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Question 2301Question →

Match the everyday physical phenomena listed under List-I with their corresponding underlying physics principles listed under List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Spherical shape of small falling raindrops
Transmission of light signals through optical fibers
Change in pitch of a siren as an ambulance passes by
Operation of hydraulic braking systems in automobiles

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Spherical shape of falling raindrops matches with Surface tension; Transmission of light signals through optical fibers matches with Total internal reflection; Change in pitch of a siren matches with Doppler effect; Operation of hydraulic braking systems matches with Pascal's law.
Each listed phenomenon directly pairs with its underlying fundamental physical principle: drop curvature relates to surface tension, fiber optic signal propagation relies on total internal reflection, siren pitch variations depend on the Doppler effect, and hydraulic force transmission relies on Pascal's law.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the physical principle behind the spherical shape of raindrops.
Unbalanced cohesive forces at the liquid-air interface create surface tension, causing drops to pull into minimum surface area (spherical shape).
This links fluid surface dynamics with droplet geometry.
2
Identify the physical principle governing signal transmission in optical fibers.
Light entering the core at an angle greater than the critical angle undergoes repeated total internal reflection with minimal loss.
This links light propagation inside bounded media with wave optics.
3
Identify the acoustic phenomenon caused by moving sound sources like sirens.
Relative motion compresses or expands wave fronts, altering perceived pitch via the Doppler effect.
This links wave kinematics with frequency perception.
4
Identify the mechanical principle utilized in hydraulic vehicle brakes.
Fluid pressure applied at a master cylinder is transmitted uniformly throughout fluid lines to wheel cylinders following Pascal's law.
This links force amplification in enclosed fluids with fluid mechanics.

Key Concept

Everyday applications of fundamental physics principles across fluid mechanics, optics, and wave acoustics.
Question 2302Question →

With reference to the Council of Ministers in the Union Executive of India, which of the following statements accurately specifies the constitutional limitation on the maximum size of the Union Council of Ministers?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha), as mandated by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.

Answer

The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha, introduced by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
The provision capping the size of the Union Council of Ministers was added to Article 75 by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003. It stipulates that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the relevant Article and Amendment regarding the size limit of the Council of Ministers.
Article 75 of the Constitution was amended by adding clause (1A) through the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
This amendment was enacted to curb oversized cabinets and excessive government expenditure.
2
Examine the specific numerical limit and denominator specified in Article 75(1A).
The clause sets a ceiling of 15% of the total membership of the House of the People (Lok Sabha), explicitly stating that the Prime Minister is included within this count.
The limitation is anchored exclusively to the lower house (Lok Sabha) to which the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible.

Key Concept

Size limitation of the Union Council of Ministers under Article 75(1A) via the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2303Question →

With reference to the official methodology of poverty estimation in India, consider the following statements:

1. The C. Rangarajan Committee (2014) proposed poverty lines based on nutritional norms including protein and fat intake in addition to calories, alongside essential non-food expenses.
2. The Suresh Tendulkar Committee (2009) moved away from the uniform calorie anchor and used implicit private expenditure on health and education to determine poverty lines.
3. The National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) published by NITI Aayog relies primarily on the Household Consumer Expenditure Survey conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
The statement combination containing 1 and 2 only is correct. The Rangarajan Committee incorporated a comprehensive nutritional basket (calories, proteins, and fats) along with essential non-food components. The Tendulkar Committee abandoned the strict calorie anchor used by the Alagh and Lakdawala committees, adjusting the poverty line to reflect expenditure on health and education. Statement 3 is false because NITI Aayog utilizes National Family Health Survey (NFHS) data for computing the National MPI across health, education, and standard of living dimensions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding C. Rangarajan Committee (2014)
Statement 1 is correct.
The Rangarajan Committee revised the poverty estimation framework by establishing nutritional requirements based on ICMR norms (2090 kcal, 48g protein, and 28g fat per day for rural; 2036 kcal, 50g protein, and 26g fat per day for urban) along with normative non-food expenses.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Suresh Tendulkar Committee (2009)
Statement 2 is correct.
The Tendulkar Committee shifted away from the traditional anchor of explicit calorie norms (2400 kcal rural / 2100 kcal urban) and used uniform price baskets that incorporated actual private spending on health and education.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding NITI Aayog's National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)
Statement 3 is incorrect.
NITI Aayog's National MPI is derived using the Alkire-Foster methodology based on micro-data from the National Family Health Survey (NFHS), not the NSSO Household Consumer Expenditure Survey.

Key Concept

Methodological differences between Expert Committees (Tendulkar, Rangarajan) and data sources for Multidimensional Poverty Index in India.
Question 2304Question →

Under the monetary policy framework of the Reserve Bank of India, what fundamental operational feature distinguishes the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) from the traditional Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) Reverse Repo mechanism when absorbing excess system liquidity?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Standing Deposit Facility enables the central bank to absorb surplus liquidity without pledging government securities as collateral.

Answer

The Standing Deposit Facility enables the central bank to absorb surplus liquidity without pledging government securities as collateral.
The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) allows the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to absorb liquidity from commercial banks without transferring government securities as collateral. Unlike the traditional Reverse Repo facility where RBI pledges G-Secs, SDF removes collateral constraints, enabling flexible and large-scale liquidity absorption.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary purpose of the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) introduced by the RBI in 2022.
SDF was introduced under Section 17 of the RBI Act, 1934, as a liquidity management tool to absorb liquidity from the commercial banking system.
Understanding the function of monetary tools helps distinguish overnight standing facilities from open market operations.
2
Compare the collateral requirements of Reverse Repo versus Standing Deposit Facility.
Under Reverse Repo, RBI must provide government securities (G-Secs) to banks as collateral. Under SDF, no collateral is required from RBI.
Uncollateralized absorption prevents RBI's G-Sec holdings from limiting its capacity to manage massive surplus liquidity in the financial system.
3
Verify the positioning of SDF within the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor.
SDF replaced the fixed-rate reverse repo as the floor of the LAF corridor at Repo Rate minus 25 basis points.
This establishes the lower bound of overnight interest rates while MSF forms the upper bound.

Key Concept

Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) vs Reverse Repo collateralization mechanism
Question 2305Question →

Match the blood cell types listed in List-I with their primary physiological functions listed in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Plasma Cells

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Neutrophils pair with rapid phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens; Eosinophils pair with defense against multicellular parasites and modulation of allergic responses; Basophils pair with release of histamine and heparin during inflammatory reactions; Plasma cells pair with secretion of specific antibodies for humoral immunity.
Each leukocyte type possesses distinct morphological features and physiological responsibilities: Neutrophils act primarily as rapid bacterial phagocytes, Eosinophils combat parasitic infections and modulate allergic mediators, Basophils secrete histamine and heparin during inflammatory cascades, and Plasma cells produce circulating antibodies responsible for adaptive humoral immunity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the physiological function of Neutrophils.
Neutrophils are granulocytes specialized in acute bacterial phagocytosis.
They are the most abundant white blood cells and arrive first at infection sites.
2
Analyze the functional role of Eosinophils.
Eosinophils target parasitic organisms and regulate histamine levels.
Their granules contain major basic protein and histaminase targeting helminths and allergic reactions.
3
Analyze the functional role of Basophils.
Basophils mediate inflammatory responses through histamine and heparin release.
They share functional similarities with tissue mast cells in hypersensitivity pathways.
4
Analyze the functional role of Plasma Cells.
Plasma cells secrete immunoglobulins (antibodies).
They derive from activated B lymphocytes and drive humoral adaptive immunity.

Key Concept

Leukocyte Functional Specialization in Human Immune Physiology
Question 2306Question →

With reference to the statutory framework governing the Central Information Commission (CIC) under the Right to Information Act, 2005, consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a statutory selection committee.
2. The selection committee includes the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
3. The Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice is a mandatory member of this selection committee.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Chief Justice of India is not a member of the Selection Committee for the Central Information Commission.
The choice stating '1 and 2 only' is correct. Under Section 12(3) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. The Chief Justice of India is not a member of this selection panel.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding appointing authority
Under Section 12(3) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a designated committee. Statement 1 is correct.
Identify statutory appointment authority provisions.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Selection Committee composition
Section 12(3) explicitly mandates a three-member committee: (i) Prime Minister (Chairperson), (ii) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and (iii) A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. Statement 2 is correct.
Verify exact members prescribed by the RTI Act.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding judicial representation
Unlike the Selection Committees for NHRC or Lokpal, the Chief Justice of India (or a nominee) is NOT part of the Selection Committee for the Central Information Commission. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Differentiate CIC appointment committee rules from NHRC/Lokpal judicial inclusion requirements.

Key Concept

Selection Committee Composition for Central Information Commission under RTI Act, 2005
Question 2307Question →

When a thin film of oil spreads over water on a road surface, vibrant multi-colored patterns are observed under sunlight. A candidate preparing for a competitive examination confuses this optical effect with the mechanism that causes the clear sky to appear blue. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the physical principle responsible for the oil film's colorful appearance and distinguishes it from the blue sky phenomenon?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The colorful patterns on the oil film are caused by thin-film wave interference between light reflected from the upper and lower boundaries of the oil layer, whereas the blue sky is caused by Rayleigh scattering of sunlight by atmospheric gas molecules.

Answer

The colorful patterns on the oil film are caused by thin-film wave interference between light reflected from the upper and lower boundaries of the oil layer, whereas the blue sky is caused by Rayleigh scattering of sunlight by atmospheric gas molecules.
The correct response correctly identifies that light reflecting from both the upper (air-oil) and lower (oil-water) boundaries of a thin oil film undergoes wave interference, producing colorful spectral fringes. In contrast, the blue sky is caused by Rayleigh scattering, where air molecules selectively scatter shorter blue wavelengths of sunlight in all directions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the optical mechanism of thin oil films on water
Sunlight strikes the top surface of the thin oil film. Part of the light reflects off the top boundary (air-oil interface), while the rest transmits through the film and reflects off the bottom boundary (oil-water interface).
When these two reflected light waves recombine, they undergo constructive or destructive interference depending on the film thickness and wavelength of light, creating rainbow-like interference patterns.
2
Analyze the optical mechanism responsible for the blue appearance of the daytime sky
Sunlight entering Earth's atmosphere collides with air molecules (N2,O2N_2, O_2) whose sizes are much smaller than the wavelength of visible light.
According to Rayleigh scattering law, scattered intensity I∝1λ4I \propto \frac{1}{\lambda^4}. Shorter blue wavelengths scatter much more efficiently than longer red wavelengths, filling the sky with diffuse blue light.
3
Compare the two phenomena to select the correct choice
Oil film colors stem from wave superposition (thin-film interference), whereas sky color stems from elastic scattering by small particles (Rayleigh scattering).
Differentiating superposition phenomena from scattering processes eliminates all distractor options.

Key Concept

Thin-Film Interference vs. Rayleigh Scattering
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2308Question →

In the urban geography and demographic framework of India, urban settlements are broadly classified into Statutory Towns and Census Towns. Which of the following sets of demographic and economic criteria accurately defines a 'Census Town' as per the Census of India?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A minimum population of 5,0005,000, at least 75%75\% of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits, and a population density of at least 400 persons per sq. km400\text{ persons per sq. km}.

Answer

A settlement in India is identified as a Census Town if it meets three specific criteria: a minimum population of 5,0005,000, at least 75%75\% of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural activities, and a population density of at least 400 persons per sq. km400\text{ persons per sq. km}.
The correct answer accurately reflects the three-fold demographic test applied by the Census of India to designate a rural area as a 'Census Town': a minimum population of 5,0005,000, a density of at least 400 persons per sq. km400\text{ persons per sq. km}, and at least 75%75\% of the male main working population employed outside agriculture.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Distinguish between Statutory Towns and Census Towns in Indian urban geography.
Statutory Towns are places governed by urban local bodies (municipalities, corporations, notified area committees) by law, whereas Census Towns are demographically urban areas lacking statutory local self-governments.
Understanding the administrative versus demographic definition helps isolate the quantitative census criteria.
2
Evaluate the official Census of India criteria for non-statutory urban places (Census Towns).
The three mandatory conditions are: (i) Minimum population of 5,0005,000, (ii) At least 75%75\% of male main workers involved in non-agricultural sectors, and (iii) Minimum population density of 400 persons per sq. km400\text{ persons per sq. km}.
All three criteria must be simultaneously satisfied for a settlement to be classified as a Census Town.
3
Match the evaluated criteria with the options provided.
The statement specifying 5,0005,000 population, 75%75\% male main non-agricultural workers, and 400 persons per sq. km400\text{ persons per sq. km} density is correct.
This directly corresponds to the official Census definition.

Key Concept

Criteria for Classification of Census Towns in India
Question 2309Question →

Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) is a major public health concern in several regions of India. Which type of microorganism is the primary causative pathogen of Kala-azar?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Protozoan

Answer

Protozoan parasite (Leishmania donovani)
Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) is caused by the protozoan parasite *Leishmania donovani*, which is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female phlebotomine sandflies.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the disease and its biological agent.
Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) is caused by the parasite *Leishmania donovani*.
Understanding the pathogen classification helps distinguish protozoal diseases from bacterial or viral infections.
2
Classify the biological parasite category.
*Leishmania donovani* is a single-celled eukaryotic parasite belonging to the phylum Protozoa.
Categorizing microorganisms accurately is fundamental in human health and disease taxonomy.

Key Concept

Infectious Disease Pathogen Classification
Question 2310Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the administrative provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms):

1. It introduced the system of dyarchy in provincial executive administration by dividing subjects into 'Transferred' and 'Reserved' categories.
2. The 'Reserved' subjects were administered directly by the Governor with his Executive Council without accountability to the provincial legislature.
3. It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court to adjudicate constitutional disputes between provinces and the central administration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, whereas Statement 3 is incorrect.
The correct response identifies that Statements 1 and 2 are accurate reflections of the Government of India Act 1919. The 1919 Act instituted dyarchy in the provinces, separating provincial governance into 'Transferred' subjects (governed by responsible ministers) and 'Reserved' subjects (managed directly by the Governor and his Executive Council without legislative accountability). Statement 3 is false because the Federal Court of India was created pursuant to the Government of India Act 1935.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding dyarchy in provincial executive administration.
Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced dyarchy in the provinces by segregating provincial subjects into Transferred and Reserved lists.
This was the central executive reform at the provincial level under the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding accountability of Reserved subjects.
Statement 2 is correct. Reserved subjects (such as law and order, land revenue, and finance) were administered by the Governor and his Executive Council, who were not responsible to the provincial legislative council.
Transferred subjects were administered with the advice of ministers responsible to the Legislative Council, whereas Reserved subjects remained strictly under executive control.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the establishment of a Federal Court.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Federal Court of India was established under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935 (set up in 1937), not the 1919 Act.
The 1919 Act provided for a Central Public Service Commission (established in 1926) and statutory commission review after 10 years, but not a Federal Court.

Key Concept

Key features of Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2311Question →

During a quiet night, distant sounds such as train whistles or acoustic announcements are often heard much more clearly and over greater distances than during a hot afternoon. Which of the following physical phenomena primarily accounts for this atmospheric acoustic effect?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Refraction of sound waves caused by a vertical temperature gradient in the lower atmosphere

Answer

Refraction of sound waves caused by a vertical temperature gradient in the lower atmosphere
The correct answer highlights atmospheric refraction resulting from a temperature inversion. At night, the surface air cools rapidly while higher air layers remain warmer. Because sound speed increases with air temperature, the upper portion of a sound wave front travels faster than its base. This causes sound rays heading upward to curve back down toward the ground, allowing sound to cover significantly greater distances with higher intensity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze atmospheric conditions during nighttime versus daytime.
During the day, ground heating creates warmer air near the surface and cooler air above. At night, radiational cooling of the Earth makes the ground air colder than the air layer above it (temperature inversion).
Temperature distribution dictates the local speed of sound in air.
2
Relate temperature to the speed of sound.
The speed of sound in air is proportional to the square root of absolute temperature (v∝Tv \propto \sqrt{T}). Consequently, sound travels faster through warmer air layers than through colder air layers.
Wave fronts bend toward regions of lower wave speed according to Snell's law of refraction.
3
Determine the path of wave propagation at night.
As upward-moving sound wave fronts encounter warmer air higher up, the top part of the wave front moves faster than the bottom part. This differential speed bends (refracts) the acoustic wave path back downward toward the Earth's surface.
Downward refraction traps and redirects sound energy along the ground rather than letting it dissipate upward into the atmosphere.

Key Concept

Atmospheric Refraction of Sound Waves
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2312Question →

Consider the following statements regarding vector-borne human diseases:

1. Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) is caused by a protozoan parasite and is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female sandflies.
2. Lymphatic Filariasis (Elephantiasis) is a viral disease primarily transmitted by the bite of Aedes mosquitoes.
3. Japanese Encephalitis is an acute bacterial infection transmitted to humans by Culex mosquitoes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

1 only
The option stating '1 only' is correct because statement 1 accurately identifies Kala-azar as a protozoan disease transmitted by sandflies. Statement 2 incorrectly terms Lymphatic Filariasis a viral infection (it is caused by parasitic filarial worms), and statement 3 incorrectly terms Japanese Encephalitis a bacterial infection (it is caused by a virus).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Kala-azar
Statement 1 is correct.
Kala-azar (Visceral Leishmaniasis) is caused by the protozoan parasite Leishmania donovani and is transmitted through the bite of infected female Phlebotomine sandflies.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Lymphatic Filariasis
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Lymphatic Filariasis is caused by microscopic filarial nematode worms (helminths such as Wuchereria bancrofti), not viruses. It is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes of the genus Culex.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Japanese Encephalitis
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Japanese Encephalitis is caused by the Japanese Encephalitis Virus (JEV), a flavivirus, rather than a bacterial pathogen, although it is indeed transmitted by Culex mosquitoes.

Key Concept

Etiology and Vector Differentiation of Infectious Human Diseases
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2313Question →

Match the everyday physical observations in List-I with their underlying physics principles in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Spherical shape of small falling raindrops
Operation of hydraulic brakes in automobiles
Apparent twinkling of stars in the night sky
Cooling effect of water stored in an earthen pot (matka)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matching pairs are: Spherical shape of falling raindrops matches with Minimization of surface area driven by Surface Tension; Operation of hydraulic brakes matches with Equal transmission of fluid pressure according to Pascal's Law; Apparent twinkling of stars matches with Light ray deviation caused by Atmospheric Refraction; and Cooling effect of water in an earthen pot matches with Latent heat absorption during Evaporative Cooling.
Each observation directly matches its underlying physical law: surface tension minimizes surface area for raindrops; Pascal's Law governs hydraulic pressure transmission; atmospheric refraction causes stellar twinkling; and latent heat absorption during evaporation cools water in porous vessels.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the cause behind the spherical geometry of small falling liquid drops.
Cohesive intermolecular forces at the liquid surface create surface tension, minimizing the surface area into a sphere.
A sphere possesses the smallest surface-area-to-volume ratio among all geometric shapes.
2
Analyze the operational principle of hydraulic braking systems.
Force applied to the brake pedal creates pressure in the brake fluid, which is transmitted equally across the system to actuate pistons at the wheels.
According to Pascal's Law, static fluid pressure is transmitted undiminished throughout an enclosed fluid system.
3
Determine the cause of stellar scintillation (twinkling).
Starlight passes through turbulent atmospheric layers with fluctuating temperatures and optical densities, causing constant shifting of the ray paths.
Atmospheric refraction alters the apparent brightness and position of point-source light continuously.
4
Explain the thermodynamic cooling of water in porous earthen vessels.
Water seeping out through microscopic pores evaporates from the outer surface, extracting thermal energy from the pot.
Evaporation requires energy equivalent to the latent heat of vaporization, lowering the temperature of the remaining system.

Key Concept

Everyday Applications of Surface Tension, Fluid Pressure, Atmospheric Refraction, and Evaporative Cooling
Question 2314Question →

Arrange the following landmark regulatory and operational developments in the Indian banking and monetary policy system in chronological order, starting from the earliest to the most recent:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order of key Indian banking and monetary system developments is: (1) Establishment of the Reserve Bank of India (1935), followed by (2) Enactment of the Banking Regulation Act (1949), then (3) Nationalisation of 14 major commercial banks (1969), and finally (4) Formal introduction of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (2000).
The correct sequence traces the historical milestone evolution of the Indian monetary and banking framework: the Reserve Bank of India was set up in 1935, followed by the enactment of the Banking Regulation Act in 1949. Major structural social banking expansion occurred with the nationalisation of 14 commercial banks in 1969, and market-oriented liquidity management matured with the launch of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) in 2000.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the year of establishment of the Reserve Bank of India.
The RBI was established on April 1, 1935.
It established the central banking statutory architecture in India prior to independence.
2
Determine the enactment year of the Banking Regulation Act.
The Banking Companies Act was passed in 1949 (renamed the Banking Regulation Act in 1966).
This provided the post-independence legal foundation for RBI regulation of commercial banks.
3
Identify the historical year of the first major wave of bank nationalisation.
14 major commercial banks were nationalised in 1969.
This structural intervention brought credit direction under state control to expand financial inclusion and agriculture/priority sector lending.
4
Identify the period of introduction of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF).
The RBI introduced the LAF framework in June 2000.
This marked a shift from direct credit controls to market-based quantitative liquidity tools (Repo and Reverse Repo rates).

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of central banking regulatory framework and monetary control mechanisms in India
Question 2315Question →

Consider the following statements regarding certain human infectious diseases and their causative organisms:

1. Japanese Encephalitis is a viral infection transmitted to humans predominantly by vector mosquitoes belonging to the genus *Culex*.
2. Typhoid fever is a acute viral infection caused by the pathogen *Salmonella typhi*.
3. Lymphatic Filariasis is caused by parasitic filarial worms transmitted through mosquito bites.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The correct combination includes statements 1 and 3. Japanese Encephalitis is a viral encephalitic disease transmitted by *Culex* mosquitoes, and Lymphatic Filariasis is a parasitic worm infection transmitted by vector mosquitoes. Statement 2 is false because Typhoid fever is a bacterial disease caused by *Salmonella typhi*.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Japanese Encephalitis
Statement 1 is correct. Japanese Encephalitis is caused by the Japanese encephalitis virus (JEV), a flavivirus, and is transmitted to humans by bites from infected mosquitoes, primarily *Culex tritaeniorhynchus*.
Verify the pathogen category (virus) and vector group (*Culex* mosquito).
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Typhoid fever
Statement 2 is incorrect. Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium *Salmonella enterica* serovar Typhi (*Salmonella typhi*), not a virus.
Identify the biological nature of the causative microorganism (bacterium vs virus).
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Lymphatic Filariasis
Statement 3 is correct. Lymphatic Filariasis (commonly known as elephantiasis) is caused by microscopic, thread-like parasitic nematodes (such as *Wuchereria bancrofti*) transmitted by mosquitoes.
Verify the etiology of filariasis as a parasitic helminthic disease spread via mosquito vectors.

Key Concept

Etiology and Vector Transmission of Infectious Human Diseases
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2316Question →

With reference to ecological succession and ecosystem dynamics, consider the following statements:

1. Primary succession takes place on newly exposed substrates such as cooled lava flows or bare rock where no soil or organic matter previously existed.
2. Hydrarch succession occurs in aquatic or very wet environments, progressing over time toward mesic conditions.
3. The community that initially colonizes an uninhabited bare area during primary succession is known as the climax community.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The correct answer is statements 1 and 2 only.
Statements 1 and 2 accurately describe primary succession on bare substrates and the directional transition of hydrarch succession from hydric to mesic environments. Statement 3 is false because pioneer species, not climax species, are the first to colonize bare areas.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding primary ecological succession.
Statement 1 is correct. Primary succession occurs on previously uncolonized land surfaces (such as sand dunes, retreating glaciers, or cooled volcanic lava) where organic soil has not yet formed.
Primary succession requires pioneer organisms (like lichens) to weather rock and begin soil synthesis.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding hydrarch succession.
Statement 2 is correct. Hydrarch succession starts in water bodies (hydric state) and gradually converts the aquatic habitat through seral stages into a stable land forest community (mesic state).
Both hydrarch and xerarch succession ultimately lead to medium-moisture (mesic) conditions.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding colonizing organisms.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The first species to invade a bare area are pioneer species (e.g., lichens, mosses), not climax communities.
A climax community is the final, mature, equilibrium state reached at the end of ecological succession, remaining stable until disturbed.

Key Concept

Ecological Succession Stages and Terminology
Question 2317Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Adjournment Motion in the Indian Parliament:
1. It requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted in the Lok Sabha.
2. It can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
3. The discussion on an adjournment motion must last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
The option stating '1 and 3 only' is correct. An adjournment motion is an extraordinary device introduced in the Lok Sabha to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. It requires the support of 50 members to be admitted. Furthermore, because it interrupts the regular business of the House, the debate on this motion must run for a minimum duration of two hours and thirty minutes. It cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha because it carries an element of censure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding admission threshold for Adjournment Motion.
Statement 1 is correct. Under Rule 56 of Lok Sabha Rules, an adjournment motion requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted.
This requirement ensures that parliamentary business is interrupted only for matters supported by a significant number of members.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding applicability across Houses of Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect. An adjournment motion involves an element of censure against the Council of Ministers, making it exclusively available in the Lok Sabha.
Rajya Sabha is not allowed to use this device as the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the duration of discussion.
Statement 3 is correct. The debate on an adjournment motion must last for not less than 2 hours and 30 minutes.
This minimum duration guarantees adequate deliberation on an urgent matter of public importance.

Key Concept

Adjournment Motion and procedural rules of Union Legislature
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2318Question →

Which national agency is designated under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 to serve as the national nodal agency for performing cybersecurity incident response functions in India?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In)

Answer

Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In)
Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 designates the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology as the national nodal agency for cybersecurity functions such as incident response, vulnerability reporting, and cyber threat alerts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the specific legal provision mentioned in the question.
The question refers to Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
Section 70B explicitly outlines the statutory mandate for cyber incident handling in India.
2
Recall the designated statutory body appointed under Section 70B.
The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) is designated as the national nodal agency.
CERT-In is tasked with collecting, analyzing, and disseminating information on cyber incidents.

Key Concept

Statutory Nodal Agency for Cybersecurity under IT Act 2000
Question 2319Question →

Epidemiological surveillance relies on precisely categorizing pathogen types and their transmission vectors. Which of the following statements correctly describe the etiology and transmission dynamics of human infectious diseases?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Bubonic plague is a bacterial infection caused by Yersinia pestis, primarily transmitted to humans through the bites of infected oriental rat fleas (Xenopsylla cheopis).; Epidemic typhus is caused by the bacterium Rickettsia prowazekii and is vector-transmitted to humans by the human body louse (Pediculus humanus humanus).

Answer

The correct statements are the ones describing Bubonic plague as a bacterial infection transmitted by rat fleas, and Epidemic typhus as a bacterial infection caused by Rickettsia prowazekii transmitted by the human body louse.
The statements describing Bubonic plague and Epidemic typhus are scientifically accurate. Bubonic plague is caused by the Gram-negative bacterium Yersinia pestis and spread by the rat flea Xenopsylla cheopis. Epidemic typhus is caused by the obligate intracellular bacterium Rickettsia prowazekii, transmitted by the human body louse Pediculus humanus humanus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement regarding Bubonic plague.
Bubonic plague is correctly identified as a bacterial disease caused by Yersinia pestis and vector-transmitted by rat fleas (Xenopsylla cheopis).
This aligns with pathogen and vector taxonomy.
2
Evaluate the statement regarding Brucellosis.
Brucellosis is incorrectly classified as a mosquito-borne protozoan disease.
Brucellosis is a bacterial infection (Brucella spp.) spread via raw dairy products or exposure to fluids of infected livestock.
3
Evaluate the statement regarding Epidemic typhus.
Epidemic typhus is correctly identified as a rickettsial bacterial infection transmitted by the body louse.
Rickettsia prowazekii is transmitted when louse feces are rubbed into vector bite wounds or mucous membranes.
4
Evaluate the statement regarding Malaria.
Malaria is incorrectly described as a waterborne bacterial lymphatic infection.
Malaria is caused by protozoans (Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, etc.) transmitted vectorially by female Anopheles mosquitoes.

Key Concept

Classification of human infectious diseases by pathogen domain (bacterium vs. protozoan) and primary transmission vectors.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2320Question →

Consider the following statements regarding ecological succession and biogeochemical nutrient cycles:

1. Hydrarch succession occurs in aquatic environments and progresses from hydric conditions towards mesic conditions.
2. Biological nitrogen fixation by *Rhizobium* directly converts atmospheric nitrogen (N2N_2) into nitrate (NO3−NO_3^-) in a single enzymatic step.
3. In xerarch succession on bare rocks, lichens serve as pioneer species by secreting organic acids that accelerate rock weathering and initiate soil formation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct
The correct answer includes Statements 1 and 3. Hydrarch succession originates in aquatic habitats and moves towards a balanced mesic state. Lichens initiate xerarch succession on rocks via acid secretion and weathering. Statement 2 is false because biological nitrogen fixation yields ammonia (NH3NH_3/NH4+NH_4^+), which must undergo nitrification by *Nitrosomonas* and *Nitrobacter* to become nitrate (NO3−NO_3^-).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding hydrarch succession
Statement 1 is correct. Ecological succession starting in water bodies (hydrarch) proceeds from hydric conditions (wet environment) to mesic conditions (medium moisture environment), culminating in a climax forest community.
Both hydrarch and xerarch successions naturally lead to medium water (mesic) conditions regardless of the starting environment.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding nitrogen cycle pathways
Statement 2 is incorrect. Nitrogenase enzymes in symbiotic nitrogen fixers like *Rhizobium* convert atmospheric dinitrogen (N2N_2) into ammonia (NH3NH_3) or ammonium (NH4+NH_4^+), not nitrate (NO3−NO_3^-). Nitrification by nitrifying bacteria (*Nitrosomonas* converting ammonia to nitrite, and *Nitrobacter* converting nitrite to nitrate) is required subsequently to form nitrate.
Direct conversion of N2N_2 to NO3−NO_3^- in a single step does not occur during biological nitrogen fixation.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding xerarch pioneer species
Statement 3 is correct. Crustose lichens are pioneer species on bare rock (xerarch succession). They produce carbonic and organic acids that erode rock surfaces, capturing dust particles to build up thin soil layers for bryophytes.
Chemical weathering induced by lichens is essential for soil formation on bare rocky substrates.

Key Concept

Mechanisms of Ecological Succession (Hydrarch/Xerarch) and Nitrogen Cycle Steps
Estimated Time:2m 0s
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