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Question 2461Question →

Arrange the main stages of mitotic cell division in eukaryotic cells in the correct chronological order from beginning to end:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological order of mitosis stages is Prophase, followed by Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase.
Mitosis proceeds in four main sequential phases: Prophase (condensation of chromatin and disintegration of the nuclear membrane), Metaphase (alignment of chromosomes at the cell equator), Anaphase (separation of sister chromatids to opposite poles), and Telophase (re-formation of nuclear membranes around daughter nuclei).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the initial phase of nuclear division.
Prophase is selected as the first stage.
Chromosomes must condense and the nuclear envelope disintegrates to allow spindle attachment.
2
Identify the phase of alignment.
Metaphase is selected as the second stage.
Spindle fibers align chromosomes along the metaphase plate.
3
Identify the phase of chromatid separation.
Anaphase is selected as the third stage.
Sister chromatids are pulled apart toward opposite poles of the cell.
4
Identify the final phase of nuclear reformation.
Telophase is selected as the fourth stage.
Decondensing chromosomes are enclosed by new nuclear membranes.

Key Concept

Chronological stages of Mitosis
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2462Question →

With reference to beneficial microorganisms used as bio-fertilizers in agriculture, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

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Answer: Rhizobium forms a symbiotic association with leguminous plants to fix atmospheric nitrogen.; Azotobacter is a free-living, non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacterium found in aerobic soils.

Answer

The statements confirming Rhizobium's symbiotic nitrogen fixation in legumes and Azotobacter's free-living nitrogen fixation in soils are correct.
Rhizobium forms symbiotic root nodules with legumes to convert atmospheric nitrogen into plant-usable forms, while Azotobacter operates as a free-living nitrogen fixer in soil. Both statements correctly describe their bio-fertilizing roles.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the symbiotic nitrogen fixer among bio-fertilizers.
Rhizobium establishes symbiotic root nodule associations with leguminous crops to fix atmospheric nitrogen.
This is a key biological nitrogen fixation process in agriculture.
2
Identify free-living nitrogen-fixing soil bacteria.
Azotobacter fixes atmospheric nitrogen freely without symbiotic root attachment.
It improves soil nitrogen levels independently in aerobic soil conditions.
3
Evaluate the roles of Azospirillum and Mycorrhizae.
Azospirillum is a beneficial associative bacterium, and Mycorrhizae are symbiotic fungi that enhance phosphate uptake, not pathogens or parasitic bacteria.
Both are bio-fertilizing organisms, not crop pathogens or parasitic bacteria.

Key Concept

Classification and biological functions of bio-fertilizers
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2463Question →

Match List-I (Cybersecurity Concepts and Legal Provisions) with List-II (Core Features and Operational Principles) and select the correct matching pairs.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Section 66F of Information Technology Act, 2000
Homomorphic Encryption
DNS Amplification Attack
Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA)

Matches

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Answer

The correct matching pairs Section 66F of the Information Technology Act, 2000 with statutory penalties for cyber terrorism affecting national sovereignty; Homomorphic Encryption with performing operations on ciphertexts without decryption; DNS Amplification Attack with exploiting open resolvers using spoofed IP addresses for DDoS traffic amplification; and Zero Trust Architecture with continuous authentication under the 'never trust, always verify' security model.
The correct pairings align each cybersecurity term and legal provision with its exact technical or statutory definition: Section 66F penalizes cyber terrorism against national security; Homomorphic Encryption enables computation over ciphertexts without prior decryption; DNS Amplification exploits open resolvers via spoofed requests to flood target systems; and Zero Trust Architecture eliminates implicit perimeter trust by enforcing continuous authentication.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the legal scope of Section 66F of the IT Act, 2000.
Section 66F focuses on Cyber Terrorism against national security, unity, and sovereign electronic infrastructure.
State PSC exams frequently test specific sections of the Indian IT Act, particularly provisions related to cyber terrorism (66F), privacy (66E), and identity theft (66C).
2
Evaluate the technical definition of Homomorphic Encryption.
Connect Homomorphic Encryption to performing computations on encrypted data without decrypting it first.
This cryptographic technique is essential for secure cloud computing and privacy-preserving data analytics.
3
Analyze the attack mechanism of DNS Amplification.
Associate DNS Amplification with reflection-based DDoS attacks using open recursive resolvers and IP spoofing.
Small UDP queries generate disproportionately large DNS response payloads sent to the victim's spoofed IP address.
4
Determine the operational paradigm of Zero Trust Architecture.
Link Zero Trust Architecture with continuous identity verification and zero implicit network perimeter trust.
ZTA assumes threats exist both outside and inside the corporate network boundary.

Key Concept

Information Security Frameworks, Cryptography, Cyber Attacks, and Statutory Laws
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2464Question →

With reference to the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY), which of the following statements is correct?

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Answer: It is a placement-linked skill training scheme for rural poor youth, implemented under the Ministry of Rural Development.

Answer

It is a placement-linked skill training scheme for rural poor youth, implemented under the Ministry of Rural Development.
The Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a placement-linked skill development scheme focused on rural poor youth between 15 and 35 years of age, administered by the Ministry of Rural Development.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the nodal ministry and primary mandate of DDU-GKY.
DDU-GKY is a key part of the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) under the Ministry of Rural Development, designed to transform rural poor youth into an economically productive workforce.
Correctly identifying implementing agencies prevents confusion with urban or general skill initiatives.
2
Analyze the target demographic and structural mechanism of the scheme.
The scheme mandates placement-linked skill training for rural youth aged 15–35 (relaxed up to 45 for SC/ST/Women/PVTG/PWD).
Understanding age criteria and employment guarantees distinguishes placement-linked schemes from credit disbursement or self-employment schemes.

Key Concept

Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) Architecture and Objectives
Question 2465Question →

Among the following infectious human diseases, which one is caused by a bacterial pathogen rather than a viral, protozoan, or fungal organism?

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Answer: Diphtheria

Answer

Diphtheria is the disease caused by a bacterial pathogen (Corynebacterium diphtheriae).
Diphtheria is an infection of the upper respiratory tract or skin caused by the Gram-positive bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the causative organism for each disease listed in the choices.
Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae (bacterium); Yellow Fever is caused by Flavivirus (virus); Toxoplasmosis is caused by Toxoplasma gondii (protozoan); Histoplasmosis is caused by Histoplasma capsulatum (fungus).
Classifying each disease by its etiology helps isolate the bacterial disease.
2
Select the choice matching the bacterial pathogen requirement.
Diphtheria is the only bacterial infection among the options.
The question specifically asks for the disease caused by a bacterium.

Key Concept

Human Infectious Diseases and Pathogen Etiology
Question 2466Question →

Which chemical compound is commonly known as 'Washing Soda' and used in domestic and industrial applications for softening hard water?

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Answer: Sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na2CO3⋅10H2ONa_2CO_3 \cdot 10H_2O)

Answer

Sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na2CO3⋅10H2ONa_2CO_3 \cdot 10H_2O)
The compound sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na2CO3⋅10H2ONa_2CO_3 \cdot 10H_2O) is commonly referred to as Washing Soda. It is extensively used in laundry cleaning and industrial processes to remove permanent hardness from water by precipitating calcium and magnesium ions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the common chemical name 'Washing Soda'
Washing soda corresponds to hydrated sodium carbonate.
Chemical nomenclature assigns specific common names to hydrated salts used in daily life.
2
Determine the exact chemical formula
Na2CO3⋅10H2ONa_2CO_3 \cdot 10H_2O containing ten water molecules of crystallization.
Anhydrous sodium carbonate (Na2CO3Na_2CO_3) is known as soda ash; recrystallization from water gives washing soda.
3
Verify industrial application
It reacts with soluble Ca2+Ca^{2+} and Mg2+Mg^{2+} ions to form insoluble carbonates (CaCO3CaCO_3 and MgCO3MgCO_3), thereby removing permanent hardness.
Precipitating metal ions reduces soap consumption and prevents scum formation.

Key Concept

Chemical nomenclature and applications of sodium compounds in daily life
Question 2467Question →

Match the specialized human physiological cell types listed in List-I with their primary secretory products and functions listed in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Juxtaglomerular Cells
Chief (Peptic) Cells
Alpha Cells of Pancreatic Islets
Parafollicular (C) Cells of Thyroid

Matches

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Answer

Juxtaglomerular Cells correspond to Renin secretion; Chief Cells correspond to Pepsinogen secretion; Alpha Cells correspond to Glucagon secretion; Parafollicular C Cells correspond to Calcitonin secretion.
The cell types match precisely with their physiological functions: Juxtaglomerular cells secrete renin for blood pressure homeostasis; Chief cells secrete pepsinogen for gastric digestion; Alpha cells produce glucagon to elevate blood glucose; and Parafollicular C cells produce calcitonin to reduce blood calcium levels.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze renal endocrine function
Juxtaglomerular cells located in the kidney produce Renin, which converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
Renin secretion is a key regulator of blood volume and arterial pressure.
2
Analyze gastric secretory mechanisms
Chief cells in gastric mucosa produce Pepsinogen, whereas Parietal cells secrete Hydrochloric Acid (HClHCl).
Pepsinogen must be activated by acidic pH to form pepsin.
3
Analyze endocrine pancreas regulation
Alpha cells secrete Glucagon (hyperglycemic factor), while Beta cells produce Insulin.
Glucagon maintains glucose homeostasis during fasting states.
4
Analyze thyroid calcium-regulating cells
Parafollicular C cells synthesize Calcitonin, which acts as an antagonist to Parathyroid Hormone (PTH).
Calcitonin decreases blood Ca2+Ca^{2+} concentration by promoting calcium incorporation into bone tissue.

Key Concept

Endocrine and exocrine cell differentiation and functional secretions in human organ systems
Question 2468Question →

The President of India generally acts on the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. However, the Constitution permits the exercise of situational discretion under specific conditions. In which of the following scenarios is the President empowered to exercise situational discretion without relying on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers?

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Answer: Appointment of the Prime Minister when no single political party or coalition commands a clear majority in the Lok Sabha

Answer

The appointment of the Prime Minister when no single political party or coalition commands a clear majority in the Lok Sabha represents a situation where the President exercises situational discretion.
The President of India possesses situational discretion (discretion arising out of parliamentary circumstances) in appointing the Prime Minister when no political party or pre-poll alliance commands an absolute majority in the Lok Sabha.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the constitutional framework governing aid and advice under Article 74.
Article 74(1) mandates that the President shall act in accordance with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister in executing executive duties.
India follows a parliamentary system of government where real executive authority resides in the cabinet.
2
Identify recognized instances of situational discretion vested in the President.
When no party holds a majority after a general election, or when a Prime Minister dies in office without an obvious successor, the President must use personal judgement to appoint a Prime Minister under Article 75(1).
An outgoing or non-existent council of ministers cannot render binding advice on who should form the next government when the parliamentary mandate is indecisive.
3
Evaluate the constitutional restrictions on other executive and legislative functions.
Ordinance promulgation (Article 123), clemency decisions (Article 72), and emergency declarations (Article 352) strictly require Council of Ministers or Cabinet recommendation.
The Supreme Court has consistently held (e.g., Shamsher Singh case, 1974) that constitutional satisfaction of the President means the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers.

Key Concept

Situational Discretion of the President of India
Question 2469Question →

In the context of India's indigenous multi-layered Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) programme developed by DRDO, which statement correctly distinguishes between exo-atmospheric and endo-atmospheric interception systems?

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Answer: Exo-atmospheric interceptors target incoming ballistic missiles outside Earth's atmosphere at high altitudes, whereas endo-atmospheric interceptors engage targets inside the atmosphere at lower altitudes.

Answer

Exo-atmospheric interceptors target incoming ballistic missiles outside Earth's atmosphere at high altitudes, whereas endo-atmospheric interceptors engage targets inside the atmosphere at lower altitudes.
The correct answer accurately states the core distinction in multi-layered missile defense architecture: exo-atmospheric interceptors engage incoming ballistic threats outside Earth's atmosphere in space, whereas endo-atmospheric interceptors engage threats that have re-entered the Earth's atmosphere.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the operational regime of exo-atmospheric interception
Exo-atmospheric systems operate beyond Earth's atmosphere (typically above 50 km50\text{ km} altitude) where aerodynamic control surfaces do not work and reaction control systems (RCS) are required.
Understanding the physical environment outside the atmosphere is critical to defining exo-atmospheric engagement.
2
Analyze the operational regime of endo-atmospheric interception
Endo-atmospheric systems engage targets within Earth's atmosphere (typically below 30 km30\text{ km} altitude) utilizing atmospheric density and aerodynamic controls.
Distinguishing the lower altitude ceiling defines endo-atmospheric defense capability.
3
Map DRDO BMD interceptor missiles to their respective defense tiers
Prithvi Air Defence (PAD / Pradyumna) is designed for exo-atmospheric interception (50–80 km50\text{--}80\text{ km}), whereas Advanced Air Defence (AAD / Ashwin) is designed for endo-atmospheric interception (15–30 km15\text{--}30\text{ km}).
Verifying specific Indian defense assets confirms the correct conceptual differentiation.

Key Concept

Multi-tiered Ballistic Missile Defence Architecture (Exo-atmospheric vs Endo-atmospheric Interception)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2470Question →

Which of the following indigenously developed Indian missiles is classified primarily as a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) Air-to-Air missile?

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Answer: Astra

Answer

Astra
Astra is India's premier Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) developed by the Defense Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It allows fighter aircraft to destroy hostile aerial targets at distances exceeding 100 km.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary role and operational domain of the Astra missile system.
Astra is designed to be integrated onto fighter aircraft (such as Su-30MKI and Tejas) for engaging aerial targets beyond visual range.
Defense categorization differentiates weapons by launch platform and target type (e.g., air-to-air, surface-to-air, anti-tank).

Key Concept

Classification of Indian Indigenous Defense Missiles
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2471Question →

Match the chemical compounds in List I with their primary industrial applications and daily life functions in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Hydrazine (N2H4N_2H_4)
Sodium Thiosulfate (Na2S2O3Na_2S_2O_3)
Calcium Phosphate (Ca3(PO4)2Ca_3(PO_4)_2)
Zeolite (Hydrated Aluminosilicate)

Matches

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Answer

Hydrazine correctly pairs with its industrial role as a boiler water oxygen scavenger and propellant; Sodium Thiosulfate correctly pairs with its application as an antichlor agent and photographic fixer; Calcium Phosphate pairs with its biological role as the structural constituent of tooth enamel and bone; Zeolite pairs with its function as an ion-exchange water softener and catalyst.
Each chemical compound is accurately linked to its specific functional role: Hydrazine acts as an oxygen scavenger in boiler feed water; Sodium Thiosulfate acts as an antichlor and photographic fixer; Calcium Phosphate forms the mineral structure of tooth enamel and bone; Zeolite acts as an ion-exchange medium for water softening.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the industrial function of Hydrazine (N2H4N_2H_4).
Hydrazine reacts quantitatively with dissolved oxygen to yield nitrogen gas and water, preventing pitting corrosion in steam boilers without increasing dissolved solid content.
Its strong reducing action makes it ideal for water treatment and rocket fuel formulations.
2
Determine the application of Sodium Thiosulfate (Na2S2O3Na_2S_2O_3).
Sodium thiosulfate neutralizes excess chlorine left on textiles post-bleaching (acting as an antichlor) and forms soluble thiosulfato-argentate complexes in film processing.
These chemical reactions define its dual identity as an antichlor and photographic fixing agent ('hypo').
3
Analyze the biochemical structural role of Calcium Phosphate (Ca3(PO4)2Ca_3(PO_4)_2).
In biological systems, crystalline calcium phosphate derivatives (hydroxyapatite) construct the hard mineral phase of bones and dental enamel.
It supplies structural integrity against mechanical stress in mammalian anatomy.
4
Evaluate the chemical utility of Zeolites.
Microporous sodium aluminosilicates exchange their structural Na+Na^+ ions for hard-water Ca2+Ca^{2+} and Mg2+Mg^{2+} ions, making them effective builders in eco-friendly detergents.
Their defined molecular pore networks also allow shape-selective catalytic cracking in petroleum refineries.

Key Concept

Industrial applications and daily life functions of inorganic compounds
Question 2472Question →

With reference to cellular organelles and genetic mechanisms in eukaryotic organisms, consider the following statements:

1. Mitochondria and chloroplasts possess their own double-stranded circular DNA and 70S ribosomes, allowing them to synthesize some of their own structural proteins semi-autonomously.
2. Lysosomal hydrolytic enzymes are synthesized primarily by ribosomes on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and are directly secreted into the cytoplasm without entering Golgi cisternae.
3. Genetic recombination through crossing over during Meiosis I occurs specifically between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during the pachytene substage of Prophase I.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 only are correct.
The correct answer states that statements 1 and 3 only are correct. Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain prokaryotic features (70S ribosomes, naked circular DNA) supporting semi-autonomy. Crossing over occurs strictly between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during pachytene. Statement 2 is false because acid hydrolases in lysosomes are synthesized by the rough endoplasmic reticulum and targeted to lysosomes by the Golgi apparatus.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding semi-autonomous organelles.
Statement 1 is correct. Both mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own circular double-stranded DNA molecule and prokaryotic-type 70S ribosomes, replicating independently of the nucleus via binary fission.
Endosymbiotic theory accounts for the bacterial-like genetic apparatus of these organelles.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding lysosome biogenesis.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Lysosomal enzymes (acid hydrolases) are synthesized by ribosomes on the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER), transported to the cis-face of the Golgi apparatus, tagged with mannose-6-phosphate, and budded off as primary lysosomes from the trans-Golgi network.
Smooth ER is involved in lipid/steroid synthesis and detoxification, not lysosomal protein synthesis.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding meiotic crossing over.
Statement 3 is correct. Crossing over is an enzyme-mediated process (recombinase) occurring between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at the pachytene stage of Prophase I, forming chiasmata seen in diplotene.
Reciprocal exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids creates genetic variation.

Key Concept

Organelle autonomy, lysosome biogenesis, and meiotic genetic recombination
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2473Question →

Induction cooktops are increasingly popular in modern households due to their safety and rapid heating capabilities. Which of the following physical principles is primarily responsible for generating heat directly within a ferromagnetic cooking vessel placed on an active induction zone?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Induced eddy currents and magnetic hysteresis losses generated by a rapidly alternating magnetic field

Answer

Heat is generated directly inside the cookware through induced eddy currents and magnetic hysteresis losses caused by a high-frequency alternating magnetic field.
The correct answer identifies that an induction cooktop utilizes an alternating magnetic field to induce eddy currents and hysteresis losses directly inside the ferromagnetic metal of the vessel, causing rapid Joule heating without heating the stovetop directly.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary electrical component under the induction glass top
A high-frequency alternating current (20–100 kHz20\text{--}100\text{ kHz}) is passed through a copper coil located beneath the cooktop surface.
Passing alternating current through a coil produces a rapidly fluctuating magnetic field according to Ampère's Law and Faraday's Law of Induction.
2
Determine the interaction between the fluctuating magnetic field and the ferromagnetic cookware
The alternating magnetic flux passes through the base of the ferromagnetic pot, inducing closed loops of electrical currents called eddy currents (Foucault currents).
According to Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction, a time-varying magnetic field induces an electromotive force (EMF) in nearby conductive materials.
3
Analyze how heat energy is dissipated inside the vessel material
The electrical resistance of the pot material causes Joule heating (P=I2RP = I^2R) from eddy currents, supplemented by heat generated from magnetic hysteresis in the magnetic domain structures.
Ferromagnetic metals possess high electrical resistance and magnetic hysteresis, causing electrical energy transferred via magnetic field to turn into heat energy within the pot base.

Key Concept

Electromagnetic Induction and Eddy Current Heating in Everyday Technology
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2474Question →

With reference to the Pitt's India Act of 1784, consider the following statements:

1. It established a Board of Control to manage political affairs, thereby introducing a system of dual government.
2. It empowered the Governor-General to override his council in extraordinary circumstances.
3. The Company's territories in India were for the first time called the 'British possessions in India'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

The correct combination is '1 and 3 only'.
The option stating '1 and 3 only' is correct. The Pitt's India Act of 1784 established the Board of Control to direct political, civil, and military operations while leaving commercial functions with the Court of Directors, establishing a dual system of control. Additionally, it declared company territories as 'British possessions in India' for the first time. The power to override council decisions was introduced later by the Act of 1786.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze statement 1 regarding the Board of Control and dual government.
Statement 1 is correct. The Pitt's India Act of 1784 established a 6-member Board of Control to supervise civil, military, and revenue affairs, leaving commercial affairs to the Court of Directors, thus creating a dual system of governance.
To verify the administrative structure created by the 1784 Act.
2
Analyze statement 2 regarding the Governor-General's power to override his council.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The power of the Governor-General to override council decisions in special situations was enacted under the Act of 1786 (specifically to meet Lord Cornwallis's demands), not the 1784 Act.
To distinguish provisions of the Pitt's India Act of 1784 from subsequent amendatory legislation.
3
Analyze statement 3 regarding the terminology 'British possessions in India'.
Statement 3 is correct. The 1784 Act explicitly designated the East India Company's territories as the 'British possessions in India' for the first time.
To check legal nomenclature changes under British parliamentary control.

Key Concept

Key provisions and structural changes introduced by the Pitt's India Act of 1784 versus the Act of 1786
Question 2475Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Astra' missile system indigenously developed in India:

1. It is India's first indigenous Beyond-Visual-Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM).
2. It is powered by a single-stage solid-propellant rocket motor.
3. It features an active radar terminal homing mechanism for guidance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
The correct answer includes all three statements because Astra is India's first indigenous Beyond-Visual-Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM), powered by a single-stage solid-propellant engine, and guided by mid-course inertial navigation combined with active radar terminal homing.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding missile classification and role.
Statement 1 is correct. Astra Mk-1 is India's first indigenously designed and developed Beyond-Visual-Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) capable of engaging enemy aircraft at ranges beyond visual sight.
DRDO developed Astra specifically as an all-weather, day-and-night air-to-air missile asset for fighter aircraft such as Su-30MKI.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding propulsion technology.
Statement 2 is correct. Astra uses a smokeless single-stage solid-fuel rocket motor that propels it to supersonic speeds exceeding Mach 4.5.
Solid propellant provides high reliability and immediate readiness essential for air-launched interceptor missiles.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding guidance and tracking mechanism.
Statement 3 is correct. The missile uses fiber-optic gyro-based inertial navigation for mid-course guidance and an active radar seeker for terminal homing.
Terminal active radar seeker allows autonomous lock-on capability near the target.

Key Concept

Indigenously developed air-to-air missile platforms (Astra BVRAAM) and their propulsion/guidance systems.
Question 2476Question →

Match the chemical substances listed in List I with their corresponding primary industrial applications or daily life functions in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Chloroxylenol
Melamine-Formaldehyde Resin
Bordeaux Mixture
Potassium Nitrate

Matches

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Answer

Chloroxylenol matches with active antiseptic agent in commercial disinfectant liquid formulations; Melamine-Formaldehyde Resin matches with thermosetting polymer utilized in manufacturing shatterproof dinnerware; Bordeaux Mixture matches with inorganic fungicide and bactericide applied in agricultural crop protection; and Potassium Nitrate matches with oxidizing component used in gunpowder and pyrotechnic formulations.
Chloroxylenol functions as an active antiseptic in disinfectant liquids; Melamine-Formaldehyde Resin is a thermosetting plastic used for durable dinnerware; Bordeaux Mixture is a copper-based agricultural fungicide; and Potassium Nitrate serves as an oxidizing agent in propellant and pyrotechnic mixtures.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the chemical nature and application of Chloroxylenol.
Chloroxylenol (C8H9ClOC_8H_9ClO) is a halogenated phenolic antiseptic.
It disrupts microbial cell membranes and inactivates key cellular enzymes, making it the active ingredient in antimicrobial products.
2
Evaluate the structure and utility of Melamine-Formaldehyde Resin.
It is formed via condensation polymerization of melamine with formaldehyde.
Extensive three-dimensional cross-linking renders it rigid, durable, and heat-resistant, ideal for shatterproof kitchenware.
3
Examine the composition and agricultural role of Bordeaux Mixture.
It is prepared by combining copper sulfate (CuSO4CuSO_4) solution with slaked lime (Ca(OH)2Ca(OH)_2) suspension.
The released copper ions (Cu2+Cu^{2+}) inhibit fungal spore germination on crops such as grapes and potatoes.
4
Identify the industrial function of Potassium Nitrate.
Potassium nitrate (KNO3KNO_3) readily undergoes thermal decomposition to liberate oxygen gas.
This rapid oxygen supply drives the rapid oxidation of fuels (sulfur and charcoal) in gunpowder and pyrotechnic compositions.

Key Concept

Chemical compounds in daily life and industrial applications
Question 2477Question →

Match the statutory bodies listed in List-I with their corresponding distinctive statutory provisions or governing mandates listed in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
Competition Commission of India (CCI)
National Green Tribunal (NGT)

Matches

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Answer

Central Vigilance Commission corresponds to a 4-year tenure (or age 65); National Human Rights Commission corresponds to a revised 3-year term (or age 70) under the 2019 Amendment; Competition Commission of India corresponds to regulating anti-competitive practices under the Competition Act, 2002; National Green Tribunal corresponds to the statutory 6-month disposal mandate guided by natural justice principles.
Each statutory body in India is established by a specific Act of Parliament detailing its tenure, composition, and legal mandates. The CVC operates on a distinct 4-year tenure under the CVC Act 2003. The NHRC tenure was amended in 2019 to 3 years or 70 years of age. The CCI derives its jurisdiction over anti-competitive practices from the Competition Act 2002. The NGT functions under a statutory 6-month case disposal objective guided by natural justice principles under the NGT Act 2010.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the governing statutory tenure of the Central Vigilance Commission.
The CVC Act, 2003 specifies a unique tenure of 4 years or age 65 (non-renewable), which sets it apart from standard 3-year or 5-year statutory terms.
Establishing the precise statutory tenure rule for CVC.
2
Analyze recent legislative amendments affecting the National Human Rights Commission.
The 2019 Amendment Act reduced the NHRC Chairperson's tenure from 5 years to 3 years while retaining the upper age limit of 70 years.
Matching statutory updates to human rights governance bodies.
3
Determine the primary statutory function of the Competition Commission of India.
Under the Competition Act, 2002, CCI regulates market practices to ensure fair competition and prevent abuse of dominance.
Linking economic governance statutory bodies to their enabling legislation.
4
Review procedural rules governing the National Green Tribunal.
The NGT Act, 2010 specifically mandates rapid disposal within 6 months based on principles of natural justice.
Connecting environmental adjudication bodies with their statutory timeline and legal framework.

Key Concept

Statutory Bodies and Public Policy Governance
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 2478Question →

With reference to the creation of All-India Services under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. A resolution recommending the creation of a new All-India Service must originate in the Rajya Sabha and be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
2. A law passed by Parliament to create a new All-India Service under this provision is deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

The statement stating that a resolution recommending the creation of a new All-India Service must originate in the Rajya Sabha supported by at least two-thirds of members present and voting is correct, while the statement regarding constitutional amendment under Article 368 is incorrect.
Under Article 312 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha has the exclusive federal power to initiate the creation of a new All-India Service by passing a resolution supported by at least two-thirds of members present and voting. Once such a resolution is adopted, Parliament can create the service by ordinary law. Such ordinary legislation does not amount to a constitutional amendment under Article 368.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the authority and majority required to initiate a new All-India Service.
Article 312 empowers the Rajya Sabha exclusively to pass a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to create one or more All-India Services. The resolution must be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
This special privilege reflects the federal character of the Rajya Sabha as the representative body of the states.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding whether parliamentary legislation under Article 312 constitutes an amendment under Article 368.
Laws enacted by Parliament pursuant to an Article 312 resolution to create or regulate All-India Services are simple parliamentary enactments and are explicitly excluded from the formal amendment procedure under Article 368. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
The Constitution permits Parliament to adjust administrative structures under Article 312 without invoking the rigorous process of constitutional amendment.

Key Concept

Exclusive Powers of Rajya Sabha and Creation of All-India Services (Article 312)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2479Question →

Which of the following statements regarding biogeochemical cycles and ecological succession are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: In gaseous biogeochemical cycles, the primary reservoir pool is located in the atmosphere or the hydrosphere.; The phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary nutrient cycle whose primary reservoir is mineral rock deposits.

Answer

The correct statements are: 'In gaseous biogeochemical cycles, the primary reservoir pool is located in the atmosphere or the hydrosphere' and 'The phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary nutrient cycle whose primary reservoir is mineral rock deposits'.
The statements confirming that gaseous cycles have their reservoir pools in the atmosphere or hydrosphere and that the phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary cycle with reservoir in rocks are both factually accurate. Biogeochemical cycles are broadly divided into gaseous (atmosphere/hydrosphere reservoir) and sedimentary (lithosphere reservoir) types.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze biogeochemical nutrient cycle categories
Gaseous cycles have reservoir pools in the atmosphere/hydrosphere (e.g., nitrogen, carbon), whereas sedimentary cycles have reservoir pools in the lithosphere/rocks (e.g., phosphorus, sulfur).
Correctly distinguishing gaseous and sedimentary cycles establishes the truth of the statements regarding reservoir pools.
2
Evaluate the rates of ecological succession types
Primary succession begins on newly exposed surfaces lacking soil (e.g., bare rock, lava flow), requiring centuries to build soil. Secondary succession occurs where natural vegetation was destroyed but soil remains intact, progressing much faster.
This shows that claiming primary succession is faster than secondary succession is scientifically inaccurate.
3
Determine the endpoint of ecological succession pathways
Both hydrarch (starting in water) and xerarch (starting on dry land) successions converge toward medium moisture (mesic) conditions represented by a stable climax community.
Succession leads toward equilibrium climax communities rather than unstable pioneer communities.

Key Concept

Classification of Biogeochemical Cycles and Dynamics of Primary vs. Secondary Ecological Succession
Question 2480Question →

With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements correctly describes its legal status and amendability as established by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It is an integral part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368, provided its basic structure is not altered.

Answer

The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368, provided its basic structure is not altered.
In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case (1973), the Supreme Court of India held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. The Court further clarified that Parliament can amend the Preamble under Article 368, provided such amendments do not alter or destroy its basic structure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the evolution of judicial interpretation regarding the Preamble's status.
In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble was not part of the Constitution.
Understanding historical legal precedents sets the baseline for analyzing constitutional changes.
2
Analyze the decision in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
The Supreme Court overruled the Berubari opinion and established that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.
This landmark judgment integrated the Preamble into the core constitutional scheme.
3
Determine the scope and limits of amending the Preamble under Article 368.
The Court affirmed that while Parliament can amend the Preamble under Article 368, it cannot alter or destroy the basic structure or fundamental features contained within it.
The Basic Structure doctrine balances parliamentary amending power with constitutional supremacy.

Key Concept

Legal status and amendability of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution
Estimated Time:1m 0s
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