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Question 3621Question →

With reference to the historic Kol Uprising (1831–1832) against colonial administrative expansion and agrarian disruption in eastern India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The uprising was primarily centered in the Chota Nagpur plateau region, spanning areas such as Ranchi, Singhbhum, and Hazaribagh.; It was prominently led by Buddho Bhagat and arose as an armed resistance against the influx of non-tribal landholders (Dikus) and heavy revenue demands.; The tribal insurgents relied primarily on traditional weaponry, such as bows, arrows, spears, and axes, to confront colonial militia.

Answer

The correct statements are that the uprising was centered in the Chota Nagpur plateau region, it was prominently led by Buddho Bhagat against non-tribal landholders (Dikus), and the insurgents used traditional weaponry like bows and arrows.
The Kol Uprising (1831–1832) was a landmark tribal resistance movement in the Chota Nagpur region. Led by leaders like Buddho Bhagat, tribal communities revolted against the dispossession of ancestral lands by non-tribal outsiders (Dikus) and heavy colonial taxation, using traditional weapons such as bows, arrows, and spears.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the geographical scope of the Kol Uprising
The revolt occurred across the Chota Nagpur region including Ranchi, Singhbhum, and Hazaribagh.
Verifies the geographical context of the historical movement.
2
Identify key leaders and underlying causes
Buddho Bhagat led the resistance against forced land transfers to non-tribal outsiders (Dikus) and colonial revenue agents.
Confirms the leadership and socio-economic motivation of the uprising.
3
Evaluate the administrative consequence of the movement
The British enacted Regulation XIII of 1833–1834, forming the South-West Frontier Agency (SWFA). The Permanent Settlement of 1793 predates the revolt.
Identifies the chronological mismatch regarding post-rebellion policy changes.
4
Examine the methods of resistance
Insurgents used traditional weapons like bows, arrows, axes, and spears.
Validates the nature of tribal resistance arms utilized.

Key Concept

Kol Uprising (1831–1832) leadership, geographic scope, causes, and post-rebellion administrative changes
Question 3622Question →

Which international environmental treaty, signed in 1971, provides the global legal framework dedicated specifically to the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ramsar Convention

Answer

The Ramsar Convention
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance is an international treaty signed in 1971 that establishes national actions and international cooperation for wetland conservation and sustainable resource usage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary focus of the 1971 agreement.
The Ramsar Convention, adopted in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran, specifically addresses wetland conservation.
It is the only global treaty focused exclusively on a single type of ecosystem (wetlands).

Key Concept

Ramsar Convention on Wetlands
Estimated Time:45s
Question 3623Question →

Consider the following statements regarding industrial pollution control technologies and atmospheric chemical phenomena:

1. Catalytic converters fitted in automobiles utilize platinum-palladium and rhodium catalysts to reduce toxic emissions by converting unburnt hydrocarbons into CO2CO_2 and H2OH_2O, carbon monoxide into CO2CO_2, and nitric oxide into N2N_2 gas.
2. Electrostatic Precipitators (ESPs) deployed in thermal power plants remove over 99% of particulate matter by generating an electric corona that imparts a negative charge to dust particles, which are then collected on grounded plates.
3. Photochemical smog is classified as a reducing smog because it primarily consists of high concentrations of sulfur dioxide (SO2SO_2) and particulate matter formed under cold, humid weather conditions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Statements 1 and 2 accurately present the operating chemistry and physics of primary air pollution abatement systems (catalytic converters and electrostatic precipitators). Statement 3 incorrectly characterizes Photochemical smog as a reducing mixture; Photochemical smog is strongly oxidizing due to high levels of ground-level ozone and PAN generated via photochemical reactions of nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons in warm, sunny environments.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding catalytic converters
Statement 1 is correct. Catalytic converters use noble metals (platinum, palladium, rhodium) to oxidize hydrocarbons to CO2CO_2 and H2OH_2O, oxidize COCO to CO2CO_2, and reduce NOxNO_x to inert nitrogen gas (N2N_2).
Verifying chemical transformations induced by automotive emission abatement technologies.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Electrostatic Precipitators
Statement 2 is correct. High voltage electrode wires produce a corona discharge releasing electrons, which attach to dust particles to give them a net negative charge so they can be attracted to positively charged/grounded collecting plates.
Evaluating particulate control technology efficiency and electro-physical operating principles in power plants.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding smog types and chemical characteristics
Statement 3 is incorrect. Photochemical smog occurs in warm, sunny climates and is an oxidizing mixture containing secondary pollutants like O3O_3, PAN, and aldehydes. Classical smog is reducing smog, dominated by SO2SO_2 and coal smoke in cold, humid climates.
Distinguishing between primary/secondary pollutant dynamics and atmospheric smog oxidation states.

Key Concept

Air Pollution Abatement Technologies and Atmospheric Photochemical Reactions
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3624Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the price indices (WPI and CPI) and monetary inflation control mechanisms in India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures price changes strictly for physical goods and excludes service sector transactions, whereas the Consumer Price Index (CPI) includes services such as medical care, education, and transport.; An upward adjustment of the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by the Reserve Bank of India reduces the loanable funds available with commercial banks, thereby helping to suppress demand-pull inflation.

Answer

The correct statements are that WPI excludes services while CPI includes them, and that an increase in CRR by the RBI absorbs liquidity from commercial banks to curb demand-pull inflation.
The statement describing index coverage correctly notes that WPI excludes services while CPI incorporates service categories. Furthermore, the statement on monetary intervention accurately explains that increasing the CRR locks bank funds with the RBI, reducing overall money supply and restricting demand-pull inflation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze index coverage and service inclusion in WPI vs CPI.
WPI monitors wholesale price trends of commodities only, omitting services. CPI measures consumer end-user retail prices and explicitly includes services like transport, healthcare, and education.
This confirms that the comparison regarding service coverage between WPI and CPI is factual.
2
Evaluate the quantitative monetary tool (CRR) impact on inflation.
Raising the Cash Reserve Ratio forces commercial banks to park more cash reserves with the RBI, shrinking money supply and credit capacity in the economy.
Lower credit capacity lowers consumer spending and aggregate demand, directly countering demand-pull inflation.
3
Verify publishing authorities and basket weightages of CPI and WPI.
CPI Combined is published by the National Statistical Office (NSO), MoSPI (not the Office of Economic Adviser). Furthermore, food items have a higher weightage in CPI (~45.86%) than in WPI (~24.38%).
Identifies the false statements regarding publishing authority and food weightage.

Key Concept

Structural differences between WPI and CPI metrics and quantitative monetary policy mechanisms for managing inflation.
Question 3625Question →

Industrial fuel gases are synthesized through various chemical reactions to serve specific heating and synthesis applications. Among these, fuel gases are categorized by their combustible and non-combustible constituent gases. Which of the following correctly describes the chemical composition of Water Gas?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A mixture of carbon monoxide (COCO) and hydrogen (H2H_2)

Answer

The chemical composition of Water Gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide (COCO) and hydrogen (H2H_2).
Water Gas is an important industrial synthesis gas formed by reacting steam with red-hot carbon at elevated temperatures, yielding an approximate 1:1 mixture of carbon monoxide (COCO) and hydrogen (H2H_2). It has high calorific value and serves as a precursor in methanol synthesis and fuel cells.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the industrial synthesis reaction for Water Gas
Passing steam (H2OH_2O) over red-hot coke (CC) at high temperatures yields C+H2O→CO+H2C + H_2O \rightarrow CO + H_2.
This endothermic reaction produces an equimolar mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen.
2
Distinguish Water Gas from other industrial fuel gases
Water Gas consists of CO+H2CO + H_2, whereas Producer Gas consists of CO+N2CO + N_2 (formed by passing air over hot coke).
Clear differentiation of fuel gases by their constituent components is essential for industrial synthesis.

Key Concept

Chemical composition and industrial preparation of fuel gases (Water Gas vs Producer Gas vs Biogas vs LPG)
Question 3626Question →

Match the basic ecological terms in List-I with their appropriate structural descriptions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Ecotone
Ecological Niche
Biome
Abiotic Component

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Ecotone matches with the transitional zone where two distinct biological communities meet; Ecological Niche matches with the functional role and biotic interactions of a species; Biome matches with a large regional ecosystem characterized by distinct climate and vegetation; Abiotic Component matches with non-living physical and chemical factors.
Each ecological concept is directly paired with its fundamental definition: Ecotone is the transitional boundary between communities; Ecological Niche defines the functional role of an organism; Biome is a large regional ecosystem classified by climate and plant life; Abiotic Component comprises the non-living physical factors of the ecosystem.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the definition of Ecotone
Ecotone represents the transition zone between two different ecosystems.
Concept definition matching.
2
Identify the definition of Ecological Niche
Ecological Niche refers to the functional role of a species, distinguishing it from physical habitat.
Concept definition matching.
3
Identify the definition of Biome
Biome refers to a broad geographic climatic zone with characteristic flora and fauna.
Concept definition matching.
4
Identify the definition of Abiotic Component
Abiotic components encompass non-living ecological factors like temperature, water, and soil.
Concept definition matching.

Key Concept

Basic Concepts of Ecology and Ecosystem Structure
Estimated Time:45s
Question 3627Question →

Regarding the historic Tana Bhagat Movement (1914) in regional state tribal history, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It was initiated under the leadership of Jatra Bhagat among the Oraon tribal community of Chota Nagpur.; The movement emphasized socio-religious purification, advocating vegetarianism and total abstinence from alcohol.

Answer

The correct statements are that the movement was initiated under the leadership of Jatra Bhagat among the Oraon tribal community of Chota Nagpur, and that it emphasized socio-religious purification, advocating vegetarianism and total abstinence from alcohol.
The Tana Bhagat Movement was started by Jatra Bhagat in 1914 among the Oraon tribe in Chota Nagpur. It began as a socio-religious reform movement promoting moral purity, abstinence from liquor, and vegetarianism, before evolving into a non-violent agrarian protest against British land revenue demands and forced labor (begar).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the origin and leadership of the Tana Bhagat Movement.
Confirm that Jatra Bhagat started the movement in 1914 among the Oraon tribe in the Chota Nagpur region.
Establishing historical leadership and geographic origin validates the foundational statement.
2
Evaluate the socio-religious principles of the movement.
Verify that the movement urged followers to abandon alcohol consumption, animal sacrifice, and adopt vegetarianism.
Socio-religious reform was an essential precursor to their non-violent agrarian resistance.
3
Assess the political orientation and relationship with the colonial administration.
Disprove claims of collaboration with colonial authorities or reliance on unrelated acts like the Vernacular Press Act.
The Tana Bhagats adopted Gandhian satyagraha principles and non-cooperation against British revenue collectors.

Key Concept

Tana Bhagat Tribal Movement and Socio-Religious Agrarian Resistance
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3628Question →

With reference to the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006 in India, consider the following statements:

1. Category 'A' projects require mandatory environmental clearance at the central level by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) based on recommendations of the Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC).
2. Category 'B1' projects are appraised at the state level by the State Level Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA) and undergo mandatory Environmental Impact Assessment and public consultation.
3. Category 'B2' projects are strictly required to conduct a public hearing and submit a detailed Environmental Impact Assessment report prior to clearance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct option is 1 and 2 only.
Category 'A' projects are cleared at the national level by MoEFCC on the advice of the Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC). Category 'B' projects are handled at the state level by the State Level Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA). Category 'B1' requires a full EIA study and public consultation, whereas Category 'B2' projects are exempted from both EIA preparation and public consultation. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is false.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Category 'A' projects
Category 'A' projects have potential significant impacts and require prior environmental clearance from MoEFCC based on Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) recommendations.
Statement 1 is correct per the EIA Notification, 2006 framework.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Category 'B1' projects
Category 'B' projects are divided into B1 and B2. Category B1 projects require a full EIA process, including public consultation, and are appraised at the state level by the State Level Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC) and cleared by the SEIAA.
Statement 2 is correct.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Category 'B2' projects
Category B2 projects are explicitly exempted from the requirement of a detailed EIA report and public hearing/consultation process. They are appraised directly based on standard Form 1/Form 1A submissions.
Statement 3 is incorrect.

Key Concept

Categorization and clearance procedures under the EIA Notification, 2006 (Category A vs. Category B1 and B2).
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3629Question →

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) rely on security protocols to protect data transmitted over radio waves. Regarding the Wi-Fi Protected Access 3 (WPA3) security standard, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It replaces the traditional Pre-Shared Key (PSK) handshake with Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to prevent offline dictionary attacks.; It mandates the implementation of Protected Management Frames (PMF) to shield management traffic from eavesdropping and spoofing.; It enforces Forward Secrecy to ensure that compromised long-term network credentials cannot be used to decrypt previously recorded traffic.

Answer

The correct statements are those identifying the replacement of PSK with SAE, the mandatory use of Protected Management Frames (PMF), and the enforcement of Forward Secrecy.
WPA3 introduces critical architectural enhancements over WPA2, including Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to stop offline dictionary attacks, mandatory Protected Management Frames (PMF) to prevent forged disconnect commands, and Forward Secrecy to protect past network traffic from retroactive decryption.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze key authentication mechanism updates in WPA3.
WPA3 adopts Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) instead of the 4-way PSK handshake used in WPA2 Personal.
SAE utilizes the Dragonfly key exchange algorithm, preventing attackers from capturing the handshake and guessing passwords offline.
2
Evaluate frame protection requirements.
Protected Management Frames (PMF) are mandatory across all WPA3 connections.
PMF prevents unauthorized actors from forging administrative packets, such as disassociation or deauthentication frames, to disconnect users.
3
Examine session security and cryptographic foundations.
WPA3 provides Forward Secrecy and continues to use authenticated symmetric encryption (AES) and cryptographic hashing.
Forward Secrecy protects historic data sessions if password credentials are leaked in the future, while ciphers and hashes provide confidentiality and integrity.

Key Concept

Wi-Fi Security Protocols and Modern Wireless Encryption (WPA3 Standards)
Question 3630Question →

Which of the following statements regarding species endemism and ecological diversity metrics are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Palaeo-endemism refers to evolutionary ancient species that were once widespread but are now geographically restricted to specific isolated refugia.; High beta diversity indicates a high rate of turnover in species composition between different adjacent habitats or ecological gradients.

Answer

The correct statements are that palaeo-endemism refers to ancient species restricted to isolated refugia, and high beta diversity indicates rapid species turnover across habitats.
Palaeo-endemism accurately characterizes ancient species (relicts) now restricted to small areas. Beta diversity specifically measures the turnover rate of species composition when moving between different communities or habitats.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the definition of palaeo-endemism
Palaeo-endemism accurately describes relict populations of phylogenetically older groups confined to remnant refugia.
It contrasts with neo-endemism, where newly evolved species have not yet spread beyond their origin.
2
Analyze the territorial coverage of Indian biodiversity hotspots
The Nicobar group of islands falls under the Sundaland hotspot, not Indo-Burma.
Indo-Burma encompasses Northeast India and the Andaman Islands, while Sundaland extends into the Nicobar Islands.
3
Distinguish between Whittaker's diversity indices (Alpha, Beta, and Gamma)
Beta diversity measures species turnover between communities, while Gamma diversity measures overall regional diversity.
Alpha is local richness, Beta is composition change across habitats, and Gamma is total regional richness.

Key Concept

Classification of endemic species types, spatial limits of Indian biodiversity hotspots, and Whittaker's ecological diversity indices.
Question 3631Question →

Arrange the following major rivers flowing through Odisha in sequential order from North to South based on the latitudinal position of their river mouths along the East Coast of India.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequential order from North to South is Subarnarekha River, Baitarani River, Mahanadi River, Rushikulya River, and Vamsadhara River.
The correct North-to-South latitudinal arrangement of Odisha's coastal rivers begins with Subarnarekha River in the far north, followed sequentially by Baitarani River, Mahanadi River forming the central delta, Rushikulya River in southern Odisha, and Vamsadhara River at the southernmost boundary.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the coastal discharge latitude of the northernmost Odisha river
Subarnarekha River discharges into the Bay of Bengal at approx. 21°33' N near Kirtania in Balasore district, placing it northernmost.
Establishing the northern boundary of the state's coastal river system.
2
Determine the spatial sequence of central coastal river basins
Baitarani River empties near Dhamra at approx. 20°48' N, followed southwards by the primary delta outlets of the Mahanadi River near Paradeep at approx. 20°16' N.
Ordering the central coastal drainage systems of Odisha.
3
Identify the southern coastal and trans-boundary rivers
Rushikulya River enters the sea near Puruna Bandha at approx. 19°22' N, while Vamsadhara River flows south of Rushikulya through Rayagada/Gajapati to reach the sea at Kalingapatnam at approx. 18°20' N.
Completing the geographic sequence down to the southern border area.

Key Concept

Latitudinal spatial distribution of coastal river systems in Odisha
Question 3632Question →

With reference to Lagrange Points and orbital dynamics used in space astronomy missions such as Aditya-L1L_1, consider the following statements:

1. Lagrange points represent positions in space where the combined gravitational pull of two large masses equals the required centripetal force for a small body to orbit along with them.
2. Placing a solar observatory in a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth L1L_1 point provides continuous, unobstructed observation of the Sun without occultation or eclipses.
3. Halo orbits surrounding the Sun-Earth L1L_1 point are permanently stable equilibrium states, eliminating the need for station-keeping thruster maneuvers over the operational lifespan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The correct answer identifies that Statements 1 and 2 are true while Statement 3 is false. Lagrange points represent precise orbital locations where gravitational force balances centripetal acceleration. The Sun-Earth L1 point affords continuous line-of-sight view of the solar disk without Earth or Moon blockage. However, collinear points (L1, L2, L3) are saddle-point equilibria, meaning halo orbits around L1 are inherently unstable and mandate routine station-keeping thruster maneuvers.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the physical definition of Lagrange points.
Statement 1 is correct.
Lagrange points are equilibrium positions in a two-body orbital system (such as the Sun and Earth) where gravitational forces and centrifugal forces balance out relative to a rotating frame of reference.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding solar observation advantages at Sun-Earth L1.
Statement 2 is correct.
Sun-Earth L1 lies approximately 1.5 million km from Earth directly toward the Sun, providing an uninterrupted view of solar activity without atmospheric distortion or planetary eclipses.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding orbital stability and station-keeping requirements of halo orbits.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The collinear Lagrange points (L1, L2, L3) are dynamically unstable points of equilibrium. Spacecraft in halo orbits around L1 drift due to gravitational perturbations and require periodic correction firings (station-keeping).

Key Concept

Lagrange Points and Halo Orbit Mechanics in Deep Space Missions
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3633Question →

With reference to the historic Bijolia Peasant Movement in regional state history, consider the following statements:

1. It was a prolonged anti-feudal agitation directed against excessive land revenue, forced labor (Begar), and various illegal cesses (Lagtags) imposed by the local Jagirdar.
2. Vijay Singh Pathik assumed leadership of the movement in its second phase and established the Bijolia Kisan Panchayat to organize the peasantry.
3. The movement ended abruptly in 1920 without securing any tax relief or agrarian concessions from the Mewar state administration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct option is the one stating that statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Statements 1 and 2 are factually correct. The Bijolia Peasant Movement in Mewar was one of the longest non-violent peasant agitations in Indian state history, directed against feudal cesses and forced labor. Vijay Singh Pathik led the movement during its peak phase and established the Kisan Panchayat. Statement 3 is false because the movement achieved significant concessions in 1922 and continued until its final resolution in 1941.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the nature and causes of the Bijolia Peasant Movement.
Statement 1 is correct. The movement originated in the Mewar region against heavy land revenue demands, forced labor (Begar), and around 84 custom cesses (Lagtags).
Understanding the agrarian grievances is essential to evaluate the movement's objectives.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 concerning the leadership of Vijay Singh Pathik.
Statement 2 is correct. Vijay Singh Pathik (Bhoop Singh) joined the movement in 1916 during its second phase and founded the Kisan Panchayat to streamline peasant organization.
Identifying key state movement leaders and their organizational contributions is critical for state history.
3
Verify Statement 3 regarding the timeline and outcome of the movement.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The movement did not end in 1920; an agreement was negotiated in 1922 yielding tax concessions, and the movement finally concluded in 1941 after resolving revenue grievances.
Chronological accuracy and historical outcomes distinguish true facts from distractor statements.

Key Concept

Bijolia Peasant Movement and Regional Agrarian Uprisings
Question 3634Question →

Consider the following statements regarding a Financial Bill (Category I) under Article 117(1) of the Constitution of India:

1. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President of India.
3. The Rajya Sabha has the power to reject or amend it in the same manner as an ordinary bill.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
The correct response identifies that all three statements accurately describe the constitutional provisions governing a Financial Bill (Category I) under Article 117(1). It shares two introducing conditions with Money Bills (Lok Sabha introduction only, and prior recommendation of the President), but in all subsequent legislative stages, it is treated as an ordinary bill, allowing Rajya Sabha to reject or amend it.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding introduction house.
Under Article 117(1), a Financial Bill (Category I) contains matters listed in Article 110 as well as general legislative matters. Like a Money Bill, it can be introduced ONLY in the Lok Sabha.
Constitutional mandate restricts its initiation to the Lower House.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding prior executive recommendation.
Article 117(1) explicitly requires the prior recommendation of the President before introduction in the Lok Sabha.
Financial proposals involving public expenditure or revenue require executive authorization.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Rajya Sabha's powers.
Unlike a Money Bill (where Rajya Sabha has restricted 14-day advisory powers), a Financial Bill (Category I) is governed by ordinary legislative procedure after introduction. Hence, Rajya Sabha can accept, amend, or reject it, and a joint sitting under Article 108 can be summoned in case of deadlock.
Non-taxation or general legislative aspects of the bill grant equal legislative status to Rajya Sabha post-introduction.

Key Concept

Financial Bill (Category I) under Article 117(1)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 3635Question →

Arrange the following major international environmental agreements in chronological order of their adoption, from the earliest to the most recent:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order of adoption is: Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (1971), followed by the Montreal Protocol (1987), the Kyoto Protocol (1997), and finally the Paris Agreement (2015).
The Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971 to protect wetlands. The Montreal Protocol followed in 1987 to protect the stratospheric ozone layer. The Kyoto Protocol was established in 1997 to enforce greenhouse gas emission commitments. Finally, the Paris Agreement was adopted in 2015 to strengthen the global response to climate change.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the adoption year for each international convention/agreement
Ramsar Convention was adopted in 1971; Montreal Protocol in 1987; Kyoto Protocol in 1997; Paris Agreement in 2015.
Establishing the precise timeline of international environmental treaties is necessary to sequence them chronologically.
2
Sequence the events from the earliest year to the latest year
1971 (Ramsar) → 1987 (Montreal) → 1997 (Kyoto) → 2015 (Paris).
Ordering the dates chronologically gives the final sequence.

Key Concept

Chronology of International Environmental Treaties
Question 3636Question →

Match the following agricultural trade and subsidy terms (List-I) with their corresponding economic provisions under international and national policy frameworks (List-II):

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Amber Box Subsidies
Green Box Subsidies
Blue Box Subsidies
De Minimis Limit

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Amber Box Subsidies pair with trade-distorting price supports subject to reduction; Green Box Subsidies pair with decoupled support causing minimal trade distortion; Blue Box Subsidies pair with direct payments under production-limiting programs; and De Minimis Limit pairs with the 10% support threshold for developing nations.
Under WTO agricultural trade negotiations, subsidies are classified into specific colored boxes according to their potential to distort international market prices. Amber Box encompasses trade-distorting subsidies subject to reduction commitments. Green Box includes non-distorting public services and decoupled direct payments. Blue Box applies to conditional production-limiting schemes. The De Minimis provision allows developing countries a allowable limit of 10% of agricultural output value for trade-distorting domestic support.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the nature of Amber Box subsidies in agricultural economics.
Amber Box covers actionable, trade-distorting measures like procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) and power/fertilizer subsidies.
These measures directly affect market prices and production quantities.
2
Analyze Green Box provisions.
Green Box consists of non-distorting or minimally distorting government services like R&D, disaster relief, and general infrastructure.
They are exempt from any expenditure caps or reduction obligations under WTO agreements.
3
Evaluate Blue Box and De Minimis conditions for developing economies.
Blue Box relates strictly to supply-management or production-limiting subsidies, while De Minimis establishes a 10% cap for developing countries (5% for developed countries) on product-specific and non-product-specific support.
Understanding these limits is vital for analyzing India's agricultural policy trade disputes.

Key Concept

WTO Agricultural Subsidy Classification and Domestic Support Provisions
Question 3637Question →

Consider the following statements regarding atmospheric pollutants:
1. Primary pollutants are emitted directly from identifiable sources into the atmosphere.
2. Ground-level ozone is a secondary pollutant formed through chemical reactions between nitrogen oxides (NOxNO_x) and volatile organic compounds (VOCsVOCs) in the presence of sunlight.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Both statements are correct. Primary pollutants are emitted directly from sources (e.g., carbon monoxide from motor vehicles). Ground-level (tropospheric) ozone is a secondary pollutant formed via atmospheric photochemical reactions between precursor emissions of nitrogen oxides (NOxNO_x) and volatile organic compounds (VOCsVOCs).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding primary pollutants
Statement 1 is correct
Primary pollutants (such as carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide, and particulate matter) enter the atmosphere directly from natural or anthropogenic sources.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding ground-level ozone formation
Statement 2 is correct
Ground-level ozone is a classic secondary pollutant produced when primary precursors like NOxNO_x and VOCsVOCs interact photochemically in sunlight.

Key Concept

Classification of Air Pollutants: Primary vs. Secondary Pollutants
Question 3638Question →

Which of the following statements correctly describes the key eligibility criteria and structural framework of the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) scheme?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme for unorganized workers aged 18 to 40 years with a monthly income of ₹15,000 or less, providing a minimum assured pension of ₹3,000 per month upon reaching 60 years of age.

Answer

The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme for unorganized workers aged 18 to 40 years with a monthly income of ₹15,000 or less, providing a minimum assured pension of ₹3,000 per month after attaining 60 years of age.
The statement identifying PM-SYM as a voluntary and contributory pension scheme for unorganized workers aged 18 to 40 years earning ₹15,000 or less monthly with a guaranteed ₹3,000 pension at age 60 is correct. It accurately reflects all core parameters established by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the target group and income ceiling of PM-SYM
PM-SYM targets unorganized workers (home-based workers, street vendors, midday meal workers, head loaders, rickshaw pullers, landless agricultural laborers, etc.) earning ₹15,000 or less per month.
Establishing target beneficiary parameters filters out formal sector workers and higher-income individuals.
2
Verify entry age limits and contribution structure
The entry age is between 18 and 40 years. Beneficiaries make monthly contributions matching an equal 50% share contributed by the Central Government.
Understanding the contributory mechanism ensures clarity on funding responsibility between subscriber and government.
3
Determine pension benefits and fund management agency
Subscribers receive an assured minimum pension of ₹3,000 per month upon attaining 60 years of age. The fund is managed by LIC and administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
Evaluating payout structures and implementing agencies differentiates PM-SYM from other social security schemes like APY or PM-KMY.

Key Concept

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Scheme Architecture
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3639Question →

With reference to water pollution indicators, thermal pollution dynamics, and industrial emission control technologies, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic organisms to decompose biodegradable organic matter, whereas Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) measures the oxygen required for chemical oxidation of both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organic pollutants.; Thermal discharge into natural water bodies reduces the solubility of dissolved oxygen while simultaneously increasing the metabolic rates and oxygen demands of aquatic organisms.

Answer

The statements distinguishing BOD from COD and describing the dual impact of thermal pollution on dissolved oxygen and metabolic rates are correct.
The statement differentiating BOD and COD correctly highlights that COD includes both chemically degradable refractory compounds and biological organics, making COD higher than BOD. The statement on thermal pollution accurately captures the thermodynamic principle of gas solubility alongside biological metabolic escalation in warmer water.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the statement regarding Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) versus Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD).
BOD measures biodegradable organic fraction via biological oxidation, while COD measures total oxidizable organic content (biodegradable + non-biodegradable) via strong chemical oxidation. Therefore, COD>BODCOD > BOD always holds true for domestic and industrial effluent.
Understanding wastewater quality parameters requires differentiating biological breakdown from chemical breakdown.
2
Evaluate the statement concerning thermal pollution mechanisms in aquatic environments.
Water temperature exhibits an inverse relationship with dissolved oxygen (DO) concentration. Simultaneously, Q10 metabolic principles dictate that higher temperatures increase aquatic animal metabolic rates, compounding oxygen stress.
Thermal pollution creates a synergistic ecological hazard: reduced oxygen availability combined with heightened biological oxygen demand.
3
Evaluate the statement regarding Electrostatic Precipitators (ESPs).
ESPs remove particulate pollutants (fly ash, dust) via high-voltage corona electrodes, not gaseous compounds like SO2SO_2 or VOCs.
Industrial control devices specialize by pollutant phase; gaseous emissions require wet/dry scrubbers or catalytic reactors.
4
Evaluate the statement concerning cultural eutrophication and dissolved oxygen.
Excessive nutrient enrichment causes algal blooms that prevent light penetration. Subsequent decay of dead algae by aerobic bacteria consumes massive amounts of oxygen, producing severe benthic hypoxia.
Eutrophication leads to net oxygen deficit across deeper aquatic zones despite high surface photosynthetic activity.

Key Concept

Wastewater parameters (BOD/COD), thermal pollution mechanics, and air pollution control equipment operating principles
Question 3640Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 in India:

1. Under the Act, food security entitlements extend to up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population.
2. Beneficiaries under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) are entitled to 35 kg of foodgrains per household per month, whereas Priority Households receive 5 kg of foodgrains per person per month.
3. The identification of eligible Priority Households is conducted directly by the Central Government based on NITI Aayog guidelines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
The correct response identifies that Statements 1 and 2 are accurate statutory features of the National Food Security Act, 2013. The act provides legal entitlements for 75% of rural and 50% of urban populations, allocating 35 kg/month per household for AAY beneficiaries and 5 kg/month per person for Priority Households. Statement 3 is incorrect because section 10 of the NFSA specifically mandates State Governments to identify priority households within their allocated coverage limits.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding NFSA coverage limits.
NFSA 2013 mandates legal entitlement to subsidized foodgrains for up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population (covering overall ~67% of India's population). Statement 1 is correct.
This establishes the statutory demographic scope of the act.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding monthly foodgrain entitlements.
Under NFSA 2013, Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households continue to receive 35 kg of foodgrains per household per month, while Priority Households are entitled to 5 kg per person per month. Statement 2 is correct.
NFSA categorizes beneficiaries into AAY and Priority Households with distinct entitlement metrics.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding administrative responsibility for beneficiary identification.
While the Central Government determines state-wise coverage allocations based on Census data, the actual identification of eligible priority households is delegated to State Governments and Union Territory administrations. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Federal administrative division reserves beneficiary identification for states/UTs.

Key Concept

National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013 Statutory Coverage and Division of Responsibilities
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