All practice questions

4581 questions

All types4,581 Multiple choice2,372 Multiple select712 True / False174 Numeric188 Matching670 Ordering415 Fill in the blank20 Short answer30

Question 3521Question →

Which of the following geographical regions of India are officially included within globally recognized biodiversity hotspots? (Select all correct options)

Select all that apply

Western Ghats

Nicobar Islands

Gangetic Plain

Thar Desert

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Western Ghats; Nicobar Islands

Answer

The Western Ghats and the Nicobar Islands are both officially included within global biodiversity hotspots in India.

The Western Ghats and the Nicobar Islands are correct because India is home to four global biodiversity hotspots: Western Ghats, Himalayas, Indo-Burma, and Sundaland (which encompasses the Nicobar Islands). Both regions possess extreme levels of species endemism coupled with severe habitat destruction.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the four global biodiversity hotspots associated with India.

The four regions are the Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka), the Eastern Himalayas (Himalaya hotspot), Indo-Burma, and Sundaland (which includes the Nicobar Islands).

Official conservation biology classification recognizes these specific zones based on species endemism and habitat threat levels.

Evaluate each choice against the recognized Indian biodiversity hotspots.

The Western Ghats forms its own hotspot region, and the Nicobar Islands fall under the Sundaland hotspot. The Gangetic Plain and Thar Desert are not designated hotspots.

Hotspots require at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species and at least 70% loss of primary vegetation, criteria not met by major agricultural plains or arid desert belts.

Key Concept

Geographical distribution of global biodiversity hotspots in India

Question 3522Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY):

1. It provides a renewable one-year term life insurance cover of $₹2\text{ lakh}$ for death due to any reason to individuals in the age group of 18 to 50 years.
2. The scheme provides risk coverage exclusively for accidental death and permanent total disability.
3. It is administered through the Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) and other participating life insurance companies in tie-up with banks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Under PMJJBY, individuals aged 18 to 50 years with a bank account are eligible for a renewable one-year term life cover of

₹2\text{ lakh}

for death due to any reason. The scheme is implemented by the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) and other life insurers in partnership with participating banks. Statement 2 is incorrect because PMJJBY covers death from any cause, whereas accidental death and permanent disability are covered under Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY).

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding eligibility age and benefit amount.

PMJJBY is available to people in the age group of 18 to 50 years having a bank account. It offers a renewable term life cover of

₹2\text{ lakh}

in case of death due to any reason. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

PMJJBY guidelines specify an entry age band of 18-50 years with annual renewal up to age 55.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the nature of risk coverage.

PMJJBY provides life insurance coverage for death due to ANY reason. Accidental death and disability coverage is provided under a separate scheme, the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY). Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.

Confusing PMJJBY (life insurance covering all causes of death) with PMSBY (accidental death and disability insurance) is a common misconception.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the administration and implementing agency.

PMJJBY is offered/administered through LIC and other willing life insurance companies that tie up with participating banks to auto-debit premiums. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

Institutional framework requires insurance providers to partner with financial institutions for enrolment and direct premium processing.

Key Concept

Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) features, target age group, and differentiation from PMSBY

Question 3523Question →

With reference to the inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and laws made by the State Legislatures under Article 254 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. If any provision of a law made by the Legislature of a State is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament on a Concurrent List subject, the central law prevails whether passed before or after the State law.
2. A State law on a Concurrent List subject containing a provision repugnant to an earlier Parliamentary law shall prevail in that State if it was reserved for the President and received Presidential assent.
3. Once a State law receives Presidential assent under Article 254(2), Parliament is permanently barred from enacting any subsequent law that amends or repeals that State law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.

The option selecting statements 1 and 2 only is correct. Statement 1 accurately states the general rule of federal supremacy in Concurrent List matters (Article 254(1)). Statement 2 correctly describes the exception where Presidential assent allows a repugnant State law to prevail within that State (Article 254(2)). Statement 3 is false because Parliament retains the power under the proviso to Article 254(2) to subsequently amend, vary, or repeal such State legislation.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Statement 1 regarding Article 254(1).

Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 254(1), if a State law on a Concurrent List topic conflicts with a Union law, the Union law prevails regardless of the sequence of enactment.

Establishes the general doctrine of repugnancy under Indian federal legislative relations.

Analyze Statement 2 regarding Article 254(2).

Statement 2 is correct. Article 254(2) provides an exception: if a State law reserved for Presidential consideration receives Presidential assent, the State law prevails in that specific State.

Demonstrates the exception mechanism balancing federal rigidity with state autonomy.

Analyze Statement 3 regarding the proviso to Article 254(2).

Statement 3 is incorrect. Under the proviso to Article 254(2), Parliament can at any time enact a law adding to, amending, varying, or repealing the State law so made.

Confirms the ultimate legislative supremacy of Parliament on Concurrent List subjects.

Key Concept

Repugnancy and Legislative Overriding Powers under Article 254

Question 3524Question →

With reference to RNA interference (RNAi) technology and its applications in crop protection and plant biotechnology, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

In-planta expression of long double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) triggers the host or pest Dicer enzyme to generate small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) that target matching messenger RNA (mRNA) for degradation.

RNAi-mediated crop protection operates by permanently inserting foreign DNA sequences into the chromosomal loci of targeted pest genomes.

Host-Delivered RNAi (HDRNi) enables transgenic crops to synthesize specific double-stranded RNA molecules that induce lethal gene knockdown when ingested by targeted herbivorous insects.

RNAi gene silencing in plant biotechnology acts exclusively by directly blocking RNA Polymerase II binding during transcription initiation.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: In-planta expression of long double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) triggers the host or pest Dicer enzyme to generate small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) that target matching messenger RNA (mRNA) for degradation.; Host-Delivered RNAi (HDRNi) enables transgenic crops to synthesize specific double-stranded RNA molecules that induce lethal gene knockdown when ingested by targeted herbivorous insects.

Answer

The correct statements are that double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) is processed by Dicer enzymes into small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) to target mRNA for degradation, and Host-Delivered RNAi (HDRNi) allows transgenic crops to synthesize target dsRNA that causes lethal gene knockdown upon ingestion by pests.

The correct statements accurately describe RNA interference as a post-transcriptional gene silencing mechanism. Double-stranded precursor RNA is cleaved by Dicer into functional siRNAs that bind to the RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC) to degrade complementary messenger RNA. Furthermore, Host-Delivered RNAi (HDRNi) leverages this by enabling crop plants to express specific dsRNAs that, upon ingestion by target insect pests, disrupt vital pest physiological pathways.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the biochemical mechanism of RNA interference in plants.

RNAi is a natural post-transcriptional gene silencing pathway wherein long double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) is recognized and cleaved by the Dicer ribonuclease enzyme into short 21-24 nucleotide duplexes called small interfering RNAs (siRNAs).

Understanding the fundamental pathway confirms the role of Dicer and siRNAs in degrading target complementary mRNA.

Evaluate the mechanism of Host-Delivered RNAi (HDRNi) in agricultural pest control.

Crops engineered with transgenic constructs produce insect-specific dsRNA. When pests ingest plant tissues, the dsRNA enters insect cells and triggers sequence-specific mRNA destruction of essential survival genes.

This confirms that crop protection via HDRNi is a functional biotechnology application.

Differentiate RNAi post-transcriptional silencing from genomic DNA alteration and transcriptional initiation blockade.

RNAi targets existing transcript molecules (mRNA) in the cytoplasm and does not insert foreign DNA into target pest chromosomes or act primarily by blocking promoter binding during transcription.

This identifies the conceptual flaws in statements asserting chromosomal gene insertion or exclusive transcriptional promoter blockage.

Key Concept

RNA Interference (RNAi) and Post-Transcriptional Gene Silencing in Agriculture

Question 3525Question →

Consider the following statements regarding price indices and liquidity management tools in India:

1. Food and beverages carry a significantly higher weightage in the Consumer Price Index (Combined) basket than food items carry in the Wholesale Price Index basket.
2. The Wholesale Price Index tracks price movements of both physical commodities and commercial services, whereas the Consumer Price Index covers only physical commodities.
3. Raising the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by the Reserve Bank of India increases commercial banks' lending capacity, thereby expanding market liquidity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

Statement 1 alone is correct. Food items carry a higher weight in CPI than in WPI; WPI does not cover services; and raising CRR reduces market liquidity.

The statement specifying '1 only' is correct. Food items carry a weight of approximately 45.86% in CPI (Combined) compared to around 24.38% in WPI, making Statement 1 true. Statement 2 is incorrect because services are absent in WPI and present in CPI. Statement 3 is incorrect because raising the CRR forces commercial banks to park more reserves with the RBI, thereby reducing bank lending capability and draining money supply from the market.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Statement 1 regarding food weights in CPI vs WPI.

In India's CPI (Combined), the weight of the 'Food and Beverages' group is 45.86%. In WPI (base year 2011-12), primary food articles carry a weight of 15.26% and manufactured food products carry 9.12% (totaling 24.38%). Thus, food weightage is much higher in CPI.

Consumer baskets reflect household expenditure where food forms a major portion, whereas wholesale baskets reflect producer/merchant commodity trade.

Analyze Statement 2 regarding sector coverage in WPI vs CPI.

WPI measures wholesale transactions of physical goods only (Primary Articles, Fuel & Power, Manufactured Products). CPI covers retail goods as well as services (such as housing, medical care, education, and transport).

WPI does not include the service sector in India.

Analyze Statement 3 regarding the monetary policy impact of CRR on liquidity.

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that commercial banks must maintain as cash reserves with the RBI. Increasing CRR locks up more money with the central bank, lowering the loanable funds of banks and reducing overall market liquidity.

Higher CRR is a contractionary monetary policy measure used to curb demand-pull inflation by draining excess liquidity.

Key Concept

Differences in CPI vs WPI Basket Composition & CRR Monetary Transmission Mechanism

Question 3526Question →

Consider the following statements regarding indigenously developed Indian defense systems:
1. The Pinaka system is an indigenous Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL) system designed to deliver high-volume firepower in a short time frame.
2. HELINA is the helicopter-launched air-to-surface variant of the Nag anti-tank guided missile system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both 1 and 2 are correct.

Both statements are factually accurate. Pinaka is an indigenous multi-barrel rocket launcher system, and HELINA represents the helicopter-launched version of the Nag anti-tank missile.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Pinaka MBRL

Statement 1 is correct.

The Pinaka system was indigenously designed by DRDO's Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) as a multi-barrel rocket launcher for area neutralization.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding HELINA

Statement 2 is correct.

HELINA (Helicopter-launched Nag) is the air-launched derivative of the third-generation fire-and-forget Nag anti-tank guided missile (ATGM), designed for integration with combat helicopters.

Key Concept

Indigenous tactical rocket artillery and anti-tank guided missile variants in Indian defense technology

Question 3527Question →

Arrange the following Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launch vehicles in chronological order of their historical introduction and first successful orbital flight, from the earliest to the most recent.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence of ISRO launch vehicles from earliest to most recent is Satellite Launch Vehicle-3 (SLV-3), Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle (ASLV), Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), and Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3).

The sequence follows ISRO's historical technological progression: SLV-3 (1980) → ASLV (1992) → PSLV (1994) → LVM3 (2017).

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the timeframe for SLV-3.

SLV-3 achieved its first successful orbital launch in 1980.

This represents the foundational phase of India's indigenous launch capability.

Identify the timeframe for ASLV.

ASLV recorded its first successful orbital flight in 1992.

ASLV served as a technology demonstrator between SLV-3 and PSLV.

Identify the timeframe for PSLV.

PSLV achieved its first successful mission in 1994.

PSLV became ISRO's primary workhorse for polar and sun-synchronous orbits.

Identify the timeframe for LVM3.

LVM3 completed its first successful orbital developmental flight in 2017.

LVM3 is ISRO's heavy-lift launch system designed for geostationary payloads and human spaceflight.

Key Concept

Historical evolution of ISRO's satellite launch vehicle technology

Question 3528Question →

With reference to the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms), consider the following statements:

1. It introduced dyarchy at the Central executive level by dividing central subjects into reserved and transferred categories.
2. It established for the first time a bicameral legislature at the Centre, consisting of a Council of State and a Legislative Assembly.
3. It provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission, which led to the setting up of the Central Public Service Commission in 1926.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

The correct answer is the option stating that statements 2 and 3 only are correct.

The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced bicameralism at the Centre (Council of State and Legislative Assembly) and provided for a Public Service Commission, which was set up in 1926. Dyarchy was introduced at the provincial level under this Act, not at the Central level.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding dyarchy under the Government of India Act of 1919.

Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced dyarchy in the provinces (dividing provincial subjects into transferred and reserved categories), whereas dyarchy at the Centre was envisaged under the Government of India Act of 1935.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Central Legislature structure under the 1919 Act.

Statement 2 is correct.

The 1919 Act replaced the Indian Legislative Council with a bicameral legislature at the Centre comprising the Council of State (Upper House) and the Legislative Assembly (Lower House).

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the Public Service Commission provision under the 1919 Act.

Statement 3 is correct.

Section 96C of the Government of India Act of 1919 provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission in India, which was subsequently established in 1926 following recommendations of the Lee Commission (1923-24).

Key Concept

Government of India Act 1919 provisions (Bicameralism at Centre, Provincial Dyarchy, Public Service Commission)

Question 3529Question →

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a biotechnology technique primarily used to amplify specific segments of DNA, producing millions of copies from a tiny sample.

True

False

Show answer & explanation

Answer: True

Answer

The statement is True. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a foundational molecular biotechnology technique designed to selectively amplify target DNA sequences into millions or billions of copies.

The statement is accurate because Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is specifically designed to isolate and amplify designated regions of DNA, generating millions of identical copies for diagnostic and analytical applications.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the biotechnology process mentioned in the statement

The technique is Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).

Determining the primary function of PCR is necessary to assess the accuracy of the statement.

Analyze the core function and mechanism of PCR

PCR uses repeated thermal cycling, primers, and DNA polymerase to exponentially synthesize copies of a target DNA region.

This molecular copying mechanism allows micro-gram or nano-gram quantities of DNA to be multiplied rapidly.

Verify statement validity

The statement correctly describes DNA amplification via PCR.

The statement is confirmed to be True.

Key Concept

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) and DNA Amplification

Question 3530Question →

In national income accounting, evaluating household purchasing power requires a systematic transformation of macroeconomic aggregates. Which of the following represents the correct sequential order of accounting adjustments required to derive Personal Disposable Income ( $PDI$ ) starting from Gross Domestic Product at Market Prices ( $GDP_{MP}$ )?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence of operations is: Add NFIA to GDP_MP to get GNP_MP → Deduct Depreciation to get NNP_MP → Deduct Net Indirect Taxes to get NNP_FC (National Income) → Adjust for Corporate Taxes, Undistributed Profits, and Transfer Payments to get Personal Income → Deduct Personal Taxes to get Personal Disposable Income.

The sequence follows the standard macroeconomic identity adjustments: starting from

GDP_{MP}

, adding

NFIA

yields

GNP_{MP}

, subtracting depreciation gives

NNP_{MP}

, subtracting net indirect taxes yields

NNP_{FC}

(National Income), adjusting for corporate taxes, undistributed profits, and transfers yields Personal Income (

PI

), and finally deducting direct personal taxes yields Personal Disposable Income (

PDI

Step-by-Step Solution

Transform Domestic Product to National Product at Market Price

GNP_{MP} = GDP_{MP} + NFIA

Net Factor Income from Abroad converts domestic output to income accruing to residents.

Convert Gross Aggregate to Net Aggregate

NNP_{MP} = GNP_{MP} - \text{Depreciation}

Deducting depreciation accounts for capital consumption during production.

Convert Market Price to Factor Cost

NNP_{FC} = NNP_{MP} - NIT

Net Indirect Taxes (Indirect Taxes minus Subsidies) are deducted to find factor income payments.

Derive Personal Income from National Income

PI = NNP_{FC} - \text{Corporate Taxes} - \text{Undistributed Profits} + \text{Transfer Payments}

Accounts for factor income earned but retained by firms, and non-factor income received by households.

Derive Personal Disposable Income from Personal Income

PDI = PI - \text{Personal Direct Taxes} - \text{Non-Tax Payments}

Measures final income available to households for spending or saving after direct taxes.

Key Concept

National Income Identities and Derivation Sequence

Question 3531Question →

Which of the following clean energy technologies directly converts solar radiation into electricity using semiconductor materials through the photovoltaic effect?

Solar Photovoltaic Technology

Concentrated Solar Power Technology

Solar Thermal Collector Technology

Geothermal Power Technology

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Solar Photovoltaic Technology

Answer

Solar Photovoltaic Technology directly converts solar radiation into electrical energy using semiconductor materials.

Solar Photovoltaic Technology absorbs solar photons using semiconductor materials (such as silicon), releasing electrons to produce a direct electrical current. This is a direct physical transformation without an intermediate thermal or mechanical stage.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the primary mechanism described in the question.

The mechanism is the direct conversion of light (photons) into electricity using semiconductor materials.

Understanding the working principle distinguishes direct photon-to-electron energy conversion from thermal thermodynamic cycles.

Evaluate the energy conversion process of solar photovoltaic systems.

When light shines on a photovoltaic semiconductor cell, absorbed photons knock electrons free, creating an electric current.

This physical phenomenon is precisely defined as the photovoltaic effect.

Compare against alternative solar and clean energy technologies.

Concentrated solar power and solar thermal systems rely on thermal energy capture rather than direct semiconductor electrical conversion.

Ensures accurate technical classification among different renewable energy technologies.

Key Concept

Photovoltaic Effect and Solar PV Working Principle

Question 3532Question →

In the national income accounting system adopted by India in 2015, the relationship between Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices and Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at market prices incorporates specific tax and subsidy adjustments. Evaluate the following statements regarding these adjustments:

Statement I: GVA at basic prices includes production taxes and excludes production subsidies.
Statement II: GDP at market prices is derived by adding net product taxes (product taxes minus product subsidies) to GVA at basic prices.
Statement III: Land revenue and stamp duty are classified as product taxes in India's national accounting system.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Statement I and Statement II only

Statement II and Statement III only

Statement I and Statement III only

Statement I, Statement II, and Statement III

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Statement I and Statement II only

Answer

Statement I and Statement II only are correct.

GVA at basic prices reflects output value inclusive of production taxes (such as land revenue, stamp duty, and professional tax) and exclusive of production subsidies. To obtain GDP at market prices, net product taxes (product taxes like GST minus product subsidies like food/fertilizer subsidies) are added to GVA at basic prices. Because land revenue and stamp duty are paid regardless of volume produced, they are production taxes, making the statement identifying them as product taxes incorrect.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement I regarding the conceptual definition of GVA at basic prices.

GVA at basic prices is defined as GVA at factor cost plus production taxes minus production subsidies. Thus, Statement I is correct.

Basic price represents the amount receivable by the producer from the purchaser per unit of a good or service, inclusive of production taxes but exclusive of production subsidies.

Evaluate Statement II regarding the conversion of GVA at basic prices to GDP at market prices.

GDP at market prices is derived as GVA at basic prices plus net product taxes (product taxes minus product subsidies). Thus, Statement II is correct.

Product taxes (such as GST or excise duty) depend directly on the quantity of output sold and convert basic price valuation to market price valuation.

Evaluate Statement III regarding the taxonomic classification of land revenue and stamp duty.

Land revenue, stamp duty, and registration fees are levied irrespective of output volume, making them production taxes rather than product taxes. Thus, Statement III is incorrect.

Production taxes are paid relationally to production factors or ownership, regardless of actual quantity produced.

Key Concept

Distinction between Production Taxes/Subsidies and Product Taxes/Subsidies in National Income Accounting

Estimated Time:1m 15s

Question 3533Question →

In bio-imaging applications, semiconductor quantum dots exhibit size-tunable fluorescence due to quantum confinement, wherein decreasing the nanoparticle radius increases its effective electronic energy bandgap, thereby causing the emitted fluorescence spectrum to shift toward longer wavelengths (red-shift).

True

False

Show answer & explanation

Answer: False

Answer

The statement is False. Decreasing the size of a quantum dot increases its energy bandgap, which results in the emission of higher-energy photons corresponding to shorter wavelengths (a blue-shift), not longer wavelengths.

Quantum dots display quantum confinement when their physical dimensions approach the exciton Bohr radius. Decreasing the particle size widens the energy gap between the valence and conduction bands. By the fundamental relation

E = \frac{hc}{\lambda}

, a larger energy gap produces higher-energy, shorter-wavelength light (blue-shifted emission). Therefore, the assertion that an increased energy bandgap yields longer wavelengths (red-shift) is scientifically incorrect.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the relationship between quantum dot physical size and energy bandgap.

As the radius of a semiconductor quantum dot decreases below its exciton Bohr radius, spatial confinement of charge carriers increases, widening the bandgap (

E_g

Quantum confinement alters the electronic band structure, causing energy levels to become discrete and expanding the energy gap between the valence and conduction bands.

Apply the Planck-Einstein energy-wavelength equation (

E = \frac{hc}{\lambda}

) to relate energy bandgap to emission wavelength.

An increase in bandgap energy (

E

) leads to a shorter emitted wavelength (

\lambda

Energy and wavelength are inversely proportional; thus, higher photon transition energies correspond to blue-shifted (shorter wavelength) light.

Evaluate the statement's conclusion regarding wavelength shift.

The statement incorrectly asserts that an increased energy bandgap causes a shift toward longer wavelengths (red-shift).

A shift toward longer wavelengths implies lower energy emission, which contradicts the established phenomenon of increased bandgap energy in smaller nanoparticles.

Key Concept

Quantum Confinement Effect and Size-Tunable Optical Emission in Quantum Dots

Question 3534Question →

Match the everyday devices and physical phenomena in List-I with their underlying governing physics principles in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct pairings are: Operation of a perfume atomizer sprayer matches with Bernoulli's Principle; Absorption of ink by blotting paper matches with Capillary Action; Bending mechanism of a bimetallic thermostat strip matches with Differential Thermal Expansion; Shattering of a crystal glass by a sustained vocal pitch matches with Acoustic Resonance.

Each phenomenon is matched strictly with its primary physical mechanism: the perfume atomizer relies on fluid velocity creating pressure drops (Bernoulli's Principle), blotting paper uses narrow fiber channels to draw liquid (Capillary Action), bimetallic thermostats depend on unequal metal expansion rates under heat (Differential Thermal Expansion), and glass shattering occurs when forced vibrations match internal natural frequency (Acoustic Resonance).

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the fluid dynamics in an atomizer sprayer.

High fluid velocity over the nozzle causes a local pressure drop, drawing liquid up according to Bernoulli's Principle (

P + \frac{1}{2}\rho v^2 + \rho gh = \text{constant}

Identify the fluid dynamic phenomenon responsible for suction in sprayers.

Examine the porous transport mechanism of liquid in paper.

Interconnected cellulose fibers act as fine capillaries drawing ink upward via adhesive and surface tension forces (Capillary Action).

Relate liquid movement in porous media to surface phenomena.

Analyze thermal behavior of bonded dissimilar metals.

Different coefficients of linear expansion (

\alpha

) cause unequal length changes during temperature variations, bending the bimetallic strip.

Identify thermal properties exploited in temperature regulation switches.

Evaluate wave frequency matching in structural response.

Energy transfer is maximized when the driving sound frequency equals the glass structure's natural frequency (Acoustic Resonance).

Connect sound vibration phenomena to mechanical failure.

Key Concept

Everyday Applications of Classical Mechanics, Fluid Dynamics, Thermodynamics, and Wave Resonance

Question 3535Question →

Which of the following biogeographic regions in India is officially designated as a global biodiversity hotspot and is notable for hosting endemic species such as the Lion-tailed Macaque?

The Western Ghats

The Gangetic Plain

The Thar Desert

The Deccan Plateau

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Western Ghats

Answer

The Western Ghats is a global biodiversity hotspot known for endemic fauna like the Lion-tailed Macaque.

The Western Ghats region is recognized as a global biodiversity hotspot because it possesses high levels of species richness and endemism, providing habitat for species restricted to this ecological zone, such as the Lion-tailed Macaque and Nilgiri Tahr.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the designated global biodiversity hotspots present in India.

India hosts four hotspots: Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, Indo-Burma, and Sundaland.

Global hotspots are defined by having at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species and losing over 70% of primary habitat.

Associate the specified endemic wildlife species with its native hotspot region.

The Lion-tailed Macaque (Macaca silenus) is restricted exclusively to the evergreen rainforest canopy of the Western Ghats.

Endemic species are restricted to a defined geographic location due to specialized habitat requirements.

Key Concept

Indian Biodiversity Hotspots and Endemic Wildlife

Question 3536Question →

Consider the following statements regarding RNA Interference (RNAi) technology and nano-delivery systems in biotechnology:

1. RNA interference is a post-transcriptional gene silencing mechanism initiated by double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) molecules.
2. MicroRNAs (miRNAs) typically exhibit perfect sequence complementarity to a single specific target mRNA, leading to immediate enzymatic mRNA cleavage.
3. Lipid Nanoparticles (LNPs) act as delivery vehicles that protect delicate nucleic acids from degradation in extracellular fluids during systemic circulation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

The correct answer states that 1 and 3 only are correct. RNAi is indeed a post-transcriptional silencing process driven by dsRNA, and Lipid Nanoparticles (LNPs) serve as crucial nanoscale delivery carriers that encapsulate RNA molecules to prevent extracellular degradation. Statement 2 is false because miRNAs usually bind with partial complementarity to exert translational repression, whereas perfect complementarity and direct mRNA cleavage are characteristic of siRNAs.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding RNA interference mechanism

Statement 1 is correct.

RNA interference (RNAi) is a conserved biological pathway where double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) triggers sequence-specific gene silencing at the post-transcriptional level.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding miRNA complementarity and cleavage mechanism

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) generally require full, perfect complementary binding to target specific mRNA for direct cleavage. MicroRNAs (miRNAs), on the other hand, typically possess partial or imperfect sequence complementarity, allowing them to target multiple distinct mRNAs and suppress translation rather than causing direct cleavage.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Lipid Nanoparticles (LNPs) as therapeutic delivery vehicles

Statement 3 is correct.

Lipid Nanoparticles (LNPs) shield sensitive nucleic acid payloads (such as siRNA or mRNA) from rapid enzymatic degradation by ribonucleases in systemic circulation and facilitate cellular uptake.

Key Concept

RNA interference mechanisms and nanomedicine drug delivery systems

Estimated Time:2m 0s

Question 3537Question →

With reference to clean energy technologies and renewable energy initiatives in India, consider the following statements:

1. Green hydrogen is produced through the electrolysis of water powered by electricity derived entirely from renewable energy sources.
2. Solar Photovoltaic (PV) systems utilize parabolic mirrors to concentrate sunlight, heating a thermal fluid that drives a conventional thermodynamic steam turbine.
3. Component B of the PM-KUSUM scheme supports individual farmers in installing standalone solar-powered agriculture pumps.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

2 and 3 only

1 only

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

The correct response identifies that statements 1 and 3 are scientifically and factually accurate. Green hydrogen relies strictly on renewable energy electrolysis. Component B of PM-KUSUM focuses on individual standalone solar pumps. In contrast, statement 2 confuses solar photovoltaic technology—which converts light directly to electrical current using semiconductors—with solar thermal/concentrated solar power systems that heat working fluids to drive turbines.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Green Hydrogen production.

Green Hydrogen is defined as hydrogen generated via water electrolysis using electricity produced from renewable sources (such as solar or wind), resulting in zero carbon emissions during generation. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.

Verify technical definition under National Green Hydrogen Mission guidelines.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Solar Photovoltaic technology.

Photovoltaic cells directly convert solar photon energy into electricity using semiconductor materials through the photoelectric effect. The use of mirrors to heat working fluids to drive steam turbines describes Concentrated Solar Thermal Power (CSP), not PV cells. Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Distinguish between direct semiconductor conversion (PV) and thermal thermodynamic cycles (CSP).

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding PM-KUSUM Scheme components.

PM-KUSUM consists of three components: Component A (small solar power plants), Component B (installation of standalone solar agricultural pumps), and Component C (solarization of grid-connected agricultural pumps). Thus, Statement 3 is correct.

Verify policy features of the PM-KUSUM national solar scheme.

Key Concept

Working principles of Solar PV versus Concentrated Solar Power, definition of Green Hydrogen, and provisions of the PM-KUSUM scheme

Estimated Time:1m 15s

Question 3538Question →

Arrange the following procedural stages involved in the enactment of the Union Budget in the Lok Sabha in their correct chronological order from first to last:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence for the enactment of the Union Budget is: Presentation of the Budget in the Lok Sabha, followed by Scrutiny of Demands for Grants by Departmental Standing Committees, Voting on Demands for Grants, Passing of the Appropriation Bill, and finally Passing of the Finance Bill.

The enactment of the Union Budget follows six distinct stages: 1. Presentation of Budget, 2. General Discussion, 3. Scrutiny by Departmental Standing Committees (during recess), 4. Voting on Demands for Grants (in Lok Sabha), 5. Passing of Appropriation Bill (Article 114), and 6. Passing of Finance Bill. Thus, committee scrutiny precedes voting on grants, followed by the Appropriation Bill, and concluding with the Finance Bill.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the initial presentation stage of the Annual Financial Statement.

Presentation of the Budget in the Lok Sabha is the first step.

Under Article 112, the President causes the budget to be laid before Parliament, starting with the Finance Minister's speech in Lok Sabha.

Determine the committee stage following the general discussion.

Scrutiny of Demands for Grants by Departmental Standing Committees is the second step.

Parliament adjourns for a 3–4 week recess so departmental standing committees can evaluate ministry-specific expenditure proposals.

Identify the Lok Sabha voting procedure.

Voting on Demands for Grants is the third step.

Voting on demands for expenditure is an exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha and takes place after committee reports are submitted.

Identify the statutory expenditure authorization step.

Passing of the Appropriation Bill is the fourth step.

Article 114 specifies that no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the passage of an Appropriation Bill.

Determine the legal authorization for government revenue and taxation.

Passing of the Finance Bill is the fifth step.

The Finance Bill legalizes income and taxation measures proposed by the government, concluding the financial business of the budget.

Key Concept

Procedural stages of the Enactment of Union Budget under Articles 112 to 114 of the Indian Constitution

Question 3539Question →

With reference to ecological diversity measurement concepts introduced by R.H. Whittaker and their relationship with spatial scale and endemism, consider the following statements:

1. Alpha diversity measures the species richness present within a specific, localized habitat or community.
2. Beta diversity quantifies the degree of species turnover or compositional change between different communities along an environmental gradient.
3. High beta diversity across a landscape typically indicates low habitat heterogeneity and low levels of regional endemism.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.

The correct response identifies that Statements 1 and 2 are true while Statement 3 is false. Alpha diversity assesses species richness in a uniform local environment, whereas beta diversity measures species compositional change across habitats. Elevated beta diversity is associated with high ecological heterogeneity and localized adaptation, which increases the likelihood of finding endemic species uniquely adapted to specific micro-niches.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Alpha Diversity.

Statement 1 is correct.

Alpha diversity represents local species richness within a single homogenous ecosystem or habitat unit.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Beta Diversity.

Statement 2 is correct.

Beta diversity measures species turnover or the rate of replacement in species composition between different habitats or along ecological gradients across a landscape.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the relationship between Beta Diversity, Habitat Heterogeneity, and Endemism.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

High beta diversity implies that different micro-habitats harbor distinct species assemblages. High species turnover reflects greater niche specialization and complex habitat heterogeneity, which directly promotes high endemism rather than low endemism.

Key Concept

Whittaker's Biodiversity Indices (Alpha, Beta, and Gamma Diversity) and Endemism Dynamics

Estimated Time:1m 30s

Question 3540Question →

Regarding the Atal Pension Yojana (APY), a flagship pension and social security scheme for unorganized sector workers in India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

It provides a guaranteed minimum monthly pension ranging from ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 to subscribers upon attaining the age of 60 years, depending on their contribution.

The scheme is open to all Indian citizens in the unorganized sector who are between 18 and 40 years of age.

The scheme is administered and regulated by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).

Income taxpayers are eligible to join and receive government contribution benefits under the scheme regardless of their tax filing status.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It provides a guaranteed minimum monthly pension ranging from ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 to subscribers upon attaining the age of 60 years, depending on their contribution.; The scheme is open to all Indian citizens in the unorganized sector who are between 18 and 40 years of age.

Answer

The correct statements are that Atal Pension Yojana provides a guaranteed minimum monthly pension ranging from ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 upon reaching 60 years of age, and that the scheme is open to Indian citizens in the unorganized sector aged between 18 and 40 years.

The Atal Pension Yojana (APY) guarantees a fixed monthly pension tier between ₹1,000 and ₹5,000 for unorganized workers upon reaching 60 years of age. Eligible subscribers must enter between 18 and 40 years of age.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate the pension benefits structure of Atal Pension Yojana

Confirm that subscribers receive a guaranteed monthly pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 after age 60 based on their age of joining and chosen contribution tier.

This is the core financial assistance guarantee under the APY scheme.

Evaluate the age eligibility criteria for subscribers

Verify that entry age is strictly 18 to 40 years, ensuring a minimum contribution period of 20 years before turning 60.

The APY framework requires subscriber contributions up to 60 years of age.

Identify the nodal regulatory authority and exclusion criteria

Identify PFRDA as the administering body (not IRDAI) and note that income taxpayers are ineligible under current regulations.

Administrative oversight lies under the NPS architecture managed by PFRDA, and social welfare targeting explicitly excludes income tax payers.

Key Concept

Atal Pension Yojana (APY) eligibility rules, pension slab structure, regulatory oversight by PFRDA, and taxpayer exclusion norms.

PreviousPage 177 / 230Next

All practice questions

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept