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Question 3641Question →

Match the nutritional deficiency disorders listed in List-I with their corresponding primary physiological causes or features listed in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Kwashiorkor
Marasmus
Goitre
Pernicious Anaemia

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Kwashiorkor corresponds to severe protein deficiency despite adequate calorie intake; Marasmus corresponds to severe deficiency of both total calories and protein content; Goitre corresponds to deficiency of dietary iodine impairing thyroid hormone synthesis; and Pernicious Anaemia corresponds to deficiency of Vitamin B12 impairing erythrocyte maturation.
Kwashiorkor is caused by severe protein deficiency despite adequate energy intake; Marasmus is caused by severe deficiency of both energy and protein; Goitre is caused by iodine deficiency; and Pernicious Anaemia is caused by Vitamin B12 deficiency.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Differentiate between protein-specific malnutrition and generalized starvation.
Kwashiorkor is linked specifically to protein deficiency with adequate calories, whereas Marasmus is caused by total calorie and protein deprivation.
Distinguishing distinct clinical features of protein-energy malnutrition sub-types.
2
Identify the dietary cause of thyroid gland enlargement (Goitre).
Goitre is linked to a shortage of mineral iodine in the diet.
Iodine is a key constituent of thyroid hormones.
3
Determine the vitamin deficiency involved in Pernicious Anaemia.
Pernicious Anaemia is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B12 (cobalamin).
Vitamin B12 is essential for nucleic acid synthesis during erythrocyte maturation.

Key Concept

Nutritional and mineral deficiency disorders in human physiology
Question 3642Question →

Match the following Indian environmental institutions and organizations listed in List I with their corresponding legal status, parent mandate, or founding framework in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Botanical Survey of India (BSI)
National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
Central Zoo Authority (CZA)
Wildlife Institute of India (WII)

Matches

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Answer

Botanical Survey of India (BSI) matches with the subordinate office founded in 1890 for floral research; National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) matches with the statutory body under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002; Central Zoo Authority (CZA) matches with the statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972; and Wildlife Institute of India (WII) matches with the autonomous institution established in 1982 in Dehradun.
Botanical Survey of India (BSI) is a colonial-era institution founded in 1890 operating as a subordinate office under MoEFCC. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory autonomous regulatory body formed under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 in Chennai. Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (via the 1991 amendment). Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is an autonomous research institution under MoEFCC established in 1982 at Dehradun.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the legal origins and founding nature of Botanical Survey of India (BSI).
BSI is an apex taxonomic research organization established in 1890 under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, making it a subordinate office for plant resource appraisal.
Tracing institutional origins helps differentiate colonial-era apex survey bodies from post-independence statutory entities.
2
Evaluate National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) and its enabling legislation.
NBA was set up in 2003 as a statutory body pursuant to the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, headquartered in Chennai.
Connecting regulatory bodies with their respective parent enabling Acts confirms statutory versus executive status.
3
Identify the statutory backing for the Central Zoo Authority (CZA).
CZA was created under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 following the 1991 legislative amendment to regulate recognition and standards of wild animal housing in zoos.
Distinguishes statutory wildlife protection boards from autonomous academic and research societies.
4
Determine the legal status and location of Wildlife Institute of India (WII).
WII is an autonomous institute established in 1982 under MoEFCC in Dehradun, focusing on wildlife science, management capacity building, and research.
Distinguishes autonomous research institutes from statutory regulatory authorities.

Key Concept

Classification of Indian Environmental Institutions by Statutory vs. Autonomous vs. Subordinate Status and Enabling Legislation
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3643Question →

Which international treaty provides a dedicated global framework for conserving terrestrial, aquatic, and avian migratory species throughout their geographic ranges by coordinating range-wide actions through legally binding agreements and collaborative Memoranda of Understanding?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (Bonn Convention)

Answer

Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (Bonn Convention)
The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (also known as the Bonn Convention or CMS), signed in 1979 under the auspices of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), is the only global treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory species, their habitats, and their migration routes. It categorizes endangered migratory species under Appendix I (strict protection) and species needing international agreements under Appendix II.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary domain of the treaty described in the stem.
The target domain focuses specifically on terrestrial, avian, and aquatic migratory species and their transboundary migration corridors.
Different international treaties target distinct ecological domains such as habitat types, trade regulation, or overall biodiversity.
2
Evaluate international conventions by their legal instruments and primary mandate.
The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS or Bonn Convention) uniquely utilizes legally binding regional Agreements and non-legally binding Memoranda of Understanding (MoUs) among range states.
Migratory species require cross-border cooperation as they move across international boundaries during their life cycles.

Key Concept

Bonn Convention (CMS) Scope and Structure
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3644Question →

Match the Parliamentary Devices in List I with their corresponding procedural objectives in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Calling Attention Motion
Short Duration Discussion
Point of Order
Privilege Motion

Matches

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Answer

Calling Attention Motion matches drawing the attention of a Minister to a matter of urgent public importance; Short Duration Discussion matches deliberating on urgent matters without voting for up to two hours; Point of Order matches raising procedural or constitutional non-compliance during House proceedings; Privilege Motion matches censuring a Minister for breaching parliamentary privilege by withholding facts.
Each parliamentary device corresponds precisely to its constitutional and procedural function: Calling Attention Motion requests Ministerial statements on urgent matters; Short Duration Discussion provides up to two hours of debate without voting; Point of Order addresses violations of House rules; and Privilege Motion censures Ministers for misleading Parliament.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedural nature of Calling Attention Motion.
Calling Attention Motion is an official request for a Ministerial statement on urgent public issues.
It is an Indian innovation created to allow members to get authoritative responses from the executive.
2
Identify the purpose of Short Duration Discussion.
It allows a brief discussion (not exceeding two hours) on urgent matters without any voting or formal motion.
It ensures urgent matters can be debated promptly without demanding a vote on government performance.
3
Examine the function of Point of Order.
It is raised whenever rules of conduct or constitutional provisions are violated in the House.
It immediately pauses proceedings for the Presiding Officer to rule on procedural compliance.
4
Determine the objective of a Privilege Motion.
It addresses instances where a Minister misleads the House or breaches parliamentary privilege.
Parliamentary privileges guarantee that members receive accurate facts from the executive branch.

Key Concept

Parliamentary Motions and Devices for Executive Accountability and Procedural Enforcement
Question 3645Question →

Match the environmental pollution control devices listed in List-I with their primary targeted pollutant or function in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Electrostatic Precipitator
Catalytic Converter
Wet Scrubber
Incinerator

Matches

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Answer

Electrostatic Precipitator matches with Particulate matter from industrial flue gases; Catalytic Converter matches with Carbon monoxide and unburnt hydrocarbons in vehicle exhaust; Wet Scrubber matches with Gaseous emissions such as sulfur dioxide (SO2SO_2); and Incinerator matches with Thermal disposal of hazardous solid and medical waste.
Electrostatic Precipitators are designed to capture solid suspended particles from industrial flue gases. Catalytic Converters reduce vehicular exhaust emissions by converting carbon monoxide and unburnt hydrocarbons into less harmful compounds. Wet Scrubbers clean exhaust streams by dissolving gaseous pollutants like sulfur dioxide in liquid spray. Incinerators thermally break down solid hazardous and biological wastes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Match Electrostatic Precipitator with its primary application.
Electrostatic Precipitators trap charged particulate matter from flue gases.
High-voltage electrodes charge dust particles which collect on grounded plates.
2
Match Catalytic Converter with its targeted emissions.
Catalytic Converters target toxic vehicle emissions such as carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons.
Noble metal catalysts facilitate complete combustion of exhaust gases.
3
Match Wet Scrubber with its targeted pollutant type.
Wet Scrubbers target acidic gas emissions such as SO2SO_2.
Liquid absorbents spray and dissolve gaseous pollutants.
4
Match Incinerator with its primary waste treatment role.
Incinerators handle thermal destruction of hazardous solid and infectious wastes.
Controlled high-temperature burning decomposes organic hazardous materials.

Key Concept

Pollution Control Technologies and Abatement Equipment
Question 3646Question →

In public key infrastructure (PKI) and digital transaction security, which technical process is specifically performed by the sender to create a valid Digital Signature on an electronic document?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Encrypting the cryptographic hash of the document using the sender's private key

Answer

The correct process for generating a Digital Signature is encrypting the cryptographic hash of the document using the sender's private key.
Generating a digital signature requires taking a cryptographic hash digest of the original document and encrypting that digest using the sender's private key. This operation ensures data integrity, authenticates the sender, and guarantees non-repudiation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the document digest
A fixed-length cryptographic hash (e.g., via SHA-256) is computed from the document content.
Hashing ensures data integrity because any minor modification in the source document alters the hash digest.
2
Apply sender asymmetric encryption
The hash digest is encrypted using the sender's private key, generating the Digital Signature.
Only the legitimate key owner holds the private key, binding their identity to the signature and establishing non-repudiation.
3
Signature Verification Process
The recipient decrypts the signature using the sender's public key and compares it against the re-calculated document hash.
A match confirms that the document was neither modified in transit nor forged by an unauthorized party.

Key Concept

Digital Signatures, Asymmetric Cryptography, and Non-repudiation in PKI
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3647Question →

Under India's National Green Hydrogen Mission, selecting appropriate water electrolysis technologies is critical for integrating intermittent renewable power. Which of the following statements correctly describes the operational principle and structural mechanism of a Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) electrolyser?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It uses a solid acidic polymer electrolyte that conducts protons (H+\text{H}^+) from the anode to the cathode, enabling quick dynamic response times suitable for variable renewable power inputs.

Answer

The correct operational principle of a Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) electrolyser is that it uses a solid acidic polymer electrolyte conducting protons (H+\text{H}^+) from anode to cathode, enabling fast dynamic responses to fluctuating renewable power inputs.
The correct statement accurately highlights that PEM water electrolysers utilize a solid acidic polymer electrolyte (such as Nafion) that conducts positively charged protons (H+\text{H}^+) from the anode to the cathode. Water oxidation takes place at the anode, releasing oxygen gas and protons. The protons migrate across the thin polymer membrane to the cathode where hydrogen gas is generated. The solid membrane structure ensures low gas cross-over, high current densities, and rapid response to power fluctuations, making it ideal for pairing with variable renewable energy sources like wind and solar.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the core components and electrochemical mechanisms of PEM electrolysers.
PEM electrolysers feature a solid polymer membrane (e.g., fluoropolymer-based like Nafion) with sulfonic acid groups acting as an acidic electrolyte.
Understanding the electrolyte type distinguishes PEM from Alkaline (liquid KOH) and SOEC (solid ceramic) technologies.
2
Examine the half-cell reactions and ion transport direction.
At the anode, water is oxidized (2H2O→O2+4H++4e−2\text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{O}_2 + 4\text{H}^+ + 4e^-). Protons (H+\text{H}^+) migrate through the membrane to the cathode, where they are reduced (4H++4e−→2H24\text{H}^+ + 4e^- \rightarrow 2\text{H}_2).
This confirms proton conduction from anode to cathode and correct gas evolution sites (oxygen at anode, hydrogen at cathode).
3
Evaluate operational characteristics relative to renewable energy integration.
Because of the thin solid polymer membrane and zero-gap cell design, PEM electrolysers exhibit low internal resistance, operation under high differential pressures, and rapid load-following capabilities suited for variable solar/wind power.
This confirms why PEM electrolysers are strategically crucial under the National Green Hydrogen Mission for handling intermittent renewable supply.

Key Concept

Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) Water Electrolysis for Green Hydrogen Generation
Question 3648Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the physical relief, mountain ranges, and drainage features of Madhya Pradesh:

I. The Vindhyan Range forms a prominent escarpment facing the Narmada valley to the south, with its highest elevation point, Sad-bhavana Shikhar (Goodwill Peak), situated on the Bhander Plateau.
II. The Narmada River flows westward through a structural rift valley bounded by the Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south, receiving the Tawa River as its major left-bank tributary originating in the Mahadeo Hills.
III. The Kaimur Range constitutes the eastern structural continuation of the Satpura Mountain System, acting as the primary watershed between the Mahanadi and Tapi river basins.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Statements I and II only

Answer

The correct answer is the option stating that Statements I and II only are correct.
Statements I and II are geographically accurate. Sad-bhavana Shikhar (Goodwill Peak) is the highest elevation in the Vindhya range located on the Bhander Plateau. Narmada flows through a rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges, receiving the Tawa River from the left bank (originating in the Mahadeo Hills). Statement III is false because the Kaimur Range is part of the Vindhya system (not Satpura) and acts as a watershed between the Son and Ganges tributaries.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement I regarding the Vindhya Range and its highest peak.
Statement I is correct. The Vindhya Range features an escarpment overlooking the Narmada rift. Its peak, Sad-bhavana Shikhar (also known as Goodwill Peak or Kalumar Peak), lies on the Bhander Plateau in Damoh district.
Geographical relief facts confirm Bhander Plateau hosts the highest elevation of the Vindhya system.
2
Evaluate Statement II regarding Narmada's rift valley and its tributary Tawa.
Statement II is correct. The Narmada flows west between the Vindhyas (north) and Satpuras (south). The Tawa River originates in the Mahadeo Hills (Satpura range) and flows northwards to join Narmada on its left bank.
Tawa is the longest left-bank tributary of the Narmada River.
3
Evaluate Statement III regarding the Kaimur Range.
Statement III is incorrect. The Kaimur Range forms the eastern wing of the Vindhya Range, not the Satpura Range. Furthermore, it forms the divide between the Son River basin to the south and the Yamuna/Ganga tributaries to the north.
Assigning Kaimur to the Satpura system and misidentifying its water divide are major geographical errors.

Key Concept

Physical relief, mountain ranges, and drainage systems of Madhya Pradesh
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3649Question →

Which international agreement, also known as the Washington Convention, was adopted to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)

Answer

Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) was signed at Washington, D.C. on March 3, 1973. Because of its signing location, it is commonly designated as the Washington Convention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary domain of the treaty described
The target treaty governs international commercial trade in wild animal and plant species to ensure their survival.
Matching treaty focus areas allows proper classification among global environmental agreements.
2
Associate the formal treaty title with its popular geographic name
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) was signed in Washington, D.C. in 1973 and is widely referred to as the Washington Convention.
State PSC examinations frequently evaluate knowledge of primary objectives alongside popular treaty aliases.

Key Concept

International Wildlife Trade and CITES (Washington Convention)
Question 3650Question →

With reference to the strategies established for biological conservation, consider the following statements:

1. Gene banks, tissue culture repositories, and arboreta are categorized as ex-situ conservation strategies because biological material is maintained outside natural habitats.
2. Biodiversity Heritage Sites notified under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, operate as ex-situ preservation zones designed exclusively for captive breeding.
3. In-situ conservation enables wild populations to undergo ongoing evolutionary adaptation within their natural ecological settings.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The correct evaluation selects the option containing statements 1 and 3 only. Off-site repositories such as gene banks, tissue culture collections, and arboreta collect and maintain biological specimens away from native habitats, making them ex-situ methods. In-situ conservation protects natural habitats, allowing populations to co-evolve naturally. In contrast, Biodiversity Heritage Sites are legally protected natural ecosystems conserved on-site (in-situ).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding gene banks, tissue culture repositories, and arboreta.
Statement 1 is correct. Ex-situ conservation refers to off-site preservation of components of biological diversity outside their natural habitats. Gene banks, tissue culture culture collections, botanical gardens, and arboreta fit this definition.
Off-site facilities hold living collections or germplasm under controlled conditions distinct from their wild environments.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS).
Statement 2 is incorrect. Biodiversity Heritage Sites, notified under Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, are well-defined, ecologically fragile ecosystems conserved in-situ (on-site). They are not ex-situ captive breeding facilities.
BHS aim to preserve wild or domesticated biodiversity in their natural ecosystem surroundings alongside local community participation.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding evolutionary adaptation in in-situ conservation.
Statement 3 is correct. A primary ecological advantage of in-situ conservation (such as in national parks and biosphere reserves) is that species interact naturally with biotic and abiotic selection pressures, sustaining natural evolutionary processes.
On-site protection maintains intact ecosystems where natural selection continues operating without artificial intervention.

Key Concept

Distinction between in-situ (on-site) and ex-situ (off-site) biodiversity conservation strategies, including biological reserve designations under national legislation.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3651Question →

Match the chemical compounds listed in List I with their corresponding primary daily life or industrial applications in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Silver Iodide (AgIAgI)
Sodium Benzoate (C6H5COONaC_6H_5COONa)
Calcium Phosphide (Ca3P2Ca_3P_2)
Aluminium Sulfate (Al2(SO4)3Al_2(SO_4)_3)

Matches

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Answer

Silver Iodide matches with cloud seeding for artificial rain synthesis; Sodium Benzoate matches with preservative for acidic foods and carbonated beverages; Calcium Phosphide matches with generation of phosphine gas for Holme's marine signals; Aluminium Sulfate matches with coagulant for municipal water clarification.
Each chemical compound is accurately linked to its specific daily life or industrial application: Silver Iodide is used for cloud seeding, Sodium Benzoate serves as an acidic food preservative, Calcium Phosphide generates phosphine gas for marine signaling, and Aluminium Sulfate functions as a water coagulant.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the industrial function of Silver Iodide
Silver iodide (AgIAgI) is applied in weather modification via cloud seeding due to its ice-like crystallographic symmetry.
Matching chemical agents to atmospheric weather intervention processes.
2
Identify the household/food application of Sodium Benzoate
Sodium benzoate (C6H5COONaC_6H_5COONa) acts as a chemical preservative inhibiting microbial growth in acidic consumables.
Matching organic salts to food chemistry and preservation techniques.
3
Identify the maritime safety application of Calcium Phosphide
Calcium phosphide (Ca3P2Ca_3P_2) hydrolyzes in seawater to liberate spontaneously combustible phosphine gas (PH3PH_3) used in Holme's signals.
Matching inorganic phosphides to spontaneous combustion signaling reactions.
4
Identify the water treatment role of Aluminium Sulfate
Aluminium sulfate (Al2(SO4)3Al_2(SO_4)_3) neutralizes negative charges on suspended colloids, promoting flocculation and clarification in water purification plants.
Matching metal salts to industrial coagulation and sanitation processes.

Key Concept

Industrial and Household Applications of Inorganic and Organic Compounds
Question 3652Question →

Which of the following statements best explains why the pyramid of biomass in an aquatic ecosystem, such as a deep lake or ocean, is typically inverted?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The standing crop of phytoplankton at any given moment is small due to their rapid turnover rate and short lifespan, while supporting a larger biomass of longer-lived primary consumers.

Answer

The standing crop of phytoplankton at any given moment is small due to their rapid turnover rate and short lifespan, while supporting a larger biomass of longer-lived primary consumers.
In aquatic ecosystems (like oceans and lakes), the pyramid of biomass is inverted because the standing crop of primary producers (phytoplankton) present at any given moment is small compared to the biomass of primary consumers (zooplankton/fish). Phytoplankton have very short lifespans and high turnover rates, continually replenishing the food supply despite low instantaneous biomass.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Define biomass pyramid dynamics in aquatic environments.
In aquatic ecosystems, primary producers are predominantly microscopic phytoplankton with extremely rapid life cycles.
Understanding standing crop versus productivity rate is necessary to explain inverted pyramids.
2
Compare turnover rates of producers and consumers.
Because phytoplankton reproduce and are consumed rapidly, their instantaneous biomass (standing crop) measured at any single point in time is low, even though total energy generation over time is high.
This rapid turnover enables a small mass of producers to sustain larger, longer-lived consumers like zooplankton and fish.

Key Concept

Inverted Pyramid of Biomass in Aquatic Ecosystems
Estimated Time:45s
Question 3653Question →

Which one of the following endemic Indian species is correctly matched with its corresponding biodiversity hotspot and primary natural habitat?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Lion-tailed Macaque — Western Ghats — Tropical evergreen forest canopy

Answer

Lion-tailed Macaque — Western Ghats — Tropical evergreen forest canopy
The correct option accurately pairs the Lion-tailed Macaque with the Western Ghats biodiversity hotspot and its native tropical evergreen canopy habitat.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the geographic distribution and habitat of the Lion-tailed Macaque.
The Lion-tailed Macaque (Macaca silenus) is endemic exclusively to undisturbed upper canopy patches of tropical evergreen rainforests in the Western Ghats hotspot of South India.
It is an arboreal primate dependent on dense, continuous evergreen canopy for foraging and survival.
2
Evaluate the hotspot and habitat pairings for the other species.
Sangai belongs to Manipur (Indo-Burma hotspot / Loktak phumdis), Nilgiri Tahr belongs to Western Ghats shola grasslands, and Namdapha Flying Squirrel belongs to Arunachal Pradesh (Himalaya / Indo-Burma transition zone).
Cross-referencing biogeographical regions demonstrates that the remaining pairings misassign either the hotspot or the primary habitat type.

Key Concept

Endemic Species Distribution across Indian Biodiversity Hotspots
Question 3654Question →

Match the key physical boundaries and astronomical limits listed in List-I with their corresponding definitions and physical significances in space science in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Chandrasekhar Limit
Roche Limit
Kármán Line
Van Allen Belts

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Chandrasekhar Limit corresponds to the maximum mass of a stable white dwarf (≈1.44M⊙\approx 1.44 M_{\odot}); Roche Limit corresponds to the minimum distance before tidal disruption occurs; Kármán Line corresponds to the 100 km100\text{ km} boundary of outer space; and Van Allen Belts correspond to the zones of energetic charged particles trapped in Earth's magnetic field.
Each concept accurately pairs with its physical definition: Chandrasekhar Limit specifies the white dwarf mass limit (≈1.44M⊙\approx 1.44 M_{\odot}), Roche Limit describes orbital disruption from tidal forces, Kármán Line establishes the 100 km100\text{ km} boundary of outer space, and Van Allen Belts describe Earth's trapped particle radiation zones.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Chandrasekhar Limit
Identified as the astrophysical mass threshold for white dwarfs (≈1.44M⊙\approx 1.44 M_{\odot}).
It marks the upper mass limit where electron degeneracy pressure balances gravity.
2
Analyze Roche Limit
Identified as the tidal disruption threshold for an orbiting satellite.
Inside this boundary, tidal forces from the primary body exceed the internal gravitational cohesion of the satellite.
3
Analyze Kármán Line
Identified as the 100 km100\text{ km} boundary separating atmosphere and outer space.
At this altitude, aerodynamic lift becomes negligible compared to orbital velocity requirements.
4
Analyze Van Allen Belts
Identified as regions of trapped radiation in Earth's magnetosphere.
Earth's magnetic dipole traps energetic electrons and protons in toroidal zones around the planet.

Key Concept

Physical Boundaries and Constants in Space Science and Astronomy
Question 3655Question →

Match the flagship social sector schemes listed in List-I with their respective Nodal Implementing Ministries listed in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Pradhan Mantri Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi)
Pradhan Mantri POSHAN Shakti Nirman (PM POSHAN)
Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN)
Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM)

Matches

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Answer

Pradhan Mantri Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) matches with Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs; Pradhan Mantri POSHAN Shakti Nirman (PM POSHAN) matches with Ministry of Education; Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN) matches with Ministry of Tribal Affairs; and Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) matches with Ministry of Rural Development.
Each scheme is accurately paired with its responsible Union Ministry: PM SVANidhi is managed by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs; PM POSHAN by the Ministry of Education; PM JANMAN by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs; and DAY-NRLM by the Ministry of Rural Development.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the nodal ministry for urban informal sector welfare schemes, specifically PM SVANidhi.
PM SVANidhi provides working capital loans to street vendors and is administered by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Street vending and urban informal employment fall under urban affairs governance.
2
Identify the nodal ministry responsible for school nutrition initiatives under PM POSHAN.
PM POSHAN covers elementary school children and is led by the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education.
The scheme links nutritional support directly with primary and upper-primary school enrollment.
3
Determine the administrative leadership for tribal welfare initiatives like PM JANMAN.
PM JANMAN addresses infrastructure and livelihood gaps in PVTGs led by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
PVTGs are specially vulnerable tribal communities falling under tribal development jurisdiction.
4
Identify the implementing ministry for rural livelihood programs under DAY-NRLM.
DAY-NRLM mobilizes rural poor households into Self Help Groups under the Ministry of Rural Development.
Rural poverty reduction and self-employment are core mandates of the Ministry of Rural Development.

Key Concept

Nodal Administrative Structure of Central Welfare Initiatives
Question 3656Question →

Match the following 19th-century regional revolts in Western India (Maharashtra state history) with their respective leaders:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Ramosi Uprising (1826–1829)
Bhil Revolt in Khandesh (1817–1819)
Sawantwadi Revolt (1844)
Gadkari Rebellion in Kolhapur (1844)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct pairings are: Ramosi Uprising (1826–1829) matches with Umaji Naik; Bhil Revolt in Khandesh (1817–1819) matches with Sevaram; Sawantwadi Revolt (1844) matches with Phond Sawant; and Gadkari Rebellion in Kolhapur (1844) matches with Daji Krishna Pandit.
Each historical movement corresponds accurately to its regional leader in Maharashtra state history: the Ramosi Uprising was led by Umaji Naik, the Khandesh Bhil Revolt by Sevaram, the Sawantwadi Revolt by Phond Sawant, and the Kolhapur Gadkari Rebellion by Daji Krishna Pandit.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the leader of the Ramosi movement in the Pune/Satara region.
Umaji Naik organized the Ramosis into an armed resistance following British Peshwa territorial annexation.
This establishes the link between Ramosi Uprising and Umaji Naik.
2
Identify the leadership of tribal resistance in Khandesh.
Sevaram led the local Bhil tribes against agrarian grievances and British occupation.
This establishes the link between the Khandesh Bhil Revolt and Sevaram.
3
Match the coast/southern Maratha uprisings (Sawantwadi and Kolhapur Gadkari revolts) with their regional commanders.
Phond Sawant directed the Sawantwadi resistance, while the discontented hereditary militia (Gadkaris) in Kolhapur rebelled under Daji Krishna Pandit's administrative changes.
This completes the accurate cross-matching of all 19th-century regional movements.

Key Concept

19th-Century State History and Regional Uprisings in Western India
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3657Question →

Match the international environmental conventions and protocols in List-I with their primary objective or environmental focus in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Montreal Protocol
Basel Convention
Ramsar Convention
Minamata Convention

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Montreal Protocol matches with Phasing out substances that deplete the ozone layer; Basel Convention matches with Regulation of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes; Ramsar Convention matches with Conservation and sustainable use of wetlands; Minamata Convention matches with Protection of human health and environment from mercury emissions.
Each international agreement corresponds directly to its defined domain: Montreal Protocol targets ozone-depleting substances, Basel Convention governs transboundary movements of hazardous waste, Ramsar Convention protects wetlands, and Minamata Convention controls toxic mercury contamination.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary focal area of the Montreal Protocol.
Protection of the ozone layer by phasing out ODS (Ozone Depleting Substances).
Adopted in 1987 under the Vienna Convention umbrella specifically for controlling substances like CFCs.
2
Identify the primary focal area of the Basel Convention.
Control of transboundary movements and disposal of hazardous wastes.
Adopted in 1989 to prevent illegal dumping of toxic wastes from developed to developing nations.
3
Identify the primary focal area of the Ramsar Convention.
Conservation and wise use of wetlands of international importance.
Signed in Ramsar, Iran in 1971, focusing exclusively on wetland ecosystem preservation.
4
Identify the primary focal area of the Minamata Convention.
Addressing toxic mercury emissions and releases.
Named after Minamata city in Japan, which suffered severe mercury poisoning in the 20th century.

Key Concept

Primary Mandates of Major International Environmental Treaties
Question 3658Question →

Consider the following statements regarding major international environmental conventions and protocols:

1. The Nagoya Protocol operationalizes the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
2. The Kigali Amendment explicitly brought Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)—which are non-ozone depleting greenhouse gases with high global warming potential—under the phasedown schedule of the Montreal Protocol.
3. The Rotterdam Convention establishes a legally binding global mechanism designed for the complete ban and elimination of all persistent toxic industrial chemicals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The correct combination comprises statements 1 and 2. The Nagoya Protocol addresses benefit-sharing of genetic resources under the CBD, and the Kigali Amendment incorporates hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) into the Montreal Protocol despite their non-ozone depleting nature. Statement 3 is false because the Rotterdam Convention regulates international trade transparency through Prior Informed Consent (PIC), whereas chemical prohibition is governed by the Stockholm Convention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the Nagoya Protocol.
Statement 1 is correct. Adopted in 2010 under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), the Nagoya Protocol sets out obligations regarding access to genetic resources, benefit-sharing, and compliance.
It directly targets the third key objective of the CBD.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the Kigali Amendment.
Statement 2 is correct. The Kigali Amendment (2016) amended the Montreal Protocol to phase down the production and consumption of HFCs.
Although HFCs were introduced as ozone-friendly replacements for CFCs and HCFCs, they are powerful greenhouse gases; regulating them under the Montreal Protocol prevents significant additional global warming.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the Rotterdam Convention.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Rotterdam Convention (1998) promotes shared responsibility in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals through the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure.
The convention responsible for banning and eliminating toxic persistent industrial chemicals is the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), not the Rotterdam Convention.

Key Concept

Specific mandates and operational frameworks of international environmental agreements (Nagoya Protocol, Kigali Amendment, Rotterdam Convention)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 3659Question →

Under the Constitution of India, who among the following constitutional authorities is mandated to constitute a State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of local bodies in the state?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Governor of the State

Answer

The Governor of the State
Under Articles 243-I and 243-Y of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a state is constitutionally mandated to constitute a State Finance Commission every five years. The commission makes recommendations regarding the distribution of net tax proceeds between the State and local governance bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the relevant constitutional provisions governing local self-government institutions.
Articles 243-I and 243-Y dictate the financial distribution mechanisms for Panchayats and Municipalities.
These provisions were added by the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts.
2
Determine the appointing/constituting authority specified under these constitutional articles.
The Governor of the State is explicitly empowered to constitute a State Finance Commission every five years.
The Governor acts as the constitutional head of the state responsible for establishing statutory and constitutional bodies under state jurisdiction.

Key Concept

Establishment and composition of the State Finance Commission
Question 3660Question →

Chemical fertilizers play a crucial role in modern agriculture by replenishing essential plant nutrients. Consider the following statements regarding the chemical properties and behavior of common chemical fertilizers:

1. Urea (CO(NH2)2CO(NH_2)_2) is an organic nitrogenous fertilizer that leaves a strongly alkaline residue in the soil after prolonged application.
2. Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN) is classified as a neutral fertilizer because its calcium carbonate content prevents soil acidification.
3. Single Superphosphate (SSP) provides both primary phosphorus (P2O5P_2O_5) and secondary sulfur (SS) nutrients to crops.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
The correct option identifies statements 2 and 3 as correct. Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN) is widely known as a neutral fertilizer ('Kisan Khad') because its carbonate component balances soil acidity. Single Superphosphate (SSP) is valuable because it delivers both phosphorus (~16% P2O5P_2O_5) and essential sulfur (~12% S) to plants. Statement 1 is incorrect because urea application ultimately increases soil acidity over time due to the microbial nitrification process.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Urea's chemical residue in soil.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Urea (CO(NH2)2CO(NH_2)_2) is chemically organic, but inside the soil, it undergoes enzymatic hydrolysis to ammonium ions (NH4+NH_4^+) followed by nitrification into nitrate ions (NO3−NO_3^-), releasing hydrogen ions (H+H^+). Thus, long-term application leaves an acidic residue, not an alkaline one.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN).
Statement 2 is correct.
CAN is manufactured by mixing ammonium nitrate with calcium carbonate (limestone or dolomite). The presence of calcium carbonate neutralizes the acid-forming tendency of ammonium nitrate, making CAN a neutral fertilizer suitable for acid soils.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Single Superphosphate (SSP).
Statement 3 is correct.
SSP is produced by reacting phosphate rock with sulfuric acid. The resulting product contains monocalcium phosphate (supplying phosphorus) and calcium sulfate/gypsum (supplying sulfur (~12%) and calcium).

Key Concept

Chemical Composition and Soil Interaction of Agricultural Fertilizers
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