple, Konark (c. 13th century CE).
The correct sequence tracks the architectural evolution of the Kalinga style in Odisha across successive ruling dynasties: Parasuramesvara Temple (7th century CE, Sailodbhava dynasty) represents the early phase; Mukteshvara Temple (10th century CE, Somavamshi dynasty) represents the transitional phase; Lingaraja Temple (11th century CE, Somavamshi dynasty) represents the mature phase; and the Sun Temple at Konark (13th century CE, Eastern Ganga dynasty) represents the climax.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the construction era of Parasuramesvara Temple.
Built around 650 CE during the Sailodbhava dynasty rule, making it one of the oldest surviving Kalinga-style temples in Odisha.
Establishes the early baseline phase of temple architecture in Bhubaneswar.
2
Determine the construction era of Mukteshvara Temple.
Built around 950–975 CE during the Somavamshi period, often described as the 'gem of Odisha architecture'.
Marks the transitional phase bridging early structures with classic mature Kalinga design.
3
Determine the construction era of Lingaraja Temple.
Built during the 11th century CE (c. 1025–1065 CE) primarily by King Jajati Keshari of the Somavamshi dynasty.
Represents the grand culmination of the Somavamshi phase and full Pancharatha plan.
4
Determine the construction era of Sun Temple at Konark.
Built in the mid-13th century CE (c. 1250 CE) under King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
Marks the culmination and final monumental scale of Kalinga architecture before decline.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of Kalinga temple architecture under various ruling dynasties of Odisha
Question 2689Question →

Consider the following major historical uprisings and movements in regional state history (Assam). Arrange these historical movements in their correct chronological order from the earliest to the latest. Which sequence represents the correct chronological order?

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Moamaria Rebellion against the Ahom monarchy (1769), Anti-British Revolt led by Gomdhar Konwar (1828), Phulaguri Dhawa peasant uprising (1861), and Patharughat Raij Mel agrarian revolt (1894).
The events progress chronologically as follows: the Moamaria Rebellion started in 1769 during the Ahom period; Gomdhar Konwar led the first post-Yandabo revolt against the East India Company in 1828; Phulaguri Dhawa took place in 1861 as the first popular agrarian struggle under crown rule; and the Patharughat Raij Mel occurred in 1894.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the historical year of origin for the Moamaria Rebellion
The uprising commenced in 1769 during the reign of Ahom King Lakshmi Singha.
It represents late medieval regional conflict prior to British expansion.
2
Determine the date of Gomdhar Konwar's rebellion
Gomdhar Konwar proclaimed himself king and revolted in 1828 after the 1826 Treaty of Yandabo.
This marks the immediate early colonial resistance phase in regional history.
3
Establish the timeframe of the Phulaguri Dhawa peasant movement
The movement erupted in October 1861 in Nagaon/Nowgong.
It was triggered by rumors of taxes on betel leaf/areca nut cultivation following the 1857 post-revolt crown administration takeover.
4
Determine the date of the Patharughat agrarian protest
The tragic massacre and revolt at Patharughat occurred in January 1894.
It was provoked by a 70–80% hike in land revenue assessments imposed by the British revenue policy.

Key Concept

Chronology of regional anti-colonial and agrarian movements in state history
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2690Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the physical and ecological features of the Eravikulam National Park:

1. It harbors the largest surviving population of the endangered Nilgiri Tahr (Nilgiritragus hylocriusNilgiritragus\ hylocrius).
2. Anamudi Peak, the highest peak in South India, is located inside the boundary of this national park.
3. It forms an immediate contiguous forest stretch with the Silent Valley National Park along its northern boundary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The statement identifying '1 and 2 only' is correct. Eravikulam National Park holds the world's largest population of the endangered Nilgiri Tahr and encloses South India's highest peak, Anamudi. However, it is contiguous with Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary and neighboring Shola parks in Idukki, not with Silent Valley National Park in Palakkad.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding fauna species.
Eravikulam National Park in the Western Ghats (Idukki district) is renowned for hosting the largest wild population of the Nilgiri Tahr. Statement 1 is correct.
Verify flagship endangered species of the sanctuary.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding geographical features.
Anamudi Peak (elevation 2,695 m2,695\text{ m}), the highest peak in Peninsular India, rises within the southern section of Eravikulam National Park. Statement 2 is correct.
Verify key topographic landmarks associated with state national parks.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding contiguous protected areas.
Eravikulam is contiguous with Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary, Anamudi Shola National Park, Pampadum Shola National Park, and Kurinjimala Sanctuary. Silent Valley National Park lies further north in the Palakkad district within the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and does not share a contiguous boundary with Eravikulam. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Distinguish distinct geographical nodes and spatial continuity of state wildlife corridors.

Key Concept

Spatial arrangement, geographical boundaries, and flagship species of state national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2691Question →

Arrange the following prominent regional uprisings and historical movements against British colonial administration in Indian state history in their correct chronological order, from the earliest to the latest:

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: First Polygar War led by Veerapandiya Kattabomman (1799), followed by Bhil Uprising in Khandesh (1818), Sawantwadi Revolt (1844), and Eka Movement in Awadh (1921).
The correct sequence follows the exact historical timeline of anti-colonial regional revolts: the First Polygar War took place in 1799 in Panchalankurichi; the Khandesh Bhil Uprising began in 1818 following the overthrow of the Peshwa; the Sawantwadi Revolt erupted in 1844 due to British administrative interference; and the Eka Movement in Awadh was launched in 1921 by Madari Pasi.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the exact execution or outbreak year for each historical movement.
First Polygar War occurred in 1799; Bhil Uprising in Khandesh started in 1818; Sawantwadi Revolt began in 1844; Eka Movement started in late 1921.
Accurate historical timeline retrieval is necessary for establishing regional movement chronology.
2
Sequence the events in ascending chronological order.
1799 (Polygar War) → 1818 (Bhil Uprising) → 1844 (Sawantwadi Revolt) → 1921 (Eka Movement).
Placing dates sequentially satisfies the chronological ordering criteria.

Key Concept

Chronological evaluation of regional anti-colonial rebellions, peasant movements, and state-level historical resistance.
Question 2692Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the historic Rampa Rebellion (1922–1924) in the Madras Presidency's Agency region:

1. It was led by Alluri Sitarama Raju, who organized tribal inhabitants against the oppressive provisions of the 1882 Madras Forest Act.
2. The rebels effectively used guerilla warfare tactics against British police posts across the Agency tracts.
3. The uprising ended peacefully following negotiations conducted under the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct answer is the choice containing '1 and 2 only'.
The correct statement combination recognizes that Alluri Sitarama Raju mobilized the tribal population against the Madras Forest Act of 1882 using guerilla tactics in the Agency hills between 1922 and 1924. Statement 3 is false because the uprising ended with Raju's martyrdom in May 1924.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1
Statement 1 is correct.
Alluri Sitarama Raju led the tribal people in the Agency areas of Visakhapatnam and Godavari districts against the Madras Forest Act of 1882, which restricted traditional tribal forest practices (Podu cultivation).
2
Evaluate Statement 2
Statement 2 is correct.
The rebellion was notable for its successful use of traditional weapons and guerilla warfare in dense forests, targeting British police stations to seize arms and ammunition.
3
Evaluate Statement 3
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The rebellion ended in May 1924 when Alluri Sitarama Raju was trapped, captured, and executed by British troops. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact occurred much later in March 1931.

Key Concept

Rampa Rebellion (1922-1924) and Regional Tribal Movements
Question 2693Question →

A Tribal Welfare Department is evaluating a policy to transition all social security pension disbursements to a mandatory smartphone-based biometric authentication system in a mountainous, low-connectivity district. Preliminary assessments show that 45% of remote habitations lack reliable cellular data connectivity, and elderly beneficiaries frequently experience biometric failure due to manual labor-worn fingerprints. Which of the following administrative strategies represents the most feasible and balanced policy response to ensure leak-proof yet accessible pension delivery?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Implement a hybrid delivery framework featuring offline-capable micro-ATMs operated by doorstep banking correspondents, backed by alternate verification protocols such as iris scans or local administrative authorization.

Answer

Implement a hybrid delivery framework featuring offline-capable micro-ATMs operated by doorstep banking correspondents, backed by alternate verification protocols such as iris scans or local administrative authorization.
The correct response addresses both technical and demographic constraints by introducing offline micro-ATMs for low-connectivity zones and alternative authentication methods (like iris scans or dual administrative signatures) for biometric failures. This preserves accountability while safeguarding access for vulnerable pension recipients.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify key policy bottlenecks
Recognized that 45% network outage and high biometric failure rates amongst elderly citizens impede a single mandatory digital rollout.
Public policy feasibility requires matching technology with local ground infrastructure and user capabilities.
2
Evaluate policy trade-offs across options
Eliminated options that cause severe beneficiary exclusion or completely subvert statutory fiscal accountability.
Effective public administration balances leakage prevention with social welfare access.
3
Select optimal administrative intervention
Chose the hybrid model offering offline synchronization and multimodal authentication.
This maintains administrative control while resolving geographical and biological constraints pragmatically.

Key Concept

Public Policy Feasibility and Impact Analysis
Question 2694Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the historic Bijolia Peasant Movement in regional state history are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: It originated in the Mewar princely state as a sustained agrarian struggle against excessive land revenue demands and arbitrary local feudal cesses (Lag-Bag).; Vijay Singh Pathik assumed leadership of the movement during its second phase, expanding its organizational base through the Rajasthan Seva Sangh.

Answer

The correct statements are that the movement originated in the Mewar princely state against exorbitant land revenue and cesses, and that Vijay Singh Pathik led its second phase.
The correct statements accurately identify that the Bijolia Peasant Movement originated in Mewar to protest heavy feudal cesses and that Vijay Singh Pathik effectively organized its second phase.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical origin and primary causes of the Bijolia movement
The Bijolia movement began in 1897 in Mewar (present-day Rajasthan) primarily as resistance against 84 different types of feudal cesses (Lag-Bag) and excessive revenue assessments.
Establishes the historical and regional context of the peasant struggle.
2
Verify key leadership contributions across movement phases
Vijay Singh Pathik (Bhup Singh) assumed leadership in 1916 (Phase 2), guiding the movement effectively and bringing national attention to the peasants' grievances.
Confirms the accurate leadership history without confusing external personalities.
3
Evaluate chronological timeline and legislative context
The struggle spanned from 1897 to 1941, making references to the 1857 Revolt or 1909 Morley-Minto Reforms chronologically and conceptually inaccurate.
Eliminates distractor statements based on historical misattribution and timeline errors.

Key Concept

Bijolia Peasant Movement
Question 2695Question →

In state demographic studies, distinguishing between absolute population counts and proportional distributions across administrative districts is essential for targeted tribal welfare policy. According to official Census data, which district of Madhya Pradesh records the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe (ST) population relative to its total district population?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Alirajpur

Answer

Alirajpur district records the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population relative to total district population in Madhya Pradesh at approximately 89%.
Alirajpur district holds the highest percentage concentration of Scheduled Tribe population in the state at approximately 89% of its total resident population.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the demographic indicators requested in the question stem
The requirement specifies finding the district with the highest proportion (percentage) of Scheduled Tribe (ST) population relative to its total population, not the absolute numerical count.
State PSC exams often contrast absolute demographic numbers against percentage proportions to test analytical precision.
2
Compare district-level ST population percentages from official Census metrics
Alirajpur leads with ~89% ST population, followed by Jhabua (~87%), Barwani (~69.4%), and Dhar (~53.6%).
Evaluating percentage figures reveals the concentration level of tribal demographics per district.
3
Identify the top-ranked district
Alirajpur is confirmed as the district with the highest percentage of ST population.
Alirajpur has the highest relative tribal concentration among all districts of Madhya Pradesh.

Key Concept

District-level Tribal Demographics and Proportional Distribution Metrics
Question 2696Question →

Match the environmental statutory bodies in List-I with their corresponding legal provisions and enacting statutes in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA)
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)

Matches

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Answer

Central Ground Water Authority matches with Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; Central Pollution Control Board matches with Section 3 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; National Biodiversity Authority matches with Section 8 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002; and National Board for Wildlife matches with Section 5A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Each environmental body is mapped to its exact statutory section and parent legislation: Central Ground Water Authority to Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986, Central Pollution Control Board to Section 3 of the Water Act 1974, National Biodiversity Authority to Section 8 of the Biological Diversity Act 2002, and National Board for Wildlife to Section 5A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the statutory origin of the Central Ground Water Authority.
Constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Although CGWA regulates groundwater, it derives its legal authority from the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 rather than the Water Act.
2
Identify the parent act establishing the Central Pollution Control Board.
Established under Section 3 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
CPCB was created under the Water Act of 1974 and later delegated powers under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
3
Identify the statutory backing of the National Biodiversity Authority.
Established under Section 8 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
NBA was set up in 2003 at Chennai to implement India's Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
4
Determine the legal origin of the National Board for Wildlife.
Constituted under Section 5A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
The National Board for Wildlife replaced the non-statutory Indian Board for Wildlife via the 2002 amendment inserting Section 5A into the 1972 Act.

Key Concept

Statutory origins and legal provisions of national environmental bodies in India
Question 2697Question →

Match the following Wildlife Sanctuaries and National Parks in List-I with their key flagship species in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Gir National Park
Kaziranga National Park
Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
Keoladeo Ghana National Park

Matches

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Answer

Gir National Park matches with Asiatic Lion; Kaziranga National Park matches with Great One-Horned Rhinoceros; Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary matches with Asian Elephant; Keoladeo Ghana National Park matches with Migratory Waterbirds.
Each sanctuary or national park is matched with its key flagship fauna: Gir National Park protects Asiatic Lions, Kaziranga National Park protects Great One-Horned Rhinoceroses, Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary protects Asian Elephants, and Keoladeo Ghana National Park hosts Migratory Waterbirds.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Pair Gir National Park with its primary species
Gir National Park -> Asiatic Lion
Gir is internationally recognized as the exclusive wild home of Asiatic Lions.
2
Pair Kaziranga National Park with its flagship species
Kaziranga National Park -> Great One-Horned Rhinoceros
Kaziranga holds two-thirds of the world's population of Great One-horned Rhinoceroses.
3
Pair Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary with its flagship species
Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary -> Asian Elephant
Periyar in the Western Ghats is prominent for wild elephant herds around its central lake.
4
Pair Keoladeo Ghana National Park with its primary species
Keoladeo Ghana National Park -> Migratory Waterbirds
Keoladeo is a wetland sanctuary famous for vast wintering flocks of migratory birds.

Key Concept

State Protected Areas and Flagship Wildlife Species Mapping
Question 2698Question →

With reference to the Rampa Rebellion (1922–1924) in the Agency tracts of the Madras Presidency (present-day Andhra Pradesh), consider the following statements:

1. The rebellion was primarily triggered by the oppressive enforcement of the Madras Forest Act of 1882, which restricted traditional podu (shifting) cultivation and tribal access to forest resources.
2. The movement was led by Alluri Sitarama Raju, who mobilized tribal communities and employed effective guerrilla warfare tactics against colonial police forces.
3. The rebellion was officially organized and directed as an armed wing of the central Indian National Congress during the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The statements asserting that the rebellion was triggered by the Madras Forest Act of 1882 and spearheaded by Alluri Sitarama Raju using guerrilla tactics are correct (1 and 2 only).
The Rampa Rebellion (1922–1924) in Andhra Pradesh was a major tribal uprising against the British Raj. The colonial administration restricted the tribal population's access to forests and banned podu (shifting) cultivation under the Madras Forest Act of 1882. Alluri Sitarama Raju led the tribal insurgents, conducting successful guerrilla warfare against police outposts in the Agency regions. However, the movement operated independently of the Indian National Congress leadership.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the cause of the rebellion.
Statement 1 is correct. The Rampa Rebellion of 1922–1924 was caused by severe grievances of the Koya and Kondadora tribals against the Madras Forest Act of 1882, which curtailed their customary rights over forest produce and podu (shifting) agriculture.
Establishing the economic and socio-legal trigger of the regional uprising.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding leadership and tactics.
Statement 2 is correct. Alluri Sitarama Raju organized the tribal people into a cohesive fighting force and carried out surprise guerrilla raids on police stations (such as Chintapalle, Rampa Chodavaram, and Addateegala) to capture arms and ammunition.
Evaluating the tactical nature and leadership of the historical movement.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding organizational affiliation with the Indian National Congress.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Although Raju admired Mahatma Gandhi and encouraged tribals to wear khadi and give up liquor, the rebellion was an independent armed tribal uprising and was not officially organized, sanctioned, or directed by the Indian National Congress.
Distinguishing between independent regional tribal uprisings and official Congress mass movements.

Key Concept

Rampa Rebellion (1922–1924) under Alluri Sitarama Raju
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2699Question →

Regarding state demographic indicators, tribal welfare initiatives, and human development parameters, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are characterized by stagnant or declining populations, pre-agricultural technology, and low literacy levels.; Special central assistance and targeted welfare schemes aim to improve tribal literacy rates and reduce human development disparities across state districts.

Answer

The correct statements are the ones describing PVTG characteristics (stagnant/declining population, pre-agricultural technology, low literacy) and the role of targeted welfare schemes in bridging tribal development gaps.
The correct statements accurately identify the established demographic and developmental criteria of PVTGs alongside the focus of state welfare programs on reducing regional human development gaps.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate statement regarding PVTG characteristics
Stagnant or declining population, pre-agricultural technology, and low literacy are the standard criteria defining PVTGs.
This criterion is established officially for identifying targeted tribal development groups.
2
Evaluate statement regarding welfare schemes and human development
State and federal initiatives actively target education and healthcare disparities in tribal regions.
Human development policies focus on uplifting vulnerable demographic groups.
3
Evaluate statements regarding urban-rural distribution and geographic spatial uniformity of tribes
Both statements are incorrect as tribal populations are rural-concentrated and regionally clustered.
Demographic survey data confirms tribal concentrations in specific forest/hilly districts rather than uniform urban spread.

Key Concept

State Demographics, Tribes, and Human Development
Question 2700Question →

Consider the following statements regarding major international multilateral environmental agreements:

1. The Rotterdam Convention establishes a Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides traded internationally to facilitate information exchange among member nations.
2. The Stockholm Convention regulates Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) by categorizing targeted chemicals into Annex A (Elimination), Annex B (Restriction), and Annex C (Unintentional Production).
3. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol aims for the global phasedown of Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), which have high global warming potential despite being non-ozone-depleting substances.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.
All three provided statements correctly detail the key operational instruments of global environmental law: the Rotterdam Convention utilizes the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for hazardous chemicals; the Stockholm Convention organizes POPs management across Annexes A, B, and C; and the Kigali Amendment expands the Montreal Protocol framework to address climate change by phasing down non-ozone-depleting HFCs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the Rotterdam Convention
The Rotterdam Convention (adopted in 1998) enforces the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for hazardous chemicals and pesticides, allowing importing countries to decide which chemicals they accept.
Verifying the core mandate and tool of the Rotterdam Convention.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the Stockholm Convention
The Stockholm Convention (adopted in 2001) manages Persistent Organic Pollutants using three main annexes: Annex A for elimination, Annex B for restriction (e.g., DDT for malaria control), and Annex C for minimizing unintentional releases (e.g., dioxins and furans).
Verifying the legal structure and annex classification of POPs.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the Kigali Amendment
The Kigali Amendment (2016) extended the scope of the 1987 Montreal Protocol to phase down Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), which replaced ozone-depleting substances but act as potent greenhouse gases.
Verifying the distinction between ozone-depleting substances and greenhouse gas targets under Montreal Protocol amendments.

Key Concept

Core mechanisms and scopes of international hazardous chemicals, POPs, and climate/ozone protection treaties
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