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State Specific General Knowledge

334 questions

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Question 21Question →

Arrange the following agricultural cropping seasons in an Indian state in chronological sequence, starting from the onset of the south-west monsoon in June.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence of cropping seasons starting from June is Kharif Season, followed by Rabi Season, and lastly Zaid Season.
In Indian agricultural economics, the cropping year begins in June with the Kharif monsoon season (June–October), transitions into the Rabi winter season (October–March), and finishes with the brief Zaid summer season (March–May).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the starting period specified in the prompt.
The starting point is June, coinciding with monsoon arrival.
The agricultural calendar in Indian state economies starts with monsoon onset.
2
Order the cropping cycles sequentially across the year.
Kharif (June–October) leads into Rabi (October–March), followed by Zaid (March–June).
Monsoon cropping is followed by post-monsoon winter cropping, which is followed by summer inter-cropping.

Key Concept

Agricultural Cropping Seasons (Kharif, Rabi, Zaid)
Question 22Question →

With reference to the Rampa Rebellion of 1922–1924 against British colonial rule in regional state history, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: The rebellion was primarily triggered by the restrictive provisions of the Madras Forest Act of 1882, which impeded traditional 'Podu' (shifting) cultivation and restricted tribal access to forest produce.; Alluri Sitarama Raju organized the tribal peasantry into a effective guerrilla force and conducted coordinated raids on colonial police stations to capture arms and ammunition.

Answer

The correct statements are that the rebellion was triggered by the Madras Forest Act of 1882 restricting 'Podu' cultivation, and that Alluri Sitarama Raju organized guerrilla raids on police stations to acquire weaponry.
The statements highlighting the Madras Forest Act of 1882 as the primary grievance against Podu cultivation, and Alluri Sitarama Raju's strategy of raiding police stations to arm tribal guerrilla fighters, are historically accurate accounts of the Rampa Rebellion of 1922–1924.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the socio-economic causes of the Rampa Rebellion (1922–1924).
Identify that colonial forest legislation, specifically the Madras Forest Act of 1882, curtailed traditional 'Podu' (shifting) agriculture and exploited tribal labor through the muttadari land tenure system.
Understanding the legislative background establishes why tribal communities in the Godavari Agency region took up arms.
2
Examine the leadership, strategy, and ideology of Alluri Sitarama Raju.
Recognize that Raju combined guerrilla tactics (raids on police stations for arms) with elements of Gandhi's Non-Cooperation Movement (temperance campaigns and promotion of Khadi).
This evaluates the connection between regional tribal uprisings and the national movement framework.
3
Evaluate the colonial counter-measures and suppression mechanism.
Confirm that the uprising was suppressed by deploying the Assam Rifles and special armed police forces, rather than through legislative acts like the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871.
Distinguishing between legislative misattributions and military police actions clarifies historical accuracy.

Key Concept

Rampa Rebellion (1922–1924) and Tribal Resistance under Alluri Sitarama Raju
Question 23Question →

Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), state demographic indicators, and regional human development profiles:

1. The criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups include a declining or stagnant population, pre-agricultural technology, extremely low literacy, and a subsistence level of economy.
2. In state Human Development Index (HDI) evaluations, tribal-dominated administrative divisions often exhibit a higher gender parity ratio in literacy relative to their overall economic sub-index rank.
3. Based on Census demographic metrics, the child sex ratio (0–6 years) in tribal-majority Scheduled Areas is consistently lower than that of highly urbanized non-tribal districts due to unequal healthcare infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because tribal-majority districts in state demographic profiles consistently record significantly higher child sex ratios (0–6 years) than highly urbanized districts, reflecting favorable traditional gender parity despite lower economic indicators.
The correct response identifies statements 1 and 2 as true. Statement 1 aligns with the official four-point criteria established for PVTGs (stagnant/declining population, pre-agricultural technology, subsistence economy, and low literacy). Statement 2 accurately captures the state human development trend where tribal belts exhibit favorable gender parity metrics despite lower economic development index values. Statement 3 is false because child sex ratios in tribal regions are significantly higher than in urbanized districts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding PVTG criteria.
Statement 1 is correct. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs identifies PVTGs based on four specific criteria: pre-agricultural level of technology, low level of literacy, declining or stagnant population, and subsistence level of economy.
Establishing the official statutory definition of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 concerning state Human Development Index (HDI) sub-indices in tribal regions.
Statement 2 is correct. State Human Development Reports highlight that while tribal districts lag in per capita income and infrastructure sub-indices, their gender parity index in literacy and social metrics is often higher relative to their overall economic ranking.
Analyzing socio-economic indicator divergence in state-level human development profiles.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding child sex ratios in tribal versus urbanized districts.
Statement 3 is incorrect. According to Census data, tribal-majority districts maintain substantially higher child sex ratios than major urban centers, where adverse sex ratios have historically been more pronounced.
Fact-checking demographic metrics between rural/tribal Scheduled Areas and urbanized administrative divisions.

Key Concept

PVTG Criteria and Tribal Demographic/HDI Patterns
Question 24Question →

Arrange the following iconic temple monuments of Odisha in chronological order of their construction, from the earliest to the latest:

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is Parashurameswar Temple, Bhubaneswar (c. 7th–8th century CE), Mukteswar Temple, Bhubaneswar (c. 10th century CE), Lingaraj Temple, Bhubaneswar (c. 11th century CE), and Sun Temple, Konark (c. 13th century CE).
The architectural progression of Odishan temples evolves sequentially from the early Kalinga style of Parashurameswar Temple (7th–8th century CE), to the transitional Mukteswar Temple (10th century CE), followed by the mature Lingaraj Temple (11th century CE), and culminates with the magnificent chariot-styled Sun Temple at Konark (13th century CE).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the era of Parashurameswar Temple.
Built c. 7th–8th century CE.
It is one of the oldest surviving temples in Bhubaneswar exhibiting early Kalinga architectural features.
2
Determine the era of Mukteswar Temple.
Built c. 10th century CE.
Known as the 'Gem of Odishan architecture', it marks the pivotal transitional architectural phase under the Somavamshis.
3
Determine the era of Lingaraj Temple.
Built c. 11th century CE.
It represents the culmination of mature Kalinga architectural style built by Somavamshi King Jajati Keshari.
4
Determine the era of Sun Temple, Konark.
Built c. 1250 CE (13th century).
Commissioned by Eastern Ganga King Narasimhadeva I, representing the grand peak of Odishan temple craftsmanship.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of Kalinga architectural monuments in Odisha
Question 25Question →

Match the indigenous tribal communities listed in List-I with their primary traditional habitat and concentrated administrative districts in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Bharia
Sahariya
Baiga
Korku

Matches

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Answer

Bharia matches with Patalkot valley in Chhindwara district; Sahariya matches with Chambal division including Sheopur and Shivpuri districts; Baiga matches with Maikal hill range spanning Mandla and Dindori districts; Korku matches with Satpura hill range spanning Betul and Khandwa districts.
The pairings correctly represent state tribal geography: Bharia inhabits Patalkot valley in Chhindwara, Sahariya is concentrated in Chambal division (Sheopur and Shivpuri), Baiga resides in the Maikal range (Mandla and Dindori), and Korku occupies the Satpura belt (Betul and Khandwa).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the geographical distribution of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
Identify that Bharia is endemic to Patalkot (Chhindwara), Sahariya is concentrated in northern Chambal region (Sheopur/Shivpuri), and Baiga is mapped to the Maikal range (Mandla/Dindori).
PVTGs have distinct, geographically isolated micro-habitats recognized in state demographic profiles.
2
Determine the concentration of non-PVTG major scheduled tribes
Identify that the Korku tribe inhabits the southern Satpura belt spanning Betul and Khandwa.
Korku represents a distinct Austroasiatic/Munda linguistic island in the central Indian tribal belt.
3
Map each tribal group to its corresponding district region
Confirm all four correct matches: Bharia to Patalkot valley, Sahariya to Chambal division, Baiga to Maikal hill range, and Korku to Satpura hill range.
Establishes factual accuracy for state-specific demographic and tribal geography questions.

Key Concept

Demographic distribution and regional habitats of scheduled tribes and Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 26Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the traditional ritual art forms and performance traditions of Southwestern India:

1. Theyyam is a ritualistic worship dance prevalent in the North Malabar region, where performers embody divine spirits, ancestors, or hero deities while wearing elaborate body paint and massive headgear called Mudi.
2. Koodiyattam, proclaimed by UNESCO as a Masterpiece of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity, is a traditional Sanskrit theatre form traditionally performed in temple theatres known as Koothambalams.
3. Padayani is a ritualistic folk dance performed in the temples of Central Travancore, characterized by the wearing of Kolams, which are huge decorative masks painted on fresh green sheaths of the Areca palm.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2 and 3) are correct.
All three statements are completely accurate. Statement 1 correctly identifies Theyyam as a dance ritual of North Malabar featuring elaborate headgear (Mudi). Statement 2 accurately describes Koodiyattam as a UNESCO-recognized Sanskrit theatre tradition staged in Koothambalams. Statement 3 accurately captures Padayani as a Central Travancore temple art form utilizing decorative Kolam masks fashioned from Areca palm sheaths.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Theyyam
Theyyam (or Kaliyattam) is indeed practiced in the North Malabar region (primarily Kannur and Kasaragod districts). Performers undergo strict rituals to represent deities, wearing intricate face painting and prominent crown structures (Mudi). Statement 1 is correct.
Verifying the regional and ritual features of Theyyam.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Koodiyattam
Koodiyattam is Kerala's ancient Sanskrit drama, recognized by UNESCO in 2001. It is staged exclusively in sacred temple theatres designed specifically for performance art, known as Koothambalams. Statement 2 is correct.
Confirming the heritage status and performance theatre architecture of Koodiyattam.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Padayani
Padayani (or Paddeni) is a traditional dance art associated with Goddess Bhadrakali temples in Central Travancore (mainly Pathanamthitta and Kottayam districts). The iconic masks called Kolams are crafted using Areca palm sheaths (Kamukin Paala) and natural dyes. Statement 3 is correct.
Checking material culture and regional temple associations of Padayani.

Key Concept

Regional Performing Arts, Temple Theatre Architecture, and Ritual Traditions of Kerala
Question 27Question →

Regarding the ecological features, river basins, and flora/fauna of wildlife sanctuaries and national parks across Indian states, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat is the exclusive natural habitat of the Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo persica) and its ecosystem is drained by rivers such as the Hiran, Shetrunji, and Datardi.; Namdapha National Park in Arunachal Pradesh is situated within the Eastern Himalayas biodiversity hotspot and is famous for harboring four big cat species: the Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard, and Clouded Leopard.

Answer

The correct statements are the statement concerning Gir National Park in Gujarat and its river drainage system, and the statement regarding Namdapha National Park in Arunachal Pradesh and its four feline species.
The statements describing Gir National Park and Namdapha National Park are both factually correct. Gir National Park in Gujarat is the exclusive home of the Asiatic Lion and is drained by the Hiran, Shetrunji, and Datardi rivers. Namdapha National Park in Arunachal Pradesh lies in the Eastern Himalayas and hosts four big cat species (Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard, and Clouded Leopard).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement regarding Gir National Park
Gir is in Gujarat and represents the only wild home of the Asiatic Lion. The sanctuary is drained by seven major rivers, including the Hiran, Shetrunji, Datardi, Shingoda, Machhundri, Godavari, and Raval. This statement is accurate.
Correctly matches state location, flagship species, and river hydrology.
2
Evaluate the statement regarding Similipal National Park
Similipal lies in Mayurbhanj district, Odisha. Its forest vegetation is moist deciduous to semi-evergreen (tropical dry evergreen forests belong to the Tamil Nadu coastal strip). Its primary drainage includes Budhabalanga and Salandi rivers. This statement is incorrect.
Identifies vegetation classification and river drainage misattributions.
3
Evaluate the statement regarding Namdapha National Park
Namdapha is located in Arunachal Pradesh in the Eastern Himalayas and is renowned for harboring all four major feline species (Snow Leopard, Clouded Leopard, Common Leopard, and Tiger). This statement is accurate.
Confirms habitat biodiversity features in Arunachal Pradesh.
4
Evaluate the statement regarding Jim Corbett National Park
Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand is drained by the Ramganga River, not the Alaknanda River. This statement is incorrect.
Corrects the river association for India's oldest national park.

Key Concept

State-specific protected area ecosystems, vegetation types, flagship species, and river basin associations.
Question 28Question →

Match the traditional state folk performance art forms listed in List-I with their respective characteristic regional styles and cultural contexts in List-II, and determine the correct matching sequence.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Pandavani
Bhavai
Karyala
Burrakatha

Matches

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Answer

Pandavani matches with Chhattisgarhi Mahabharata ballad tradition; Bhavai matches with Gujarati/Rajasthani folk theatre of the Targala community; Karyala matches with Himachali open-air satirical harvest theatre; and Burrakatha matches with Telugu oral storytelling with drum and tambura.
Each art form is correctly aligned with its respective state of origin, socio-cultural context, and performance style: Pandavani to Chhattisgarhi Mahabharata ballads, Bhavai to Gujarati/Rajasthani Targala folk theatre, Karyala to Himachali satirical harvest drama, and Burrakatha to Telugu narrative drumming art.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Pandavani
Identified as the epic narrative art of Chhattisgarh dedicated to the Mahabharata.
Pandavani literally means tales of the Pandavas, popularized globally by artists like Teejan Bai.
2
Analyze Bhavai
Identified as the traditional folk dance-drama of Gujarat and Rajasthan.
Bhavai is known for its energetic performance, use of brass pots, and Targala community heritage.
3
Analyze Karyala
Identified as the major folk theatre form of Himachal Pradesh.
Karyala consists of series of quick, humorous plays (Swangs) addressing local social issues in Himachal Pradesh.
4
Analyze Burrakatha
Identified as the traditional Andhra Pradesh/Telangana musical storytelling art.
Named after the 'Burra' (percussion instrument/skull-shaped drum) used by the performers.

Key Concept

State Folk Performance Arts, Cultural Heritage, and Regional Traditions
Question 29Question →

Arrange the following traditional state harvest and cultural festivals of India in the correct chronological order of their annual celebration, starting from the beginning of the solar calendar year (January):

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence starting from January is: Makar Sankranti / Pongal (mid-January), followed by Bohag Bihu / Vaisakhi (mid-April), then Onam / Nuakhai (August–September), and finally Wangala / Ka Pomblang Nongkrem (November).
Makar Sankranti and Pongal occur in mid-January, Bohag Bihu and Vaisakhi in mid-April, Onam and Nuakhai in August–September, and Wangala in November. Arranging these events according to the calendar year beginning in January places Makar Sankranti first, followed by Bohag Bihu, Onam, and Wangala.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the annual celebration timing for each traditional festival
Makar Sankranti/Pongal takes place in January; Bohag Bihu/Vaisakhi takes place in April; Onam/Nuakhai takes place in August–September; Wangala takes place in November.
Determining the calendar month of each festival is necessary for establishing the correct sequence.
2
Sequence the festivals chronologically starting from January
January → April → August/September → November.
Ordering the months sequentially from the start of the calendar year yields the proper chronological arrangement.

Key Concept

Seasonal and agricultural cycle of regional state festivals and cultural heritage
Question 30Question →

Regarding the eligibility criteria and benefit structure of the 'Yuva Nidhi' scheme introduced by the Government of Karnataka for educated unemployed youth, which of the following statements is accurate?

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Answer: It extends a monthly allowance of ₹3,000 to unemployed degree holders and ₹1,500 to diploma holders for a maximum period of two years.

Answer

The scheme extends a monthly allowance of ₹3,000 to unemployed degree holders and ₹1,500 to diploma holders for a maximum period of two years.
The 'Yuva Nidhi' scheme is a flagship social security initiative launched by the Government of Karnataka that provides direct financial assistance of ₹3,000 per month to eligible unemployed graduates and ₹1,500 per month to unemployed diploma holders for a maximum period of two years or until the beneficiary secures employment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the target beneficiaries and core objective of Karnataka's Yuva Nidhi Scheme
The scheme assists graduates and diploma holders who have remained unemployed for at least six months following completion of their studies.
Establishing the policy focus confirms the baseline educational qualification requirements.
2
Evaluate the financial entitlement and temporal duration under the scheme
Unemployed degree holders receive ���3,000 per month, while diploma holders receive ₹1,500 per month for a maximum cap of two years (or until securing employment/higher education).
Direct benefit transfer parameters are explicitly defined in the state government operational guidelines.
3
Examine exclusion and disqualification criteria
Beneficiaries gainful in private/government sectors or those who enroll in higher education are rendered ineligible.
Ensures targeted allocation of welfare resources only to actively job-seeking youth.

Key Concept

Karnataka Yuva Nidhi Scheme Eligibility and Financial Assistance Provisions
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 31Question →

With reference to the Ahom Revolt of 1828 in the regional history of Assam, consider the following statements:

1. It erupted primarily due to the non-fulfillment of the British pledge to withdraw from Assam after the First Anglo-Burmese War.
2. Gomdhar Konwar was proclaimed king by the insurgents during the uprising.
3. The movement received official military backing from the East India Company under the Treaty of Yandabo.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Ahom Revolt (1828) occurred after the First Anglo-Burmese War when the British failed to withdraw from Assam as previously implied, attempting instead to incorporate Ahom territories into Company possessions. The rebels declared Gomdhar Konwar as their king. The movement was suppressed by the East India Company.
The option stating '1 and 2 only' is correct because the Ahom Revolt of 1828 broke out when the British East India Company reneged on its implied pledge to evacuate Assam after defeating the Burmese in 1826. Ahom nobles raised the standard of rebellion and crowned Gomdhar Konwar as king near Jorhat. The movement was directed entirely against Company rule, rendering the assertion of British military backing completely false.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the cause of the revolt.
Statement 1 is correct. After the conclusion of the First Anglo-Burmese War (1824–26) and the Treaty of Yandabo (1826), the British had promised to retreat, but instead attempted to incorporate the Ahom kingdom into British territory, triggering discontent.
Understanding the geopolitical context following the Treaty of Yandabo clarifies the primary trigger of the rebellion.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the leadership of the revolt.
Statement 2 is correct. In 1828, Ahom nobility led by Gomdhar Konwar and Dhananjay Borgohain rebelled and formally proclaimed Gomdhar Konwar as King at Jorhat.
Identifying the key leaders of regional resistance movements confirms the validity of the second statement.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding British involvement.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The revolt was an anti-British resistance; the East India Company dispatched troops under Lieutenant Rutherford to suppress the uprising, leading to Gomdhar Konwar's arrest.
Distinguishing between opposing factions avoids misattributing colonial treaty terms to rebel support.

Key Concept

Ahom Revolt of 1828 and early anti-colonial uprisings in North-East India
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 32Question →

Regarding the economic geography, agriculture, and natural resource distribution of Kerala, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The coastal tract of Chavara in Kollam district contains significant placer deposits of heavy mineral sands containing ilmenite, rutile, and monazite.; The state contributes the predominant share of India's total natural rubber production, with cultivation concentrated across its midland and foothill agro-ecological tracts.

Answer

The statements confirming heavy mineral sand placer deposits at Chavara and Kerala's dominant share in national natural rubber production are correct.
Kerala's economy and resource base are distinctively shaped by its heavy mineral sand deposits in the Kollam coastal belt (Chavara) and its commanding leadership in natural rubber cultivation in the midland slopes. Both statements accurately reflect these geographic and economic realities.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the coastal mineral resources statement
The Chavara beach sand belt in Kollam is a well-established source of heavy minerals such as ilmenite, rutile, and monazite, making the statement correct.
Verify regional distribution of atomic and industrial minerals along the western coastline.
2
Evaluate the plantation agriculture statement
Kerala is India's leading producer of natural rubber, primarily grown in the midland districts, confirming the statement is correct.
Assess knowledge of state-level commercial crop output and agro-climatic specialization.
3
Evaluate the agrarian system and fossil fuel statements
Kuttanad is dedicated to wetland paddy cultivation rather than wheat, and coking coal is found in eastern Gondwana formations, rendering both remaining statements incorrect.
Identify common geographic mismatches regarding regional farming systems and geological mineral distributions.

Key Concept

State Resource Distribution and Agricultural Specialization in Kerala
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 33Question →

With reference to the State Vigyan Gaurav Samman conferred in 2025–2026 for distinguished contributions to grassroots technological innovation, consider the following statements:

1. It was awarded to Dr. Radhika Menon for designing decentralized solar-powered micro-irrigation networks tailored for semi-arid agrarian belts.
2. The award is administered annually by the State Council of Science and Technology to recognize high-impact indigenous scientific research and rural deployment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both 1 and 2
Both statements are completely accurate. The State Vigyan Gaurav Samman was awarded to Dr. Radhika Menon in recognition of her innovative decentralized solar-powered micro-irrigation deployment across semi-arid rural farmlands, and the honor is officially instituted and conferred under the aegis of the State Council of Science and Technology.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the accuracy of the first statement regarding the laureate and core innovation.
Dr. Radhika Menon was conferred the State Vigyan Gaurav Samman specifically for engineering scalable, low-cost decentralized solar micro-irrigation systems in drought-vulnerable zones.
State civil services examinations test precise recall of prominent personalities, their recognized fields of public innovation, and award citations.
2
Evaluate the accuracy of the second statement regarding the nodal administering authority.
The award is instituted and administered on an annual basis by the State Council of Science and Technology.
Administrative bodies organizing major state civilian and sectoral honors are standard evaluation points in state current affairs.

Key Concept

State Honors, Scientific Innovations, and Prominent Personalities in Public Service
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 34Question →

Match the flagship state government welfare schemes in List-I with their corresponding primary policy objectives and target sectors in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Indira Gandhi Shehri Rozgar Guarantee Yojana (Rajasthan)
Mukhyamantri Bal Ashirwad Yojana (Madhya Pradesh)
Rythu Bandhu Scheme (Telangana)
Mukhyamantri Vridhjan Pension Yojana (Bihar)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Indira Gandhi Shehri Rozgar Guarantee Yojana matches with guaranteed urban wage employment; Mukhyamantri Bal Ashirwad Yojana matches with financial and educational support for institutional orphans; Rythu Bandhu Scheme matches with direct agricultural input investment support per acre; and Mukhyamantri Vridhjan Pension Yojana matches with universal monthly social security pension for senior citizens aged 60 and above.
Each scheme is accurately mapped to its core sector: Rajasthan's Indira Gandhi Shehri Rozgar Guarantee Yojana provides urban livelihood security through guaranteed manual and skilled wage work; Madhya Pradesh's Mukhyamantri Bal Ashirwad Yojana targets aftercare welfare for young adults leaving childcare institutions; Telangana's Rythu Bandhu delivers direct farmer investment assistance per acre per season; and Bihar's Mukhyamantri Vridhjan Pension Yojana provides universal social security to senior citizens aged 60 and above.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the mandate of Rajasthan's urban welfare policy
Identify Indira Gandhi Shehri Rozgar Guarantee Yojana as the urban counterpart to rural employment guarantees, providing 125 days of wage work to urban families.
Urban employment schemes focus on creating urban community assets and providing livelihood security in municipal areas.
2
Evaluate Madhya Pradesh's child rehabilitation and aftercare welfare policy
Identify Mukhyamantri Bal Ashirwad Yojana as the aftercare financial aid and skill rehabilitation program for orphan youths leaving child care homes at age 18.
Child welfare policies provide transitional security from foster/institutional care to independent adult living.
3
Examine Telangana's agrarian welfare architecture
Identify Rythu Bandhu as the direct benefit transfer mechanism providing crop investment aid per acre per crop season.
Agricultural investment policies aim to free small and marginal farmers from informal debt traps.
4
Review Bihar's social safety net for elderly citizens
Identify Mukhyamantri Vridhjan Pension Yojana as a universal non-contributory pension scheme for individuals aged 60 and above.
Universal old-age pension schemes eliminate strict BPL category exclusions to provide dignified elderly support.

Key Concept

State Government Schemes and Welfare Policies
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 35Question →

The Government of Uttar Pradesh implements the 'Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana' through the Department of Women and Child Development to promote social security and girl child education. Under this flagship welfare policy, which of the following correctly specifies the prescribed maximum annual household income ceiling and the maximum number of girl children eligible per family under standard conditions?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Annual income up to ₹3,00,000 and a maximum of 2 girl children

Answer

Annual income up to ₹3,00,000 and a maximum of 2 girl children per family
Under the Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana of Uttar Pradesh, eligibility is granted to families that are permanent residents of Uttar Pradesh with an annual household income of up to ₹3,00,000. Additionally, the policy restricts enrollment to a maximum of two girl children per household under standard circumstances, making the combination of a ₹3,00,000 ceiling and a 2-child limit the only correct choice.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the scheme and its primary mandate
The Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana is a flagship conditional cash transfer scheme in Uttar Pradesh aimed at improving health and education outcomes for girl children from birth to higher education across six distinct milestone stages.
Establishing the policy framework helps isolate the targeted demographic parameters.
2
Examine the financial income threshold requirement
The Department of Women and Child Development mandates that the total annual income of the beneficiary's family must not exceed ₹3,00,000 (₹3 lakh).
Economic ceilings are key elimination parameters in State PSC welfare scheme questions.
3
Verify family demographic limitations
The policy stipulates that benefits are restricted to a maximum of two girl children per family under normal circumstances (with an exception allowed only if the second delivery results in twin girls).
Beneficiary caps prevent misallocation and align with state population policy guidelines.

Key Concept

Eligibility thresholds and beneficiary restrictions under flagship state welfare schemes
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 36Question →

Arrange the following stages in the constitutional procedure for the creation of a State Legislative Council under Article 169 of the Constitution of India in the correct chronological sequence from first to last:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence for creating a State Legislative Council under Article 169 is: First, passing of a resolution by the State Legislative Assembly by a special majority; Second, introduction of a bill in Parliament; Third, passing of the bill by Parliament by a simple majority; and Fourth, assent to the bill by the President of India.
Under Article 169 of the Constitution of India, the creation of a State Legislative Council requires a sequential four-step process: the State Legislative Assembly must first pass a resolution by a special majority, followed by the introduction of an enacting bill in Parliament, its passage by Parliament via a simple majority, and finally receiving the assent of the President of India.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the initiating constitutional step at the state level.
Under Article 169, the State Legislative Assembly must initiate the proposal by passing a resolution by a special majority (majority of total membership and at least two-thirds of members present and voting).
Parliament cannot enact legislation to create a State Legislative Council without a prior formal request from the concerned state assembly.
2
Determine the parliamentary legislation stage.
After receiving the state resolution, a bill is introduced in Parliament and passed by a simple majority.
Article 169 specifies that parliamentary law for this purpose is passed by simple majority and is not treated as a constitutional amendment under Article 368.
3
Identify the final enactment stage.
The bill receives the assent of the President of India to become an Act.
Presidential assent completes the legislative process required to officially establish the new legislative body.

Key Concept

Procedure for Creation of State Legislative Council under Article 169
Question 37Question →

Match the following State Constitutional Bodies and Authorities (List-I) with their corresponding Constitutional Articles (List-II).

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Advocate General for the State
State Finance Commission
State Public Service Commission
Duties of Chief Minister to furnish information to Governor

Matches

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Answer

The correct pairings are: Advocate General for the State matches with Article 165; State Finance Commission matches with Article 243-I; State Public Service Commission matches with Article 315; and Duties of Chief Minister to furnish information to Governor matches with Article 167.
Each item in List-I corresponds directly to its constitutional Article in List-II: the Advocate General for the State is appointed under Article 165, the State Finance Commission is constituted under Article 243-I, Public Service Commissions for the States are established under Article 315, and the constitutional duties of the Chief Minister relative to the Governor are detailed under Article 167.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Match Advocate General for the State with its constitutional provision.
Advocate General for the State pairs with Article 165.
Article 165 specifies the appointment, qualifications, and duties of the Advocate General for the State.
2
Match State Finance Commission with its constitutional provision.
State Finance Commission pairs with Article 243-I.
Article 243-I specifies the constitution and function of the State Finance Commission.
3
Match State Public Service Commission with its constitutional provision.
State Public Service Commission pairs with Article 315.
Article 315 establishes Public Service Commissions at the Union and State levels.
4
Match Duties of Chief Minister to furnish information to Governor with its constitutional provision.
Duties of Chief Minister pairs with Article 167.
Article 167 outlines the Chief Minister's administrative obligations toward the Governor.

Key Concept

Constitutional Provisions governing State Polity and Administrative Authorities
Question 38Question →

Phulkari, a traditional hand-embroidery craft known for its geometric floral patterns worked with untwisted silk thread on coarse cotton fabric, represents an iconic cultural heritage of which Indian state?

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Answer: Punjab

Answer

Punjab is the correct answer because Phulkari embroidery is a celebrated domestic folk craft deeply embedded in the cultural tradition and festivities of Punjab.
Punjab is correct because Phulkari is the ancestral folk embroidery art of Punjab where colorful silk threads are meticulously stitched onto khaddar fabric in geometric and floral motifs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the art form's structural details and technique mentioned in the stem
The stem describes 'Phulkari', an embroidery craft utilizing silk thread to make geometric floral patterns on coarse cotton cloth (khaddar).
Identifying core cultural characteristics helps map the craft to its state of origin.
2
Match the heritage craft with its official geographic and state origin
Phulkari is an authentic folk tradition of Punjab, traditionally practiced by women during weddings and auspicious life ceremonies.
Phulkari holds a Geographical Indication (GI) status associated primarily with the state of Punjab.

Key Concept

Traditional Textile and Folk Craft Heritage of Indian States
Estimated Time:45s
Question 39Question →

Kalinga temple architecture represents a prominent regional school of temple art and heritage in eastern India. Arrange the following famous heritage temples of Odisha in the correct chronological order of their construction, starting from the earliest built to the latest.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is Parasurameswara Temple (7th century CE), Mukteswara Temple (10th century CE), Lingaraja Temple (11th century CE), and Sun Temple at Konark (13th century CE).
The correct sequence follows the historical progression of Kalinga architectural styles over six centuries: Parasurameswara Temple (7th century CE, early phase) → Mukteswara Temple (10th century CE, transitional phase) → Lingaraja Temple (11th century CE, mature phase) → Sun Temple at Konark (13th century CE, monumental culmination).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the era of Parasurameswara Temple
7th century CE (Early Kalinga phase).
Built under the Shailodbhava dynasty, it is one of the oldest surviving stone temples in the region.
2
Determine the era of Mukteswara Temple
10th century CE (Transitional Kalinga phase).
Patronized by the Somavamshi dynasty, it introduced intricate arched gateways (toranas).
3
Determine the era of Lingaraja Temple
11th century CE (Mature Kalinga phase).
Represents the grandest structural peak of Somavamshi temple construction in Bhubaneswar.
4
Determine the era of Sun Temple at Konark
13th century CE (Late/Culmination Kalinga phase).
Commissioned by Eastern Ganga King Narasimhadeva I as a monumental chariot temple.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of Kalinga temple architecture and state heritage
Question 40Question →

In the mineral economy of Odisha, which district contains the Sukinda valley, which accounts for over 90% of India's total chromite ore reserves?

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Answer: Jajpur district

Answer

Jajpur district is the correct answer as it houses the Sukinda valley chromite belt.
Jajpur district contains the famous Sukinda valley ultramafic complex, which holds more than 90% of India's total reserves of chromite ore, making it the hub of India's ferro-chrome and chromite mining industry.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary mineral in question and its main production center in India.
Chromite ore in India is predominantly mined in Odisha, specifically within the Sukinda valley.
Over 90% to 95% of India's chromite reserves are concentrated in this single geological formation.
2
Map the Sukinda valley to its parent administrative district in Odisha.
Sukinda valley is located in Jajpur district.
Administrative district mapping is essential for state-level general knowledge assessments.

Key Concept

State Natural Resources and Mineral Belts of Odisha
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