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Question 2281Question →

In the annual budget estimates of a state government, the following budgetary figures are reported for a given financial year:
- Total Revenue Receipts: $₹ 2,50,000$ crore
- Non-debt Capital Receipts: $₹ 15,000$ crore
- Revenue Expenditure: $�� 3,10,000$ crore
- Capital Expenditure: $₹ 75,000$ crore
- Interest Payments on past public debt: $₹ 45,000$ crore

Based on the provided figures, what is the Primary Deficit of the state government for that financial year (in $₹$ crore)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 75000

Answer

The Primary Deficit of the government is ₹ 75,000 crore.

The Primary Deficit reflects the net borrowing required to meet current year expenses excluding committed interest costs. It is derived as Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments. First, Total Expenditure (

3,10,000 + 75,000 = 3,85,000

crore) minus Total Non-Debt Receipts (

2,50,000 + 15,000 = 2,65,000

crore) gives a Fiscal Deficit of

₹ 1,20,000

crore. Subtracting the interest payments of

₹ 45,000

crore yields a Primary Deficit of

₹ 75,000

crore.

Step-by-Step Solution

Calculate Total Expenditure

₹ 3,85,000 crore

Total Expenditure includes both current operational expenses (Revenue Expenditure) and creation of assets (Capital Expenditure).

Calculate Total Non-Debt Receipts

₹ 2,65,000 crore

Non-Debt Receipts consist of tax/non-tax revenues and capital receipts that do not create future repayment obligations (such as loan recoveries).

Calculate Fiscal Deficit

₹ 1,20,000 crore

Fiscal Deficit measures the total borrowing requirement of the government, obtained by subtracting total non-debt receipts from total expenditure.

Calculate Primary Deficit

₹ 75,000 crore

Primary Deficit indicates the current fiscal imbalances by excluding interest burdens accumulated from past debt liabilities.

Key Concept

Primary Deficit and Fiscal Deficit Metrics in Public Finance

Estimated Time:1m 30s

Question 2282Question →

Which of the following statements regarding everyday optical phenomena and their underlying physical principles are correct?

Select all that apply

The formation of a secondary rainbow involves two internal reflections and two refractions of sunlight within raindrops, causing its color sequence to be reversed relative to a primary rainbow.

The blue color of the clear daytime sky is primarily due to Rayleigh scattering, where the scattered light intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the wavelength (

I \propto 1/\lambda^2

Sun dogs (parhelia) and

22^\circ

atmospheric halos are produced primarily by the refraction of sunlight passing through hexagonal ice crystals suspended in high-altitude cirrus clouds.

Optical fibers transmit light energy efficiently via total internal reflection by ensuring that the refractive index of the central core is strictly lower than that of the surrounding cladding.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The formation of a secondary rainbow involves two internal reflections and two refractions of sunlight within raindrops, causing its color sequence to be reversed relative to a primary rainbow.; Sun dogs (parhelia) and $22^\circ$ atmospheric halos are produced primarily by the refraction of sunlight passing through hexagonal ice crystals suspended in high-altitude cirrus clouds.

Answer

The correct statements are the statement explaining secondary rainbow formation through two internal reflections and refractions with reversed spectral order, and the statement describing sun dogs and halos as the refraction of light through hexagonal ice crystals.

The statements describing secondary rainbow optics and atmospheric ice halos are physically accurate. A secondary rainbow forms after two internal reflections and two refractions inside water droplets, reversing the color order (red inside, violet outside). Sun dogs and

22^\circ

atmospheric halos occur when sunlight refracts through hexagonal ice crystals suspended in cirrus clouds at the angle of minimum deviation.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze rainbow optics mechanics

Primary rainbows involve 1 internal reflection and 2 refractions. Secondary rainbows involve 2 internal reflections and 2 refractions, which reverses the angular dispersion order of light colors.

Verifies the statement regarding secondary rainbow optics as true.

Evaluate atmospheric scattering wavelength dependence

Rayleigh scattering intensity follows

I \propto \frac{1}{\lambda^4}

. The statement incorrectly asserts a inverse-square relationship (

1/\lambda^2

Identifies the atmospheric scattering statement as incorrect due to an incorrect power exponent.

Examine ice crystal optical phenomena (halos and sun dogs)

Hexagonal ice crystals act as

60^\circ

prisms causing light refraction at a minimum deviation angle of

22^\circ

, producing

22^\circ

halos and parhelia (sun dogs).

Confirms the sun dog and halo mechanism statement as true.

Check conditions for Total Internal Reflection (TIR) in fiber optics

TIR requires light to propagate from a higher refractive index medium to a lower refractive index medium (

n_{\text{core}} > n_{\text{cladding}}

). The statement claims

n_{\text{core}} < n_{\text{cladding}}

, which is false.

Determines the optical fiber parameter statement to be false.

Key Concept

Everyday Wave Optics and Atmospheric Optical Phenomena

Question 2283Question →

Regarding economic inequality metrics and poverty estimation frameworks in India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

NITI Aayog's National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) incorporates 12 indicators across three dimensions, adding Maternal Health and Bank Account to the 10 indicators used in the Global MPI.

A Gini coefficient value of 0 indicates absolute economic inequality, whereas a value of 1 signifies absolute economic equality.

The Palma ratio measures economic inequality by comparing the income share of the top 10% of the population to the income share of the bottom 40%.

Absolute poverty describes household income falling below a specified percentage of median national income, while relative poverty measures the inability to secure basic survival needs like food and shelter.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: NITI Aayog's National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) incorporates 12 indicators across three dimensions, adding Maternal Health and Bank Account to the 10 indicators used in the Global MPI.; The Palma ratio measures economic inequality by comparing the income share of the top 10% of the population to the income share of the bottom 40%.

Answer

The correct statements are that NITI Aayog's National MPI adds Maternal Health and Bank Account to the Global MPI indicators, and the Palma ratio measures inequality by comparing the income share of the top 10% to the bottom 40%.

The statement regarding NITI Aayog's National MPI is accurate because it incorporates 12 indicators across Health, Education, and Standard of Living, specifically adding Maternal Health and Bank Account to the standard 10 UNDP/OPHI indicators. The statement regarding the Palma ratio is also correct as it measures the ratio of GNI share of the top 10% to the bottom 40%.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) statement

NITI Aayog's National MPI uses 3 dimensions (Health, Education, Standard of Living) with 12 indicators, adding Maternal Health (under Health) and Bank Account (under Standard of Living) to the Global MPI framework.

Verifying national modifications to international poverty metrics.

Analyze the Gini coefficient definition statement

The Gini coefficient ranges from 0 to 1, where 0 indicates perfect equality and 1 indicates perfect inequality. Stating 0 represents absolute inequality is incorrect.

Testing standard properties of income inequality metrics.

Evaluate the Palma ratio definition statement

The Palma ratio is defined as the ratio of the richest 10% of the population's share of gross national income divided by the poorest 40%'s share.

Verifying the ratio definition used in global inequality assessments.

Examine the definitions of absolute and relative poverty

Absolute poverty is measured against a fixed threshold required for basic subsistence (food, shelter, water). Relative poverty measures inequality relative to average/median income in a society. The statement swaps their definitions.

Checking conceptual clarity between absolute deprivation and relative disparity.

Key Concept

Multidimensional Poverty Index and Economic Inequality Metrics

Question 2284Question →

Consider the following statements regarding agricultural price support policies, WTO subsidy classifications, and food security legislation in India:

1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends Minimum Support Prices (MSP) aimed at providing a 50% return over the A2+FL cost formula, whereas the Swaminathan Commission recommended fixing MSP at 50% above the comprehensive cost of production (C2).
2. Under the WTO Agreement on Agriculture, Amber Box subsidies are classified as trade-distorting support measures and are subject to a De Minimis ceiling of 10% of total agricultural production value for developing countries like India.
3. Under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, households covered under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) are entitled to receive 5 kg of foodgrains per person per month at subsidized prices.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 1 accurately differentiates the government's operational benchmark (50% profit over A2+FL cost) from the Swaminathan Commission recommendation (50% profit over C2 cost). Statement 2 correctly states that Amber Box subsidies are subject to a 10% de minimis cap for developing nations under WTO rules.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Statement 1 regarding MSP determination cost metrics

Statement 1 is correct. CACP considers A2 (paid-out costs), A2+FL (paid-out costs plus family labor), and C2 (comprehensive cost including land rent and capital interest). The current official MSP policy guarantees a 50% return over A2+FL, while the Swaminathan Commission recommended a 50% return over C2.

Distinguishing between A2+FL and C2 is essential for evaluating Indian agricultural price policies.

Analyze Statement 2 regarding WTO subsidy box classifications

Statement 2 is correct. Amber Box subsidies encompass price support mechanisms (like MSP) and input subsidies that distort trade. Under WTO rules, developing countries have a de minimis allowance of 10% of agricultural production value.

WTO Agreement on Agriculture sets de minimis limits at 5% for developed countries and 10% for developing nations.

Analyze Statement 3 regarding NFSA 2013 statutory entitlements

Statement 3 is incorrect. Under NFSA 2013, Priority Households are entitled to 5 kg of foodgrains per person per month, whereas Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households are entitled to 35 kg of foodgrains per household per month.

NFSA 2013 distinguishes between individual-based entitlement for Priority Households and household-based entitlement for poorest-of-the-poor (AAY) families.

Key Concept

Agricultural Price Policy (MSP), WTO Subsidy Framework (Amber Box), and NFSA 2013 Entitlements

Question 2285Question →

Match List-I (Constitutional Articles of the Union Executive) with List-II (Their Respective Provisions) and select the correct matching pair:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 53 matches with the vesting of Union executive power in the President; Article 65 matches with the Vice-President acting as President during casual vacancies; Article 71 matches with the adjudication of Presidential or Vice-Presidential election disputes by the Supreme Court; Article 111 matches with Presidential assent options for parliamentary Bills.

Each constitutional article in List-I corresponds directly to its functional mandate in List-II: Article 53 vests Union executive power in the President; Article 65 details the Vice-President's role as acting President; Article 71 establishes Supreme Court authority over presidential election disputes; and Article 111 details presidential options upon receiving parliamentary Bills.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the scope of Article 53

Article 53 declares that the executive power of the Union is formally vested in the President of India.

Establishes the head of the Union Executive authority.

Identify the scope of Article 65

Article 65 provides for the Vice-President to act as President during vacancies in the office of the President.

Ensures executive continuity when the presidency becomes vacant.

Identify the scope of Article 71

Article 71 vests exclusive jurisdiction in the Supreme Court to adjudicate disputes regarding Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections.

Prevents legislative or administrative interference in presidential election disputes.

Identify the scope of Article 111

Article 111 specifies Presidential options regarding Bills passed by Parliament (assent, withholding, or returning non-Money Bills).

Defines the legislative role and veto options of the Union Executive.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles governing the Union Executive and presidential powers

Question 2286Question →

Rear-view mirrors fitted on the sides of automobiles assist drivers by enabling them to see traffic coming from behind. Which type of mirror is primarily used for this purpose, and why?

Convex mirror, because it forms an erect and diminished image, offering a wider field of view

Concave mirror, because it forms a magnified and inverted image of distant objects

Plane mirror, because it forms an enlarged real image behind the driver

Cylindrical mirror, because it focuses light rays onto a single focal line

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Convex mirror, because it forms an erect and diminished image, offering a wider field of view

Answer

Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles because they form erect, virtual, and diminished images, providing the driver with a significantly wider field of view.

Convex mirrors curve outward, causing reflected rays of light to spread apart (diverge). This curvature allows them to form erect, virtual, and diminished images for objects at any distance, giving the driver a significantly wider field of view compared to flat or concave mirrors.

Step-by-Step Solution

Determine the necessary visual features of a vehicle rear-view mirror

The driver requires an upright (erect) view of approaching vehicles that covers a broad physical area.

An inverted image would confuse the driver, and a narrow view would leave dangerous blind spots.

Analyze image formation across different mirror types

A convex mirror diverges reflected rays and consistently produces an erect and diminished image regardless of object distance.

Because the images formed are smaller than the actual objects, a larger scene fits into the mirror surface, maximizing the field of view.

Key Concept

Everyday applications of curved mirrors and image formation by convex mirrors

Question 2287Question →

Regarding the pedological characteristics, chemical composition, and geographic distribution of Black Soils (Regur soils) in India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Black soils possess high moisture-retention capacity and develop deep cracks during the dry season, leading to self-ploughing and improved subsoil aeration.

These soils are chemically rich in calcium carbonate, magnesia, potash, and lime, but are notably deficient in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic matter.

Black soils are predominantly distributed along the high-rainfall coastal deltas of Odisha and West Bengal formed by riverine alluvial deposition.

The pedogenesis of Black soils is primarily driven by intense silica leaching under continuous heavy tropical rainfall.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Black soils possess high moisture-retention capacity and develop deep cracks during the dry season, leading to self-ploughing and improved subsoil aeration.; These soils are chemically rich in calcium carbonate, magnesia, potash, and lime, but are notably deficient in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic matter.

Answer

Black soils are characterized by high moisture retention with self-ploughing properties, and are rich in lime, magnesia, and potash while deficient in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic content.

Black soils (Regur) originate from basaltic lava in the Deccan plateau under semi-arid conditions. Their high clay content gives them excellent moisture retention and causes them to contract into deep cracks during dry spells, facilitating self-ploughing. Chemically, they are rich in iron, lime, calcium carbonate, magnesia, and potash, but deficient in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic humus.

Step-by-Step Solution

Examine the physical properties and moisture dynamics of Black soils.

Determine that high montmorillonite clay content causes swelling when wet and shrinking with deep cracking when dry, creating a natural self-ploughing mechanism.

Physical weathering of basaltic lava under semi-arid conditions produces sticky, clay-rich soil horizons.

Analyze the chemical composition and mineral nutrients present in Regur soils.

Confirm that calcium, magnesium, iron, and potash levels are high, whereas organic matter, nitrogen, and phosphorus levels are low.

Mineral inheritance from volcanic basalt provides bases, but rapid oxidation in dry climates prevents accumulation of organic humus.

Evaluate statements regarding regional distribution and soil genesis against other Indian soil types.

Identify that eastern deltaic regions have Alluvial soils and high-leaching zones form Laterite soils, ruling out these statements for Black soils.

Black soil formation depends on basaltic lava bedrock across the central and western Deccan plateau.

Key Concept

Pedological features, chemical composition, and spatial distribution of Black Soils in India.

Question 2288Question →

Match the Constitutional Articles relating to the Supreme Court of India in List-I with their corresponding powers and provisions in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 137 matches the power of review of judgments; Article 141 matches the law declared by the Supreme Court being binding on all courts; Article 142 matches the power to enforce orders to do complete justice; and Article 144 matches civil and judicial authorities acting in aid of the Supreme Court.

Each constitutional provision correctly pairs with its respective scope under Part V of the Constitution of India: Article 137 confers review power, Article 141 establishes binding precedent, Article 142 provides plenary power to do complete justice, and Article 144 obligates civil and judicial authorities to act in aid of the Supreme Court.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the constitutional scope of Article 137

Article 137 explicitly empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments and orders.

This is a key aspect of judicial review enabling self-correction by the highest court.

Identify the constitutional scope of Article 141

Article 141 establishes the doctrine of binding precedent across the Indian judiciary.

It ensures uniformity of law across all subordinate courts.

Identify the constitutional scope of Article 142

Article 142 grants plenary powers to the Supreme Court to pass orders for doing complete justice.

It acts as an extraordinary constitutional power to bridge statutory gaps.

Identify the constitutional scope of Article 144

Article 144 mandates executive and judicial authorities to assist in enforcing Supreme Court mandates.

It ensures the execution and compliance of Supreme Court judgments across the nation.

Key Concept

Constitutional Provisions governing the Jurisdiction, Precedential Authority, and Plenary Powers of the Supreme Court of India

Question 2289Question →

Arrange the following spiritual masters of the Chishti Sufi order (silsila) in India in correct chronological order based on their lineage and period of prominence, from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order from earliest to latest is Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti, Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki, Baba Fariduddin Ganjshakar, Nizamuddin Auliya, and Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Dehli.

The Chishti silsila in India followed an unbroken master-disciple chronological sequence: Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti established the order in Ajmer; Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki was his disciple in Delhi; Baba Fariduddin Ganjshakar was Bakhtiyar Kaki's disciple; Nizamuddin Auliya was Baba Farid's disciple; and Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Dehli was Nizamuddin Auliya's disciple.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the pioneer of the Chishti silsila in the Indian subcontinent.

Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti introduced the Chishti order in India during the late 12th century, making Ajmer his central seat.

He represents the foundational figure of the order in India.

Trace the early Delhi Sultanate period successors.

Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki was the principal initiate of Moinuddin Chishti in Delhi. Baba Fariduddin Ganjshakar was the direct disciple of Bakhtiyar Kaki.

This establishes the 13th-century master-disciple succession.

Determine the 14th-century Delhi lineage.

Nizamuddin Auliya succeeded Baba Farid, and Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Dehli succeeded Nizamuddin Auliya.

This completes the continuous chronological master-disciple chain of the main Delhi Chishti branch.

Key Concept

Spiritual lineage (silsila) and historical sequence of the Chishti Sufi saints in medieval India.

Question 2290Question →

Arrange the following key policy milestones related to India's industrial sector and external trade governance in chronological order from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Adoption of the first Industrial Policy Resolution (1948), followed by the Enactment of the MRTP Act (1969), the Introduction of the Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System (1992), and finally the Passage of the Special Economic Zones Act (2005).

The correct sequence follows the historic evolution of economic governance: 1948 (First Industrial Policy Resolution) → 1969 (MRTP Act enactment) → 1992 (Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System introduced following 1991 reforms) → 2005 (SEZ Act passed by Parliament).

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the historical year of the Industrial Policy Resolution.

India adopted its first Industrial Policy Resolution in April 1948, laying the foundation for a mixed economy.

Establishing the baseline for early post-independence industrial governance.

Identify the year of the MRTP Act enactment.

The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act was enacted in 1969.

This act regulated large business houses and licensing during the planned economy period.

Identify the year of the Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS).

LERMS was introduced in March 1992 as part of the post-1991 BoP crisis reforms.

It introduced a dual exchange rate regime paving the way for market-determined rates.

Identify the year of the Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Act.

The SEZ Act was passed by Parliament in May 2005 (coming into effect in February 2006).

It provided statutory backing to the SEZ policy introduced earlier in 2000.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of industrial policies and external trade mechanisms in India.

Question 2291Question →

Match the rural settlement types in India listed under List-I with their corresponding spatial and social characteristics in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Clustered Settlements correspond to compact and closely built dwellings in fertile alluvial plains; Semi-clustered Settlements correspond to spatial segregation forced by social dynamics in regions like Gujarat; Hamleted Settlements correspond to units fragmented into local habitations like Panna or Nagla; Dispersed Settlements correspond to isolated huts scattered over hilly and forested terrains.

Rural settlements in India are categorized based on physical terrain, water availability, defense, and social structure into four major types. Clustered settlements feature dense, compact housing units. Semi-clustered settlements exhibit segregation of castes or social groups around a main cluster. Hamleted settlements are divided into physically separate micro-units known locally as Panna, Para, or Nagla. Dispersed settlements consist of isolated homesteads across remote hills and forests.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the structural definition of Clustered Settlements

Recognize that compact, closely built housing units in alluvial plains represent clustered settlements.

Fertile plains encourage high population concentration and close-knit village structures.

Differentiate Semi-clustered from Hamleted Settlements based on socio-spatial factors

Associate socio-caste segregation in Gujarat plains with semi-clustered settlements and local naming units (Panna, Para, Nagla) with hamleted settlements.

Semi-clustering stems from social exclusion within a single village boundary, whereas hamleted forms reflect physical fragmentation across agricultural or riverine landscapes.

Match Dispersed Settlements to physical terrain features

Link isolated scattered huts with rugged, forested, and hilly environments of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, and Himachal Pradesh.

Difficult topography prevents continuous habitation and forces isolated land-holding dwellings.

Key Concept

Types and spatial distribution of rural settlements in India

Question 2292Question →

Match the following constitutional proposals and initiatives during the Indian freedom struggle with their corresponding key provisions or features:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

August Offer (1940) matches with immediate expansion of the Viceroy's Executive Council and War Advisory Council; Cripps Mission (1942) matches with post-war Constituent Assembly and provincial opt-out clause; Desai-Liaquat Proposals (1945) match with equal Congress and Muslim League representation in the central executive; Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) matches with rejection of sovereign Pakistan and three-tiered provincial grouping system.

The August Offer (1940) sought to expand the Executive Council and establish a War Advisory Council. The Cripps Mission (1942) introduced the post-war Constituent Assembly along with a provincial option to abstain from the Union. The Desai-Liaquat Pact (1945) sought parity between Congress and League nominees in the interim executive. The Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) rejected a sovereign Pakistan in favor of a three-tiered federal grouping structure.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the main feature of the August Offer (1940).

Identify that Lord Linlithgow announced the expansion of the Executive Council and the War Advisory Council.

This was the British government's attempt to secure Indian cooperation during World War II.

Examine the Cripps Mission (1942) provisions.

Identify the post-war Constituent Assembly proposal and the option for provinces to remain outside the Union.

This non-adherence clause was a key departure from earlier constitutional schemes.

Review the draft terms of the Desai-Liaquat Pact (1945).

Identify the parity clause for Congress and Muslim League nominees in the central executive.

It aimed to break the political deadlock between the Congress and the League before the Simla Conference.

Identify the primary constitutional plan presented by the Cabinet Mission (1946).

Identify the three-tier structure (Groups A, B, C) and the rejection of an independent Pakistan.

The mission sought to preserve the unity of India while granting autonomy to Muslim-majority sections.

Key Concept

Constitutional Proposals and Plans for Transfer of Power (1940–1946)

Question 2293Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the statutory framework and operational procedure of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) in India:

1. It is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, for the effective disposal of cases relating to environmental protection.
2. The Tribunal is strictly bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, rather than principles of natural justice.
3. The Chairperson of the Tribunal is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The National Green Tribunal is a specialized statutory body established under the NGT Act, 2010. Its Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 19 of the NGT Act explicitly provides that the Tribunal is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but is guided by principles of natural justice.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate statement 1 regarding the statutory origin of the NGT.

Statement 1 is correct.

The National Green Tribunal was created as a statutory body pursuant to the enactment of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.

Evaluate statement 2 regarding procedural rules governing NGT hearings.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

As per Section 19(1) of the NGT Act, 2010, the Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but is guided by principles of natural justice.

Evaluate statement 3 regarding the appointment mechanism of the NGT Chairperson.

Statement 3 is correct.

Under Section 6 of the NGT Act, 2010, the Chairperson of the NGT is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

Key Concept

National Green Tribunal (NGT) statutory mandate, procedural rules, and appointment mechanism

Estimated Time:1m 0s

Question 2294Question →

Which of the following statements regarding human infectious diseases and their causative pathogens are correct?

Select all that apply

Tuberculosis is caused by a bacterial pathogen that primarily affects the respiratory system.

Dengue fever is a viral infection transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes.

Cholera is caused by a protozoan parasite transmitted through contaminated drinking water.

Typhoid fever is a viral disease transmitted through air droplets from infected individuals.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Tuberculosis is caused by a bacterial pathogen that primarily affects the respiratory system.; Dengue fever is a viral infection transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes.

Answer

The statements identifying Tuberculosis as a bacterial disease and Dengue as a viral vector-borne disease are correct.

Tuberculosis is accurately identified as a bacterial disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Dengue fever is correctly identified as a viral disease transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the statement regarding Tuberculosis

Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which typically attacks the lungs. Thus, this statement is correct.

Correct classification of the pathogen as bacterial.

Analyze the statement regarding Dengue fever

Dengue is a arboviral infection transmitted by Aedes aegypti mosquitoes. Thus, this statement is correct.

Correct classification of Dengue as viral and its vector as Aedes.

Analyze the statements regarding Cholera and Typhoid

Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae (not a protozoan), and Typhoid is caused by the bacterium Salmonella Typhi (transmitted food/water-borne, not air-borne). Both statements are incorrect.

Identification of pathogen and transmission misclassifications.

Key Concept

Classification of Human Infectious Diseases by Pathogen Type (Bacterial vs. Viral vs. Protozoan)

Question 2295Question →

Under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 in India, what is the specified monthly entitlement of foodgrains per person for Priority Households at subsidized prices?

5 kg per person per month

35 kg per person per month

10 kg per person per month

15 kg per person per month

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 5 kg per person per month

Answer

Under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, Priority Households are entitled to receive 5 kg of foodgrains per person per month at subsidized prices.

According to the provisions of the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, beneficiaries under the Priority Households category are legally entitled to receive 5 kg of foodgrains per person per month at subsidized rates through the Targeted Public Distribution System.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the beneficiary classification under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013.

The Act classifies eligible beneficiaries into two primary categories: Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households and Priority Households (PHH).

Different entitlements apply to each category under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).

Recall the legal entitlement specified for Priority Households.

Under Section 3(1) of the Act, persons belonging to Priority Households are entitled to 5 kg of foodgrains per person per month.

This establishes an individual-based entitlement structure for Priority Households, whereas AAY households receive a household-based allocation of 35 kg per month.

Key Concept

National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013 Entitlements

Estimated Time:45s

Question 2296Question →

Match the regional physiographic features of India listed in Column I with their corresponding geological or geomorphological descriptions in Column II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Patlands match with high flat-topped basaltic tablelands in the Chota Nagpur Plateau; Chos match with ephemeral seasonal torrents causing severe gully erosion in the Siwalik foothills; Barchans match with crescent-shaped mobile sand dunes formed by wind action in the Thar Desert; Duars match with foothill alluvial floodplains serving as natural gateways to the Eastern Himalayas.

Each physiographic feature is paired accurately with its unique geographic description: Patlands correspond to high basaltic plateaus in Chota Nagpur, Chos to gullied seasonal streams in the Siwaliks, Barchans to crescent sand dunes in Rajasthan, and Duars to the alluvial foothill gateways of the Eastern Himalayas.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the landforms of the Peninsular Plateau and Northern Mountains.

Patlands represent elevated plateau remnants in the Chota Nagpur region, while Duars are foothill alluvial plains in North Bengal.

Regional physiographic terminology specifies distinct structural origins across Indian relief zones.

Analyze the erosional and depositional features of the Desert and Sub-Himalayan zones.

Barchans are aeolian sand features of the Thar Desert, whereas Chos are water-eroded gulley systems in the Siwaliks.

Evaluating geomorphic processes distinguishes wind-driven arid landforms from fluvial sub-Himalayan torrents.

Key Concept

Regional Physiographic Landforms and Micro-Relief Features of India

Question 2297Question →

Match the everyday physical phenomena and devices in List-I with their underlying physics principles in List-II, and select the correct matching pairs:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct pairings link: optical fiber transmission with total internal reflection; earthenware pitcher cooling with latent heat absorption during surface evaporation; thin oil film colors with thin-film optical wave interference; and SONAR underwater mapping with acoustic wave reflection.

Each phenomenon is matched strictly to its core physics principle: total internal reflection keeps light confined inside telecommunication fibers; evaporative cooling extracts latent heat to lower water temperature in porous vessels; thin-film wave interference produces iridescence on oil slicks; and acoustic wave reflection enables distance calculations in SONAR navigation.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the principle behind optical fiber data transmission.

Optical fibers require light signals to stay contained inside the glass core without escaping, which is achieved by total internal reflection at the core-cladding interface.

Light striking the boundary at an angle greater than the critical angle undergoes complete reflection back into the denser core.

Examine the thermodynamics of water cooling in an earthenware pitcher.

Water seeps through pores to the exterior where it undergoes phase change into vapor, absorbing latent heat of vaporization from the body of water.

Evaporation is a cooling process because escaping high-energy molecules reduce the mean kinetic energy of the remaining liquid.

Investigate the optical mechanism responsible for colorful oil slicks.

Light reflected from the upper surface of the oil film combines with light reflected from the lower oil-water interface, undergoing thin-film interference.

Depending on film thickness and wavelength, specific colors experience constructive interference while others undergo destructive interference.

Identify the acoustic mechanism utilized in SONAR systems.

SONAR devices emit ultrasonic pulses and detect reflected echoes returning from submerged surfaces.

Knowing the speed of sound in seawater and measuring echo return time yields precise distance measurements via wave reflection principles.

Key Concept

Everyday Applications of Wave Optics, Acoustic Reflection, and Thermal Phase Transitions

Question 2298Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the inaugural session of the Indian National Congress held in December 1885:

1. The session was originally scheduled to take place in Poona, but the venue was shifted to Bombay due to an outbreak of cholera.
2. Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee presided over the session, which was attended by 72 delegates from across India.
3. Surendranath Banerjea was appointed as the first General Secretary of the Indian National Congress during this session.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The statement option indicating that only statements 1 and 2 are correct is the right answer.

The option stating '1 and 2 only' is correct because the inaugural session of the INC was held in Bombay at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College from December 28 to 31, 1885, after being relocated from Poona due to cholera. W.C. Bonnerjee presided over the session of 72 delegates. Allan Octavian Hume, not Surendranath Banerjea, served as the General Secretary.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the venue shift of the first INC session.

Statement 1 is correct.

The inaugural session was planned to be held at Poona, but due to an outbreak of cholera in Poona, the venue was shifted to Bombay at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College.

Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the president and attendance of the session.

Statement 2 is correct.

Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee was elected as the President of the first session, which was attended by 72 prominent political representatives.

Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the organizational role of Surendranath Banerjea.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Allan Octavian Hume served as the General Secretary. Surendranath Banerjea was unable to attend the inaugural session in Bombay because he was presiding over the second session of the Indian National Conference in Calcutta at the exact same time.

Key Concept

Foundational details and leadership of the first session of the Indian National Congress (1885)

Estimated Time:1m 0s

Question 2299Question →

With reference to infectious human diseases and their causative microorganisms, consider the following pairs:

1. Kala-azar — Protozoa
2. Dengue — Bacterium
3. African Sleeping Sickness �� Virus
4. Tuberculosis — Bacterium

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1 and 4 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4 only

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 4 only

Answer

1 and 4 only

Pairs 1 and 4 are accurate. Kala-azar is a protozoan disease caused by Leishmania donovani, while Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Dengue is caused by a virus and Sleeping Sickness is caused by a protozoan parasite, making pairs 2 and 3 incorrect.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze pair 1 (Kala-azar — Protozoa)

Correctly matched

Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) is caused by protozoan parasites of the species Leishmania donovani transmitted by sandflies.

Analyze pair 2 (Dengue — Bacterium)

Incorrectly matched

Dengue is a viral infection caused by the Dengue virus (DENV) transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes.

Analyze pair 3 (African Sleeping Sickness — Virus)

Incorrectly matched

African Sleeping Sickness (Human African Trypanosomiasis) is caused by microscopic protozoan parasites of the species Trypanosoma brucei.

Analyze pair 4 (Tuberculosis — Bacterium)

Correctly matched

Tuberculosis is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Key Concept

Classification of Human Infectious Diseases by Causative Pathogen Types

Question 2300Question →

Match the types of inflation and price dynamics listed in List-I with their corresponding macroeconomic characteristics listed in List-II. Which of the following pairings correctly aligns each inflation type with its defining mechanism?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Skewflation pairs with persistent price surges in a specific sector (right_2); Bottleneck Inflation pairs with structural supply chain disruptions (right_1); Core Inflation pairs with underlying price trends excluding food and energy (right_3); Repressed Inflation pairs with artificial price stability maintained via price controls (right_4).

Each inflation type is mapped accurately based on its underlying macroeconomic cause and measurement approach: Skewflation represents sectorally uneven price rise; Bottleneck Inflation is caused by supply interruptions; Core Inflation measures non-volatile price trends; and Repressed Inflation is caused by price control policies.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze 'Skewflation'

Identify that skewflation denotes asymmetrical price movements across sectors, matching persistent price surges concentrated in a single commodity group while others remain stable.

The prefix 'skew' refers to the uneven, skewed distribution of price increases.

Analyze 'Bottleneck Inflation'

Match with structural supply chain failures choking supply while aggregate demand stays unchanged.

Bottlenecks reflect physical or operational constraints in supply pipelines.

Analyze 'Core Inflation'

Match with underlying price trend calculation excluding volatile food and fuel items.

Core inflation is intended to capture stable, persistent monetary dynamics.

Analyze 'Repressed Inflation'

Match with administrative price caps and statutory controls masking real market demand pressures.

Repression implies intervention that suppresses visible price signals.

Key Concept

Classification of Inflation Dynamics and Price Controls

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