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Question 2701Question →

In the context of the cultural heritage, traditional arts, and architectural monuments of Maharashtra, which of the following pairs of heritage site or art form and its associated historical feature or patron is correctly matched?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Warli Folk Painting – Traditional tribal mural art executed using white pigment derived from rice paste, traditionally practiced on mud walls in the Palghar district

Answer

The pair correctly matching Warli Folk Painting with its traditional use of white rice-paste pigment on mud walls in the Palghar district of Maharashtra is the correct answer.
The correct answer accurately identifies Warli Folk Painting as a tribal art form originating from Maharashtra's Palghar and Thane districts, characterized by basic geometric patterns painted with white rice-paste pigment on mud walls.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patron dynasty and architectural details of the Kalaram Temple at Nashik.
The temple was commissioned in 1782 CE by Sardar Rangarao Odhekar during the Maratha Peshwa era, disproving the association with the ancient Rashtrakuta dynasty.
Correct historical attribution of Maratha-era temple construction.
2
Examine the origin and materials of Warli Folk Painting.
Warli painting is a recognized indigenous tribal art form of northern Maharashtra (Palghar/Thane), traditionally using white rice-flour paste on red mud walls.
Authentic verification of state cultural art forms.
3
Evaluate the historical patronage of the Kailash Temple at Ellora and Bibi Ka Maqbara.
Ellora Cave 16 (Kailash Temple) was commissioned by Rashtrakuta King Krishna I (not Satavahanas), while Bibi Ka Maqbara was built for Rabia-ud-Daurani by Prince Azam Shah / Aurangzeb (not Shah Jahan).
Distinguishing royal patrons of Maharashtra's UNESCO world heritage and architectural sites.

Key Concept

State-specific cultural heritage, art forms, and architectural patronage in Maharashtra
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2702Question →

Arrange the following major mineral-producing districts of Odisha in geographical sequence from North to South:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct geographical sequence from North to South is Sundargarh District, followed by Rayagada District, and lastly Koraput District.
Sundargarh is situated in northern Odisha, Rayagada lies in south-central Odisha, and Koraput is located further south near the southern state border. Thus, the proper North to South order is Sundargarh District, Rayagada District, and Koraput District.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the latitude and regional position of Sundargarh District.
Sundargarh lies in northern Odisha (approx. 22° N latitude).
Establishing the northernmost anchor item.
2
Identify the geographical position of Rayagada District relative to Sundargarh and Koraput.
Rayagada is located in south-central Odisha (approx. 19.17° N latitude).
Placing the intermediate district.
3
Determine the southernmost district among the given options.
Koraput lies in southern Odisha (approx. 18.81° N latitude).
Establishing the southern anchor item.

Key Concept

Geographical distribution of bauxite and mineral belts in Odisha
Question 2703Question →

In the context of state demographics and human development indicators, which of the following statements accurately reflects the relationship between tribal population concentration, sex ratios, and literacy parameters across administrative districts?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Districts with higher Scheduled Tribe (ST) population proportions frequently record higher Child Sex Ratios (0–6 years) than highly urbanized districts, despite exhibiting lower overall literacy rates.

Answer

Districts with higher Scheduled Tribe (ST) population proportions frequently record higher Child Sex Ratios (0–6 years) than highly urbanized districts, despite exhibiting lower overall literacy rates.
State Human Development Reports and Census analyses demonstrate that tribal-dominated administrative districts tend to preserve favorable Child Sex Ratios (0–6 years) owing to traditional egalitarian gender norms, even while recording lower overall literacy rates compared to urbanized districts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the demographic indicators associated with tribal-dominated districts versus urban districts.
Tribal communities exhibit less severe son preference and maintain higher child sex ratios, but face structural deficits in formal educational access.
Socio-cultural norms in tribal societies generally value female children, whereas urban centers have historically faced skewed gender ratios.
2
Evaluate the official criteria defining Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) and demographic vulnerability.
Stagnant or declining population growth combined with low literacy defines PVTG vulnerability.
Demographic stagnation in PVTGs reflects marginalization and health vulnerabilities rather than high human development.
3
Synthesize the literacy and gender metric dynamics across state administrative regions.
High female literacy is concentrated in developed urban districts, whereas high child sex ratio is positively correlated with tribal population share.
This inverse trend between literacy levels and child sex ratio across tribal vs. urban areas is a standard analytical finding in State Human Development Reports.

Key Concept

State Demographic Profiles and Tribal Human Development Indicators
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2704Question →

Which famous national park and wildlife sanctuary, situated in the state of Gujarat, serves as the only natural habitat for the Asiatic lion?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer

Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary
Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary, located in the Kathiawar peninsula of Gujarat, was established in 1965 and remains the only place in the world where the Asiatic lion exists in its natural wild habitat.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the specific species mentioned in the question
The target species is the Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica).
The Asiatic lion has a restricted geographic range limited to a single wildlife preserve region in India.
2
Map the species to its protected habitat and state location
Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat is the sole home of the wild Asiatic lion population.
Conservation efforts centered in Gir, Gujarat saved the Asiatic lion from near extinction.

Key Concept

State Protected Areas and Endemic Wildlife Species
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2705Question →

In state economic geography, the Mangampeta deposit located in the Kadapa (YSR) district of Andhra Pradesh is globally renowned for holding over 90% of India's total reserves of which natural mineral resource?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Barytes

Answer

Barytes is the mineral resource concentrated at the Mangampeta deposit in Kadapa (YSR) district.
The correct answer is Barytes. The Mangampeta deposit in the Pullampet mandal of Kadapa (YSR) district, Andhra Pradesh, is one of the largest single bedded deposits of barytes in the world, accounting for more than 90% of India's total reserves and contributing significantly to the state's mining revenue and export economy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical and geological location mentioned in the stem.
Location identified as Mangampeta in Kadapa (YSR) district of Andhra Pradesh.
Establishing the specific regional mining belt helps recall official State Economic Survey data on mineral endowment.
2
Analyze the mineral occurrence characteristics and national reserve share.
Mangampeta is a unique volcanic-grey volcanic tuff bedded deposit that holds over 90% of India's total barytes (BaSO4BaSO_4) resources.
Barytes is heavily used as a weighting agent in petroleum drilling muds and chemical manufacturing.
3
Evaluate the distractors against regional mineral geography.
Bauxite, Chromite, and Sillimanite belong to different geological formations and primary producing states/districts.
Differentiating regional mineral belts prevents misattribution of industrial minerals.

Key Concept

State Mineral Resource Distribution and Economic Geology
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2706Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the agro-climatic profile, soil distribution, and mineral resources of Andhra Pradesh:

1. The Krishna-Godavari deltaic region falls within the East Coast Plains and Hills Agro-Climatic Zone, serving as a major hub for paddy cultivation.
2. The Rayalaseema region receives heavy annual rainfall from the southwest monsoon, consisting primarily of fertile alluvial soils dedicated to wet-land farming.
3. The Tummalapalle belt situated in the YSR Kadapa district contains massive reserves of uranium minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The correct combination includes statements 1 and 3 only. The Krishna-Godavari delta is part of the East Coast Plains and Hills zone with high agricultural output, and Tummalapalle in Kadapa district is a major uranium deposit. Statement 2 is false because Rayalaseema receives limited rainfall and is covered mostly by red and black soils.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding agro-climatic zoning
The Krishna-Godavari delta region is classified under the East Coast Plains and Hills Agro-Climatic Zone (Zone XI) by the Planning Commission, recognized for extensive rice and sugarcane farming.
Statement 1 is accurate.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Rayalaseema regional geography
Rayalaseema lies in a semi-arid rain-shadow belt receiving low average annual rainfall (~700 mm). Its terrain is dominated by red soils and black soils, making it prone to droughts rather than wet-land alluvial agriculture.
Statement 2 is inaccurate.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding mineral distribution
Tummalapalle in YSR Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh holds one of the largest confirmed reserves of uranium in India.
Statement 3 is accurate.

Key Concept

State Agriculture, Agro-Climatic Regions, and Mineral Distribution
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2707Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the historic Bijolia Peasant Movement of regional state history are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It was a sustained non-violent peasant agitation directed against excessive taxes and forced labor imposed by local feudal landlords.; Vijay Singh Pathik was a prominent leader who organized and guided the movement during its influential second phase.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Bijolia Peasant Movement was a sustained non-violent agitation against feudal taxes and forced labor, and that Vijay Singh Pathik was a key leader during its second phase.
The Bijolia Peasant Movement (1897–1941) was a major non-violent peasant resistance in Mewar against exorbitant feudal levies and unfree labor. Vijay Singh Pathik joined the movement in 1916, providing vital organization through the Rajasthan Seva Sangh and Bijolia Kisan Panchayat.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core cause and character of the Bijolia Peasant Movement.
Confirm that it was a non-violent agrarian movement against 84 types of feudal cesses (lags) and forced labor (begar) in Mewar.
Verifies statement accuracy regarding the movement's primary grievances.
2
Analyze leadership involvement in the movement.
Confirm that Vijay Singh Pathik took leadership in 1916 and mobilized the peasant masses.
Establishes the historical leadership details correctly.
3
Evaluate geographic location and origin context.
Recognize that it started in 1897 in Mewar (Bijolia), not in Marwar, and was independent of the Rowlatt Act.
Eliminates incorrect claims attributing the agitation to unrelated colonial acts or wrong administrative regions.

Key Concept

Bijolia Peasant Movement and Regional Agrarian Struggles
Question 2708Question →

Arrange the following major industrial and economic hubs of Tamil Nadu in geographical sequence from North to South:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct geographical sequence from North to South is Tiruvallur, followed by Salem, Tiruchirappalli, and Tirunelveli.
Tiruvallur is situated at the northern border of Tamil Nadu near Chennai. Moving southwards, Salem occupies the inland north-central region, followed by Tiruchirappalli in the central Cauvery delta basin, and finally Tirunelveli in the southern plain region.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the latitude and regional position of Tiruvallur
Tiruvallur borders Andhra Pradesh in northern Tamil Nadu (~13.1° N), placing it at the top of the sequence.
Establishing the northernmost boundary reference point.
2
Locate Salem relative to central and northern districts
Salem lies in the north-central interior plateau area (~11.6° N), south of Tiruvallur but north of the Cauvery delta.
Determining the second location in the north-south axis.
3
Identify Tiruchirappalli's position along the Cauvery basin
Tiruchirappalli is central (~10.7° N), positioned south of Salem and north of the southern plains.
Placing the central economic hub.
4
Confirm Tirunelveli's position in southern Tamil Nadu
Tirunelveli sits near the southern tip of the state (~8.7° N), completing the sequence.
Finalizing the southernmost element.

Key Concept

Geographical Distribution of State Economic and Industrial Resources
Question 2709Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana' implemented by the Government of Uttar Pradesh:

1. The conditional cash grant is disbursed in six phased installments, starting from the birth of a girl child until her entry into higher education (degree or recognized diploma course).
2. The upper limit for eligible annual family income under the scheme guidelines is ₹3.00 lakh.
3. The scheme benefits are strictly restricted to a maximum of two female children per family under all circumstances, with no exception granted for twin births in a second delivery.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The correct choice identifies that Statements 1 and 2 are accurate reflections of the Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana guidelines. Financial aid is released across 6 distinct life milestones from birth to higher education entry, and the annual family income threshold is set at ₹3.00 lakh. Statement 3 is false because the scheme explicitly permits benefits for a third girl child if the second delivery results in twins.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding disbursement structure.
Statement 1 is correct. The Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana grants financial aid in six progressive stages (Category I: birth, Category II: full immunization within 1 year, Category III: Class 1 admission, Category IV: Class 6 admission, Category V: Class 9 admission, Category VI: Degree/Diploma admission).
Verifying the operational framework of the scheme.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding income eligibility.
Statement 2 is correct. The annual family income ceiling to qualify for benefits under the scheme is capped at ₹3.00 lakh.
Verifying socio-economic eligibility criteria.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding family size norms and exceptions.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While the scheme generally limits benefits to two girl children per family, an explicit relaxation exists: if a woman gives birth to twin girls in her second delivery, all three female children are eligible for scheme benefits.
Identifying nuanced eligibility exception rules.

Key Concept

Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana eligibility criteria, stage-wise benefit structure, and special exception provisions.
Question 2710Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional position, legislative powers of the Governor, and state legislative procedure under the Constitution of India:

1. The discretionary power of the Governor under Article 163 to act without the advice of the Council of Ministers is absolute and completely immune from judicial review under all circumstances.
2. When a bill passed by the State Legislature is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President under Article 201, and the President directs the Governor to return the bill, the State Legislature must reconsider it within six months, and if re-passed, it is presented again directly to the President for assent.
3. Under Article 213, the Governor cannot promulgate an ordinance containing provisions that would have required the prior sanction of the President for introduction as a bill in the State Legislature without receiving instructions from the President.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct, while Statement 1 is incorrect.
The correct answer identifies that Statements 2 and 3 accurately articulate constitutional provisions under Articles 201 and 213 of the Constitution of India, whereas Statement 1 misrepresents the scope of gubernatorial discretion by claiming it is absolute and immune from judicial review.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding gubernatorial discretion under Article 163.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Although Article 163(2) states that the Governor's decision on whether a matter falls within discretion is final, the Supreme Court (e.g., in Nabam Rebia v. Deputy Speaker and Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India) ruled that discretionary power is not arbitrary or absolute and is subject to judicial review if exercised with mala fide intent or beyond constitutional bounds.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding reservation of bills under Article 201.
Statement 2 is correct.
Under Article 201, if the President directs the Governor to return a non-money bill to the State Legislature, the House(s) must reconsider it within six months. If passed again (with or without amendment), it is presented again to the President for assent.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding conditions on ordinance making under Article 213.
Statement 3 is correct.
Under the proviso to Article 213(1), the Governor cannot promulgate an ordinance without presidential instructions if a bill containing the same provisions would under the Constitution have required the previous sanction of the President for introduction.

Key Concept

Constitutional Provisions of State Executive and Legislative Procedures
Question 2711Question →

Match the following multilateral initiatives and partnerships with their primary mandate or focus area:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA)
International Solar Alliance (ISA)
Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)
Mineral Security Partnership (MSP)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA) matches with promoting global adoption and trade in sustainable biofuels; the International Solar Alliance (ISA) matches with mobilizing investment and technology deployment for solar energy; the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) matches with promoting climate resilience in physical infrastructure; and the Mineral Security Partnership (MSP) matches with securing supply chains for critical minerals.
Each international alliance or partnership is matched directly to its primary global mandate: GBA to biofuels, ISA to solar energy deployment, CDRI to infrastructure resilience against disasters, and MSP to critical mineral supply chains.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the primary operational scope of the Global Biofuels Alliance.
GBA focuses on sustainable biofuels trade and standard development.
It is an international platform dedicated to boosting biofuel consumption and technology.
2
Analyze the mandate of the International Solar Alliance.
ISA focuses on scaling up solar energy deployment.
Its core purpose is to remove barriers to solar energy adoption.
3
Determine the focus of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure.
CDRI focuses on climate and disaster resilience in infrastructure.
It promotes ecological and structural safety across national infrastructure projects.
4
Determine the mandate of the Mineral Security Partnership.
MSP focuses on critical raw materials and mineral supply chains.
It seeks to ensure stable global supplies of key minerals required for energy technology.

Key Concept

Core mandates of major multilateral partnerships and clean energy initiatives
Question 2712Question →

In the context of state demographic analysis, tribal characteristics, and human development indicators, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are identified based on criteria including pre-agricultural level of technology, stagnant or declining population, and extremely low literacy.; District-level human development studies demonstrate that higher female literacy strongly correlates with reduced total fertility rates and lower infant mortality rates.

Answer

The correct statements are that Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are identified by pre-agricultural technology, low literacy, and stagnant/declining population, and that higher female literacy levels strongly correlate with reduced total fertility rates and improved child survival metrics.
The statements confirming the standard identification criteria for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) and the positive socio-demographic impact of female literacy on fertility and infant mortality are factually correct. PVTG criteria include stagnant population, pre-agricultural technology, and low literacy, while female literacy is a core pillar of state human development.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement regarding PVTG identification criteria.
The statement accurately reflects the four official criteria established by the Government of India for PVTG identification.
PVTGs are designated using specific socio-economic indicators including pre-agricultural technology, stagnant population, and low literacy.
2
Analyze the definition of Child Sex Ratio.
The statement incorrectly reverses the ratio formula.
Demographic standards measure sex ratio as the number of females per 1,000 males.
3
Assess the impact of female literacy on human development outcomes.
The statement is correct as per Human Development Reports.
Female literacy enhances health awareness, family planning adoption, and child nutrition.
4
Examine the demographic trends comparing urban districts and rural tribal belts.
The statement is incorrect.
Tribal societies traditionally show higher child sex ratios than urban industrial areas.

Key Concept

State Demographics and Tribal Human Development Metrics
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2713Question →

Match each protected natural habitat and sanctuary in List-I with its corresponding primary river system or hydrological landmark in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Dibru-Saikhowa National Park
Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary
Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary
Similipal Biosphere Reserve

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Dibru-Saikhowa National Park matches with Brahmaputra and Dibru Rivers; Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary matches with Kameng (Bhareli) River Basin; Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary matches with Mandovi River Basin and Dudhsagar Waterfalls; Similipal Biosphere Reserve matches with Budhabalanga and Salandi Rivers.
Each protected area correctly corresponds to its specific hydrologic feature: Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is bounded by the Brahmaputra and Dibru Rivers in Assam; Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary lies within the Kameng (Bhareli) River basin in Arunachal Pradesh; Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary encompasses the Mandovi River basin and Dudhsagar Waterfalls in Goa; and Similipal Biosphere Reserve forms the headwaters of the Budhabalanga and Salandi Rivers in Odisha.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the river system surrounding Dibru-Saikhowa National Park in Assam.
Dibru-Saikhowa is an island national park bounded by the Brahmaputra River to the north and the Dibru River to the south.
This establishes the exact hydrological boundary pair for Dibru-Saikhowa National Park with the Brahmaputra and Dibru Rivers.
2
Determine the river basin of Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh.
Pakke Tiger Reserve/Wildlife Sanctuary lies within the catchment of the Kameng (Bhareli) River system.
This pairs Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary with the Kameng (Bhareli) River Basin.
3
Examine the geographical features of Goa's Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary.
The sanctuary protects Western Ghats biodiversity, contains the Mandovi River catchment, and features Dudhsagar Waterfalls.
This links Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary with the Mandovi River Basin and Dudhsagar Waterfalls.
4
Analyze the major drainage rivers originating in the Similipal Biosphere Reserve of Odisha.
Similipal massifs give rise to key perennial rivers including the Budhabalanga, Salandi, and tributaries of the Baitarani.
This matches Similipal Biosphere Reserve with the Budhabalanga and Salandi Rivers.

Key Concept

Geographical and hydrological mapping of state protected forests, biosphere reserves, and wildlife sanctuaries.
Question 2714Question →

In the state economy and natural resource profile of Rajasthan, which district contains the famous Zawar mining area, renowned as India's primary hub for lead and zinc production?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Udaipur

Answer

Udaipur is the correct district containing the Zawar lead-zinc mining belt.
Udaipur district is home to the Zawar mine complex, which holds one of the oldest and largest lead-zinc ore reserves in India.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary mineral resource mentioned in the stem (lead and zinc) and the deposit site (Zawar).
The Zawar mines are located in the southern Aravalli hill range of Rajasthan.
Zawar is recognized historically and currently as the central extraction hub for zinc and lead in India.
2
Map the Zawar mining area to its administrative district in Rajasthan.
Zawar is located within Udaipur district.
The mines lie approximately 40 km from the city of Udaipur.

Key Concept

State Mineral Resource Distribution and District Mapping
Question 2715Question →

Short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs) contribute significantly to global warming alongside long-lived greenhouse gases. Regarding the atmospheric behavior, warming mechanisms, and environmental impacts of climate forcing agents, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Black carbon accelerates glacial melting by reducing surface albedo when deposited on ice and snow, while also absorbing direct solar radiation in the atmosphere.; Tropospheric ozone acts as a greenhouse gas and is formed primarily through photochemical reactions involving nitrogen oxides (NOxNO_x) and volatile organic compounds (VOCsVOCs).

Answer

The correct statements are that black carbon accelerates glacial melting by reducing surface albedo and absorbing solar radiation, and tropospheric ozone acts as a greenhouse gas formed photochemically from NOxNO_x and VOC precursors.
Black carbon deposits darken snow and ice, lowering surface albedo and accelerating thermal energy absorption, while directly heating the surrounding atmosphere. Tropospheric ozone is a secondary pollutant formed via sunlight-driven reactions between NOxNO_x and volatile organic compounds (VOCsVOCs), functioning as a major radiative forcing agent in the lower atmosphere.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the impact and physical properties of black carbon.
Black carbon absorbs solar radiation and reduces snow albedo, accelerating melting.
Black carbon particles absorb sunlight directly and darken reflective snow cover.
2
Evaluate the chemical composition and ozone-depleting capability of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
HFCs do not deplete stratospheric ozone because they lack chlorine and bromine.
Ozone depletion mechanisms require catalytic halogen radicals like Cl∙Cl^\bullet or Br∙Br^\bullet, which HFCs do not carry.
3
Assess the origin and climate role of tropospheric ozone.
Tropospheric ozone is a key short-lived climate pollutant formed from NOxNO_x and VOCs.
Unlike stratospheric ozone, tropospheric ozone acts as a greenhouse gas and is synthesized photochemically from precursor gases.
4
Examine the atmospheric lifetime of sulfur hexafluoride (SF6SF_6).
SF6SF_6 is one of the most persistent greenhouse gases, not a short-lived pollutant.
SF6SF_6 has an atmospheric lifetime of approximately 3,200 years.

Key Concept

Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (SLCPs) and Atmospheric Forcing Mechanisms
Question 2716Question →

With reference to national environmental legislation and statutory regulatory framework in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was statutorily constituted under sub-section (3) of Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. The State Board for Wildlife (SBWL) is statutorily chaired by the Chief Minister of the concerned State under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
3. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is strictly bound by the procedural rules laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, while adjudicating environmental disputes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The correct combination includes statements 1 and 2 only. Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was created under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The State Board for Wildlife is chaired ex-officio by the Chief Minister of the respective state under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 19 of the NGT Act, 2010 specifically exempts NGT from being bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the statutory origin of the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
Statement 1 is CORRECT.
CGWA was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, to regulate and control ground water development and management in India.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the chairmanship of the State Board for Wildlife (SBWL).
Statement 2 is CORRECT.
Section 6 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides for the constitution of the State Board for Wildlife, with the Chief Minister of the State (or Administrator in Union Territories) as its Chairperson.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the procedural binding of the National Green Tribunal (NGT).
Statement 3 is INCORRECT.
According to Section 19(1) of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, the Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice.

Key Concept

Statutory provisions and authority origins under major Indian environmental laws (Environment Protection Act 1986, Wildlife Protection Act 1972, NGT Act 2010)
Question 2717Question →

Match List-I (International Environmental Agreement/Protocol) with List-II (Core Regulatory Mechanism / Primary Focus) and select the correct matching pairs.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Rotterdam Convention
Stockholm Convention
Nagoya Protocol
Minamata Convention

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches pair the Rotterdam Convention with the Prior Informed Consent procedure, the Stockholm Convention with Persistent Organic Pollutants regulation, the Nagoya Protocol with Access and Benefit-Sharing of genetic resources, and the Minamata Convention with mercury emissions control.
Each international agreement has a distinct legal scope: Rotterdam regulates international trade of hazardous chemicals via the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) mechanism; Stockholm aims to eliminate Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs); Nagoya establishes rules for Access and Benefit-Sharing (ABS) of genetic resources under CBD; and Minamata addresses global mercury pollution and emissions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary mechanism of the Rotterdam Convention
Rotterdam governs hazardous chemicals in global trade via the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) mechanism.
It ensures importing countries are informed about incoming hazardous substances before shipment.
2
Identify the core mandate of the Stockholm Convention
Stockholm focuses on eliminating or strictly limiting Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), including the initial 'dirty dozen'.
POPs persist in the environment, bioaccumulate through the food web, and pose global risks.
3
Identify the target scope of the Nagoya Protocol
Nagoya is a supplementary treaty under the CBD focused specifically on Access to Genetic Resources and Benefit-Sharing (ABS).
It operationalizes one of the three core objectives of the Convention on Biological Diversity.
4
Identify the regulatory focus of the Minamata Convention
Minamata is dedicated to controlling and phasing out industrial mercury usage, emissions, and waste.
Named after Minamata, Japan, where severe mercury poisoning occurred, the treaty addresses toxic heavy metal pollution.

Key Concept

Regulatory Focus and Mandates of Multilateral Environmental Agreements
Question 2718Question →

Which State Government in India launched the 'Orunodoi' scheme to provide direct monthly financial assistance to the female head of low-income households?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Government of Assam

Answer

The Government of Assam launched the 'Orunodoi' scheme.
The correct answer identifies the Government of Assam, which launched the Orunodoi scheme to transfer financial support directly into the bank accounts of nominated female members of eligible families.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the state responsible for initiating the Orunodoi scheme.
The scheme was launched by Assam in 2020.
It is one of the largest Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) schemes implemented by the State Government of Assam for women's empowerment.

Key Concept

State Welfare Schemes and Direct Benefit Transfer Initiatives
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2719Question →

Match the iconic cultural fairs, folk art traditions, and architectural monuments of Gujarat in List-I with their primary associated districts or cultural contexts in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Tarnetar Mela
Patola Weaving
Modhera Sun Temple
Pithora Painting

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Tarnetar Mela pairs with the Trinetreshwar Mahadev shrine in Surendranagar district; Patola Weaving pairs with the Double-ikat silk textile heritage of Patan district; Modhera Sun Temple pairs with the Solanki architectural monument in Mehsana district; and Pithora Painting pairs with the Ritualistic wall art of the Rathwa tribe in Chhota Udaipur district.
Tarnetar Mela is held at the Trinetreshwar Mahadev shrine in Surendranagar district. Patola weaving represents the double-ikat textile craft of Patan district. Modhera Sun Temple is a masterwork of Solanki architecture located in Mehsana district. Pithora painting is a sacred tribal wall art practiced by the Rathwa community in Chhota Udaipur district.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Locate Tarnetar Mela
Correlate with Surendranagar district
The fair centers on the Trinetreshwar Mahadev temple situated in Tarnetar village of Surendranagar district.
2
Identify Patola weaving geographical origin
Correlate with Patan district
Patan is the historical hub of double-ikat silk textile craftsmanship in Gujarat.
3
Identify Modhera Sun Temple location and patron lineage
Correlate with Mehsana district
The Sun Temple at Modhera was constructed on the Pushpavati River in Mehsana under Solanki patronage.
4
Associate Pithora art with its practicing community
Correlate with Chhota Udaipur district
Pithora murals are votive ritual paintings created by the Rathwa tribal community concentrated in Chhota Udaipur.

Key Concept

State Tourism, Art, Fairs, and Architecture of Gujarat
Question 2720Question →

The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, a major peasant movement in regional state history organized against an unjust increase in land revenue by the colonial government, was led by which of the following leaders?

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Answer: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel led the Bardoli Satyagraha in Gujarat in 1928. Under his leadership, the local peasantry refused to pay the enhanced land tax of 22%. Following the movement's success and the Maxwell-Broomfield Inquiry Committee report, the revenue enhancement was reduced to 6.03%.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the historical movement mentioned in the prompt
The movement is the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 in Gujarat.
The prompt specifies a 1928 peasant movement protesting land revenue hikes.
2
Match the movement with its primary regional leader
Vallabhbhai Patel organized and led the Bardoli campaign, earning the title 'Sardar' from the women of Bardoli.
Patel's successful leadership resulted in the cancellation of the revenue enhancement.

Key Concept

Leadership of Regional Peasant Movements (Bardoli Satyagraha)
Estimated Time:45s
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