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Question 1681Question →

Which type of unemployment is characterized by a situation where more workers are engaged in an economic activity than are required, such that the marginal productivity of additional workers is virtually zero?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Disguised unemployment

Answer

Disguised unemployment is characterized by a situation where more workers are engaged in an economic activity than required, causing the marginal productivity of additional workers to be zero.
Disguised unemployment refers to a state in which more people are employed than are actually needed to complete a task. In this scenario, the marginal productivity of an extra worker is zero because total production remains unchanged even if some workers are withdrawn.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the conditions described in the stem (surplus workforce and zero marginal productivity).
Identified that removing excess workers would not reduce total production output.
This condition matches the classic definition of disguised unemployment, frequently observed in family-run agricultural holdings.

Key Concept

Disguised Unemployment and Marginal Productivity of Labor
Question 1682Question →

Regarding the Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It was launched primarily to protest against the Tinkathia system, under which tenant farmers were legally obligated to cultivate indigo on three-twentieths of their land.; Raj Kumar Shukla persuaded Mahatma Gandhi during the 1916 Lucknow session of the Indian National Congress to inspect the grievances of the peasants.; The movement resulted in the appointment of the official Champaran Agrarian Enquiry Committee, on which Mahatma Gandhi served as a member.

Answer

The correct statements are those identifying the protest against the Tinkathia system, the role of Raj Kumar Shukla at the 1916 Lucknow Congress, and the formation of the Champaran Agrarian Enquiry Committee with Gandhi as a member.
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Mahatma Gandhi's first civil disobedience movement in India. It addressed the grievances of peasant farmers oppressed under the Tinkathia system, where planters forced peasants to grow indigo on 3/20th of their land. Raj Kumar Shukla invited Gandhi during the Lucknow INC session of 1916. After peaceful agitation and inquiry, the government set up the Champaran Agrarian Enquiry Committee with Gandhi as a member, leading to the abolition of the system.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the origin and cause of the Champaran Satyagraha
The core issue was the Tinkathia system enforced by British indigo planters requiring cultivation on 3/20th of land.
Verifies the factual accuracy of the economic grievance.
2
Trace the leadership invitation and key personalities
Raj Kumar Shukla brought the Champaran issue to Gandhi's attention at the 1916 Lucknow INC session.
Verifies how Mahatma Gandhi became involved in his first civil disobedience movement in India.
3
Evaluate the administrative outcome of Gandhi's intervention
The British administration appointed the Champaran Agrarian Committee with Gandhi as a member, which recommended abolishing Tinkathia.
Demonstrates the successful conclusion of the satyagraha.
4
Analyze chronological relationship with later anti-colonial agitations
Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was an independent local movement and was not merged into the Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919).
Identifies the incorrect statement conflating distinct historical timelines.

Key Concept

Champaran Satyagraha (1917) and early local Gandhian mass movements
Question 1683Question →

Regarding the archaeological findings and geographical location of the Harappan site of Kalibangan, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Evidence of a pre-Harappan plowed field featuring grid furrow patterns was discovered at the site.; The settlement was situated along the banks of the Ghaggar (ancient Saraswati) River in Rajasthan.

Answer

The correct statements are that Kalibangan yielded evidence of a pre-Harappan plowed field with grid furrows, and that it was located along the Ghaggar River in Rajasthan.
The statements regarding the discovery of a pre-Harappan plowed field with grid furrow patterns and the location of the settlement along the Ghaggar River in Rajasthan are historically accurate for Kalibangan.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical location of Kalibangan.
Kalibangan is located in Hanumangarh district, Rajasthan, on the banks of the Ghaggar River.
Establishes the correct spatial and environmental context of the site.
2
Evaluate key agricultural discoveries at Kalibangan.
Excavations revealed the earliest known plowed field surface with overlapping grid furrows.
Verifies unique agricultural evidence associated with the Early Harappan phase at the site.
3
Distinguish Kalibangan from other prominent Harappan urban centers.
The brick dockyard belongs to Lothal, and the three-tiered city layout belongs to Dholavira.
Eliminates statements that misattribute site-specific architectural features to Kalibangan.

Key Concept

Key archaeological findings and geographical locations of Harappan civilization sites
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1684Question →

According to Köppen's scheme of climatic classification of India, the extensive region covering the Ganga Plains, eastern Rajasthan, and northern Madhya Pradesh is characterized by a humid subtropical climate with dry winters and hot summers. Which of the following Köppen climate symbols accurately represents this region?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Cwg

Answer

The correct climate code is Cwg, representing a humid subtropical climate with dry winters found across the Ganga plains.
Köppen classified the climate of the Ganga Plains, eastern Rajasthan, and parts of central India as 'Cwg'. Here, 'C' stands for warm temperate/subtropical climate (coldest month average temperature between -3°C and 18°C), 'w' indicates dry winter season, and 'g' stands for the Ganges type of temperature pattern where the maximum temperature occurs prior to the summer rainy season.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical region described in the prompt.
The target region encompasses the Ganga Plains, eastern Rajasthan, and northern Madhya Pradesh.
Köppen mapped specific empirical symbols to distinct temperature and rainfall regimes across India.
2
Match the seasonal temperature and precipitation features to Köppen's classification system.
The region experiences hot summers, rainy monsoon periods, and dry winters, fitting the 'Cwg' designation.
In Köppen's nomenclature, 'C' denotes warm temperate/humid subtropical, 'w' indicates dry winters, and 'g' signifies the Ganges type temperature profile.

Key Concept

Köppen Climate Classification of India
Question 1685Question →

A delivery cyclist starts from a warehouse and rides 12 km12\text{ km} towards the South. He then turns left and rides 9 km9\text{ km}. What is the shortest direct distance, in kilometers, between his current location and the warehouse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 15

Answer

The shortest direct distance between the current location and the warehouse is 15 km15\text{ km}.
The straight-line displacement forms the hypotenuse of a right triangle with perpendicular sides of length 12 km12\text{ km} and 9 km9\text{ km}. Applying the Pythagorean theorem yields 122+92=225=15 km\sqrt{12^2 + 9^2} = \sqrt{225} = 15\text{ km}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the cardinal directions of each movement segment
First displacement is 12 km12\text{ km} South. Turning left while facing South directs the cyclist towards East, so the second displacement is 9 km9\text{ km} East.
A 90-degree left turn from South points towards East.
2
Set up the right-angled displacement triangle
The two perpendicular legs of the right triangle are 12 km12\text{ km} (South) and 9 km9\text{ km} (East).
South and East form a perpendicular angle (90∘90^\circ).
3
Calculate the straight-line distance using the Pythagorean theorem
Distance =122+92=144+81=225=15 km= \sqrt{12^2 + 9^2} = \sqrt{144 + 81} = \sqrt{225} = 15\text{ km}.
The direct distance corresponds to the hypotenuse: c=a2+b2c = \sqrt{a^2 + b^2}.

Key Concept

Shortest direct distance calculation using the Pythagorean theorem
Estimated Time:45s
Question 1686Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional relationship and legal status of Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), and Fundamental Duties in India:

1. Article 31C accords legal protection to laws enacted to implement Directive Principles under Article 39(b) and Article 39(c), even if they conflict with Fundamental Rights under Articles 14 and 19.
2. Part IV-A containing the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A was originally incorporated into the Constitution by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.
3. While Fundamental Rights under Part III are directly justiciable in courts of law, Directive Principles under Part IV and Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A are non-justiciable by themselves.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The option stating '1 and 3 only' is correct. Statement 1 accurately reflects the constitutional provision of Article 31C, which safeguards laws enacted to achieve the socialist objectives under Article 39(b) and 39(c) against invalidation under Articles 14 and 19. Statement 3 accurately describes enforceability differences: Part III rights are justiciable, whereas Part IV principles and Part IV-A duties are non-justiciable. Statement 2 is incorrect because Fundamental Duties were inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, not the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Article 31C
Statement 1 is correct.
Article 31C (inserted by 25th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971) explicitly gives primacy to Directive Principles specified in Article 39(b) and 39(c) over the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 14 (Equality before Law) and Article 19 (Six Freedoms).
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Constitutional Amendment Act for Fundamental Duties
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A, Article 51A) were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. The 44th Amendment Act was enacted in 1978 to undo several changes made during the Emergency.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding judicial enforceability
Statement 3 is correct.
Fundamental Rights (Part III) are legally justiciable and can be directly enforced via writs under Articles 32 and 226. In contrast, Directive Principles (Part IV) and Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) are constitutionally non-justiciable.

Key Concept

Interrelationship and Enforceability of Fundamental Rights, DPSPs, and Fundamental Duties
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 1687Question →

With reference to the early phase of the Indian National Congress (1885–1905) and early constitutional developments, consider the following statements:

1. Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade advocated for state-supported industrialization and modern enterprise as essential to overcoming India's economic backwardness.
2. The Indian Councils Act of 1892 empowered legislative council members to vote on budget demands and introduce financial bills.
3. Romesh Chunder Dutt authored 'The Economic History of India', detailing the impact of land revenue systems and colonial fiscal policy on Indian rural poverty.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

The statements stating that Justice Ranade advocated state-supported industrialization (Statement 1) and Romesh Chunder Dutt authored 'The Economic History of India' (Statement 3) are correct, making '1 and 3 only' the correct response.
The combination '1 and 3 only' is correct because Justice Ranade championed state-backed industrial growth and R.C. Dutt systematically documented British economic exploitation in 'The Economic History of India'. In contrast, the Indian Councils Act of 1892 permitted council members only to discuss the budget and ask questions, explicitly withholding any right to vote on budget demands.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Justice M.G. Ranade's economic views.
Statement 1 is correct. Justice M.G. Ranade was a pioneer of Indian economic nationalism who argued that India's poverty stemmed from over-dependence on agriculture and urged state support for modern industries.
Early Moderate thinkers evaluated industrial development as vital to economic self-reliance.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the provisions of the Indian Councils Act of 1892.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian Councils Act of 1892 allowed council members to discuss the annual financial statement (budget) and ask questions on public interest matters, but explicitly denied them the right to vote on the budget or move amendments.
Voting rights on budget items were granted in later constitutional enactments, not in 1892.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Romesh Chunder Dutt's literary and economic contribution.
Statement 3 is correct. R.C. Dutt published 'The Economic History of India' at the turn of the 20th century, offering a thorough empirical critique of British land revenue assessments and colonial drain of wealth.
R.C. Dutt's work established a foundational text for the economic critique of British rule.

Key Concept

Economic Nationalism and Early Constitutional Reforms (1885–1905)
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1688Question →

Consider the following statements regarding Pastoral Nomadism and Commercial Livestock Ranching in global human and economic geography:

1. Pastoral nomadism is a primary subsistence activity predominantly practiced in arid and semi-arid regions relying on natural pastures.
2. Transhumance refers to the seasonal movement of pastoral herders and their livestock between high mountain pastures in summer and lower valleys in winter.
3. Commercial livestock ranching is a capital-intensive, highly organized enterprise carried out on permanent ranches mainly in temperate grasslands.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
The correct answer includes all three statements because pastoral nomadism is a subsistence adaptation to arid lands, transhumance is the seasonal vertical movement between mountains and valleys, and commercial ranching is a modern, capital-intensive economic activity suited to temperate grasslands.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding pastoral nomadism.
Pastoral nomadism is indeed a primitive subsistence activity where herders rely on natural pastures in dry, arid, and semi-arid regions (such as North Africa, the Arabian Peninsula, and Central Asia). Statement 1 is correct.
It represents an adaptive human livelihood strategy in hyper-arid and semi-arid environments.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding transhumance.
Transhumance is defined specifically as the seasonal movement of people with their livestock between fixed summer (mountainous) and winter (valley) pastures. Statement 2 is correct.
Vertical climatic zonation dictates pasture availability during different seasons.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding commercial livestock ranching.
Commercial ranching is a specialized, capital-intensive, market-oriented system practiced on large permanent ranches predominantly across temperate grasslands like the Pampas, Prairies, and Velds. Statement 3 is correct.
It differs fundamentally from nomadic herding due to its heavy capital investment, scientific animal breeding, and permanent ranch infrastructure.

Key Concept

Human and Economic Systems of Animal Husbandry: Pastoral Nomadism vs. Commercial Ranching
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1689Question →

Match the Constitutional Categories in List-I with their corresponding Parts of the Constitution of India in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Fundamental Rights
Directive Principles of State Policy
Fundamental Duties

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Fundamental Rights correspond to Part III, Directive Principles of State Policy correspond to Part IV, and Fundamental Duties correspond to Part IVA.
Fundamental Rights are listed in Part III (Articles 12-35), Directive Principles of State Policy are in Part IV (Articles 36-51), and Fundamental Duties are in Part IVA (Article 51A). Matching each concept to its respective Part yields the correct alignment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the Part of the Constitution governing Fundamental Rights
Fundamental Rights are contained in Part III (Articles 12-35).
Part III outlines the basic rights guaranteed to citizens and individuals against state action.
2
Identify the Part of the Constitution governing Directive Principles of State Policy
Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Part IV (Articles 36-51).
Part IV sets out socio-economic guidelines for governance and law-making.
3
Identify the Part of the Constitution governing Fundamental Duties
Fundamental Duties are contained in Part IVA (Article 51A).
Part IVA was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, establishing moral and civic obligations for citizens.

Key Concept

Parts of the Indian Constitution covering Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and Fundamental Duties
Question 1690Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the physiographic features and relief structure of the Central Highlands and Peninsular Plateau of India:

1. The Satpura Range forms a structural horst (block mountain) bounded by the Narmada rift valley to the north and the Tapi rift valley to the south.
2. Mount Dhupgarh, the highest peak of the Satpura Range, is located on the Maikal Range.
3. The Rajmahal Hills, situated on the northeastern edge of the Peninsular Plateau, consist predominantly of basaltic lava trap formations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The correct response identifies that statements 1 and 3 are accurate. The Satpura mountain range acts as a horst bounded by the Narmada graben to the north and the Tapi graben to the south. Additionally, the Rajmahal Hills are composed of Jurassic volcanic basaltic lava formations on the northeastern rim of the Peninsular block. Statement 2 is false because Mount Dhupgarh is located on the Mahadeo Hills, not on the Maikal Range.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the tectonic nature of the Satpura Range.
Statement 1 is correct. The Satpura mountain system is a horst formed between two parallel structural rifts: the Narmada rift valley on the north and the Tapi rift valley on the south.
Faulting and crustal subsidence created parallel grabens on either side of the elevated Satpura block.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the location of Mount Dhupgarh.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Mount Dhupgarh (1,350 m), the highest peak of the Satpura Range, is located on the Mahadeo Hills near Pachmarhi. The Maikal Range forms the eastern extremity of the Satpura system and culminates at the Amarkantak Plateau.
Confusing relief features across regional sub-ranges leads to misidentifying peak locations.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the geological composition of the Rajmahal Hills.
Statement 3 is correct. The Rajmahal Hills represent an eastern projection of the Peninsular block and consist primarily of basaltic lava traps formed during Jurassic volcanic activity.
The Rajmahal Traps are continental flood basalts located on the northeastern edge of the Peninsular shield.

Key Concept

Relief features, tectonic horst structures, and hill ranges of the Peninsular Highlands
Question 1691Question →

Arrange the following natural vegetation belts found in the Indian Himalayan region in increasing order of their altitudinal zones (from lowest elevation to highest elevation):

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequential order from lowest to highest elevation is: Sal dominant subtropical foothill forests, followed by Wet temperate broad-leaved Oak and Chestnut forests, then Moist temperate coniferous Deodar forests, and finally Sub-alpine Silver Fir and Birch timberline forests.
In the Indian Himalayas, vegetation changes systematically with increasing altitude due to drop in temperature: Subtropical Sal foothill forests (up to 1,000 m) -> Wet temperate broad-leaved Oak/Chestnut forests (1,000–2,000 m) -> Moist temperate coniferous Deodar forests (1,800–3,000 m) -> Sub-alpine Silver Fir/Birch timberline forests (3,000–4,000 m).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the altitudinal boundary for foothill vegetation.
Sal forests inhabit the subtropical foothill and Shiwalik region up to approximately 1,000 meters elevation.
Sal requires warm subtropical climatic conditions present only at the base of the mountain range.
2
Identify the altitudinal zone for broad-leaved temperate species.
Broad-leaved wet temperate species like Oak and Chestnut dominate between 1,000 meters and 2,000 meters.
This zone features cool temperatures and moderate rainfall ideal for evergreen broad-leaved trees.
3
Identify the altitudinal zone for temperate conifers.
Deodar forests thrive in the cool temperate coniferous belt between 1,800 meters and 3,000 meters.
Needle-leaf coniferous trees adapt well to cold temperatures and snowfall in the middle Himalayas.
4
Identify the altitudinal boundary for sub-alpine timberline vegetation.
Silver Fir and Birch form the highest tree zone between 3,000 meters and 4,000 meters before transitioning into alpine meadows.
Birch (Bhojpatra) and Silver Fir represent hardy sub-alpine species capable of enduring harsh alpine conditions near the timberline.

Key Concept

Altitudinal Zonation of Himalayan Vegetation Belts
Question 1692Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the locational factors of major industries in India:

1. The aluminum smelting industry in India is primarily localized near sources of cheap and continuous electrical power, as energy constitutes a major proportion of the total production cost.
2. The sugar manufacturing industry in India has shown a spatial shift from North India towards Peninsular India due to higher sucrose yield in tropical sugarcane varieties and a longer crushing period.
3. The synthesis of nitrogenous fertilizers (specifically urea) relies primarily on imported rock phosphate as the key hydrocarbon feedstock along inland pipelines.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The response indicating '1 and 2 only' is correct because aluminum smelting requires huge amounts of cheap electricity, and tropical sugarcane in South India yields higher sucrose content over a longer crushing period. Nitrogenous urea relies on natural gas or naphtha feedstock rather than rock phosphate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the locational drivers of aluminum smelting plants.
Statement 1 is correct. Aluminum smelting consumes immense electrical energy (approx. 18,000–20,000 kWh per ton of metal). Hence, proximity to hydroelectric power stations or captive thermal power plants is a critical locational driver alongside bauxite availability.
Electricity accounts for 30–40% of the total manufacturing cost of aluminum smelting.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the spatial shift of the Indian sugar industry.
Statement 2 is correct. Peninsular India (e.g., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka) features a tropical climate that yields higher sucrose content in sugarcane and prevents rapid juice drying, resulting in a significantly longer crushing season than in North India.
Cooperatives and favorable agro-climatic conditions have favored higher sugar recovery rates in Peninsular states.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding raw material feedstocks in urea fertilizer units.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Urea (NH2CONH2NH_2CONH_2) is a nitrogenous fertilizer produced from ammonia, which requires natural gas, naphtha, or coke-oven gas as its primary hydrocarbon feedstock (e.g., along the Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur pipeline). Rock phosphate is a mineral input for phosphatic fertilizers (like Single Super Phosphate and DAP), not urea.
Confusing raw materials for nitrogenous urea with mineral inputs for phosphatic fertilizers is a key industrial geography error.

Key Concept

Locational determinants and raw material dependencies of major Indian manufacturing industries
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1693Question →

In 1889, Pandita Ramabai established an institution known as 'Sharada Sadan' in Bombay. What was the primary objective of this institution?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Providing education, vocational skills, and shelter to young widowed women

Answer

The primary objective of Sharada Sadan, established by Pandita Ramabai in 1889, was to provide education, vocational skills, and shelter to young widowed women.
Pandita Ramabai founded Sharada Sadan in Bombay in March 1889 to offer sanctuary, primary education, and practical vocational skills to destitute young widows, enabling them to lead independent lives.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the founder and background of Sharada Sadan
Sharada Sadan was founded by Pandita Ramabai in March 1889 in Bombay (later shifted to Pune).
Understanding the founder's focus clarifies the mission of the institution.
2
Analyze the core mandate of the organization
It aimed to assist helpless widows by equipping them with basic literacy, vocational training, and residential shelter so they could achieve self-reliance.
Connecting the historical context of child widows in 19th-century India confirms the social objective.

Key Concept

Women's reform movements and institutional initiatives by Pandita Ramabai in 19th-century India
Question 1694Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the constitutional framework, enforceability, and amendments concerning Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties under the Constitution of India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV are non-justiciable in a court of law, yet Article 37 explicitly declares them fundamental in the governance of the country and places a duty on the State to apply these principles in making laws.; The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 concurrently modified a Directive Principle under Article 45, inserted a new Fundamental Right under Article 21A, and added an additional Fundamental Duty under Article 51A.

Answer

The correct statements are that Directive Principles under Part IV are non-justiciable yet fundamental in governance under Article 37, and that the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 simultaneously updated Article 45 (DPSP), enacted Article 21A (Fundamental Right), and added clause (k) to Article 51A (Fundamental Duty).
The statement regarding Directive Principles accurately reflects Article 37, which establishes that while Part IV is non-justiciable, it remains fundamental to governance. Furthermore, the statement regarding the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act correctly identifies that it instituted linked provisions in Part III (Article 21A), Part IV (Article 45), and Part IVA (Article 51A, clause k).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the enforceability and status of Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 37.
Article 37 explicitly specifies that Part IV provisions are not enforceable by any court, but emphasizes that they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
This establishes the distinction between justiciable Fundamental Rights and non-justiciable Directive Principles.
2
Compare the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32 with High Courts under Article 226.
Article 32 is restricted to the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, whereas Article 226 permits High Courts to issue remedies for Fundamental Rights and any other legal rights.
High Court writ jurisdiction under Article 226 is broader in scope than the Supreme Court's under Article 32.
3
Examine the statutory and constitutional impacts of the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
The 86th Amendment added Article 21A (Fundamental Right), altered the subject matter of Article 45 (DPSP), and added duty (k) to Article 51A (Fundamental Duty).
It connected all three constitutional pillars around the single theme of education for children.
4
Evaluate the direct enforceability of Fundamental Duties under Part IVA.
Fundamental Duties are not automatically enforceable by writs; judicial enforcement depends on specific parliamentary enactments.
The Constitution does not provide direct legal sanctions for the violation of Fundamental Duties.

Key Concept

Interrelationship, Enforceability, and Constitutional Amendments across Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and Fundamental Duties
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1695Question →

Arrange the following key constitutional proposals and missions during the Indian Freedom Struggle in chronological order from earliest to latest.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: August Offer (1940), Cripps Mission (1942), Cabinet Mission Plan (1946), and Mountbatten Plan (1947).
The events in order of occurrence are: August Offer (August 1940) → Cripps Mission (March 1942) → Cabinet Mission Plan (March 1946) → Mountbatten Plan (June 1947).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the date of the August Offer
The August Offer was announced in August 1940.
This proposal came earliest in response to World War II developments.
2
Determine the date of the Cripps Mission
The Cripps Mission arrived in India in March 1942.
It followed the August Offer to offer dominion status after WWII.
3
Determine the date of the Cabinet Mission Plan
The Cabinet Mission arrived in India in March 1946.
It was sent post-war to negotiate the mechanism for constitutional framing and transfer of power.
4
Determine the date of the Mountbatten Plan
The Mountbatten Plan was announced on June 3, 1947.
It finalized the division of British India and immediate independence.

Key Concept

Chronological Sequence of Constitutional Proposals and Transfer of Power
Question 1696Question →

In ancient and medieval Indian temple architecture, what does the term 'Panchayatana' layout specifically refer to?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A main central temple shrine surrounded by four smaller subsidiary shrines.

Answer

The term 'Panchayatana' refers to a temple layout where a main central shrine is surrounded by four smaller subsidiary shrines.
In classical Indian temple architecture (especially within the Nagara style), the Panchayatana plan consists of one primary temple shrine containing the main deity positioned at the center, surrounded by four smaller subsidiary shrines situated at the corners of a rectangular platform. Notable examples include the Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh and the Lakshmana Temple at Khajuraho.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the etymology and architectural definition of the term 'Panchayatana'.
The word is derived from Sanskrit 'Pancha' (meaning five) and 'Ayatana' (meaning abode or shrine).
Understanding the Sanskrit origin helps identify the exact count of shrines involved in the layout design.
2
Identify the structural arrangement of the shrines in this architectural style.
The principal deity resides in the central larger temple shrine, while four lesser deities are housed in four smaller shrines located at the corners of the plinth.
This five-shrine ground plan (such as seen at the Kandariya Mahadeva temple in Khajuraho or the Dashavatara temple in Deogarh) is the defining feature of Panchayatana architecture.

Key Concept

Panchayatana Style of Temple Architecture
Question 1697Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the administrative reforms introduced by Mahmud Gawan in the Bahmani Sultanate:

1. He subdivided the traditional four provinces (tarafs) into eight administrative units to curb the independence of provincial governors.
2. He placed several key royal forts directly under central control, appointing fort commanders (qiladars) responsible to the Sultan.
3. He initiated a systematic survey of land and fixed state revenue based on actual measurement of agricultural holdings.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements are correct.
All three statements are historically accurate. Mahmud Gawan, serving as the Prime Minister (Wazir) of the Bahmani Sultanate under Muhammad Shah III, instituted sweeping centralising reforms. He divided the 4 existing provinces into 8, brought important forts under central command via appointed qiladars, and conducted systematic land measurement for revenue estimation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding territorial division.
Mahmud Gawan reorganized the Bahmani kingdom by splitting the four existing large provinces (tarafs—Gulbarga, Daulatabad, Berar, and Bidar) into eight smaller tarafs to restrict provincial governors' power.
Smaller provinces reduced the resource base and military strength of individual tarafdars.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding military and fort control.
He separated fort administration from provincial governorship by placing royal forts under directly appointed fort commanders (qiladars) who answered to the Sultan.
This prevented provincial governors from misusing fort garrisons for rebellions.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding land measurement and revenue assessment.
Mahmud Gawan introduced a systematic survey and measurement of agricultural lands to determine boundaries and assess state revenue accurately.
Land measurement ensured fair revenue collection and stabilized state finances.

Key Concept

Bahmani Administrative and Military Reforms under Mahmud Gawan
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 1698Question →

Consider the following statements regarding non-ferrous and precious metallic mineral resources in India:

1. Malanjkhand in the Balaghat district of Madhya Pradesh contains one of the largest open-cast copper ore deposits in India.
2. The Zawar belt in the Udaipur district of Rajasthan is the primary producer of lead and zinc ores in the country.
3. The Hutti gold mines, located in the Raichur district of Karnataka, represent one of the major active gold-producing facilities in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
All three statements are factually accurate. Statement 1 correctly identifies Malanjkhand in Balaghat (Madhya Pradesh) as India's largest open-cast copper mining area. Statement 2 accurately points out that the Zawar belt in Rajasthan is the leading center for lead and zinc ore extraction. Statement 3 correctly identifies Hutti in Raichur (Karnataka) as an operational primary gold mining location in India.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding copper deposits
Malanjkhand mine in Balaghat district, Madhya Pradesh, operated by Hindustan Copper Limited, is well known as the largest open-cast copper mine in India.
Verifies spatial distribution of non-ferrous metallic minerals.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding lead and zinc production
The Zawar mining complex in Udaipur district, Rajasthan, is the main reserve area and key producer of lead-zinc sulfide ores in India.
Confirms major industrial mineral belts.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding gold mining centers
While the historic Kolar Gold Fields (KGF) closed down operations, the Hutti Gold Mines in Raichur district, Karnataka, remain actively operational.
Differentiates historical vs currently active mineral extraction sites.

Key Concept

Spatial Distribution of Non-Ferrous and Precious Metallic Minerals in India
Question 1699Question →

Given the following coded blood relationship definitions:
- A⋆BA \star B means 'AA is the mother of BB'
- A♯BA \sharp B means 'AA is the brother of BB'
- A†BA \dagger B means 'AA is the daughter of BB'
- AΔBA \Delta B means 'AA is the father of BB'

Based on the expression K⋆L♯M†NΔPK \star L \sharp M \dagger N \Delta P, how is PP related to KK?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Cannot be determined

Answer

Cannot be determined (the person is either the son or the daughter)
Deconstructing the relation expression shows that KK (mother) and NN (father) are married parents of LL, MM, and PP. Because no operator defines whether PP is male or female, PP could be either a son or a daughter of KK. Therefore, the exact relation cannot be determined uniquely.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Decode the first part of the expression: K⋆L♯MK \star L \sharp M
KK is the mother of LL, and LL is the brother of MM. Therefore, KK is the mother of both LL and MM.
Siblings share the same parents.
2
Decode the next part: M†NM \dagger N
MM is the daughter of NN. Since KK is already established as the mother of MM, NN must be the father of MM (and husband of KK).
A child has one male parent (father) and one female parent (mother).
3
Decode the final part: NΔPN \Delta P
NN is the father of PP. Since NN and KK are the parents of LL and MM, PP is also a child of KK and NN.
Children of the same father belong to the same sibling group.
4
Determine the gender of PP
The operator Δ\Delta indicates that NN is the father of PP, but gives no information regarding PP's gender. PP can be male or female.
Gender must be explicitly stated and cannot be assumed.

Key Concept

Gender ambiguity in coded blood relations
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 1700Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the distinct structural features of Hoysala temple architecture:

1. The temples are typically built on a complex stellate (star-shaped) plan and constructed primarily using soft chloritic schist (soapstone).
2. The entire temple structure is elevated on a wide polygonal platform known as a 'Jagati', which functions as an open circumambulatory path.
3. The interior design of Hoysala temples strictly excludes a Garbhagriha (sanctum sanctorum), utilizing open pillared halls exclusively for congregational worship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are factually correct. Hoysala architecture is renowned for its soapstone medium, stellate ground plans, and raised Jagati platforms. Statement 3 is false because a Garbhagriha is a fundamental component of Hoysala temples.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1
Statement 1 is correct.
Hoysala architects of medieval Karnataka extensively used soft soapstone (chloritic schist), allowing intricate carving and innovative stellate (star-shaped) shrine layouts.
2
Analyze Statement 2
Statement 2 is correct.
Hoysala temples are built on an elevated terrace called a Jagati, which serves as a pradakshinapatha (circumambulatory path) around the temple.
3
Analyze Statement 3
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Hoysala temples consistently incorporate one or more sanctum sanctorums (Garbhagrihas), structured in single (ekakuta), double (dvikuta), triple (trikuta), or multiple shrine arrangements.

Key Concept

Hoysala Temple Architectural Features
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