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Question 281Question →

Match the medieval Vijayanagara administrative and land terms listed in List-I with their correct descriptions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Amaram
Bhandaravada
Manya
Ayagar

Matches

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Answer

Amaram correctly matches with land grants assigned to military commanders (Nayakas); Bhandaravada matches with crown lands whose revenue directly accrued to the state treasury; Manya matches with tax-exempt lands granted to temples and Brahmins; and Ayagar matches with the system of twelve hereditary village functionaries.
Each administrative term correctly maps to its functional definition in Vijayanagara governance: Amaram lands were military revenue assignments to Nayakas, Bhandaravada lands were crown villages directly benefiting the royal treasury, Manya lands were tax-exempt grants for religious/learned institutions, and the Ayagar system represented the twelve hereditary village functionaries.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the military land assignment system under the Vijayanagara Empire.
Amaram lands were granted to Nayakas (military leaders) to support military obligations and maintenance of troops.
The Nayankara administrative framework relied on Amaram revenue assignments to maintain standing forces.
2
Distinguish between directly managed crown lands and tax-free institutional holdings.
Bhandaravada designates state-owned crown lands contributing directly to the treasury, whereas Manya signifies tax-exempt grants.
Land classification in Vijayanagara clearly separated state revenue lands from tax-exempt religious and scholarly grants.
3
Identify the structural framework of local village administration.
Ayagar designates the body of twelve hereditary village officers managing rural public works and order.
Grassroots governance in the Vijayanagara countryside was maintained through the autonomous Ayagar officer system.

Key Concept

Vijayanagara Administrative and Land Revenue Terminology
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 282Question →

Which of the following represents the correct matching of the major industrial centers of India in List I with their primary industrial sector in List II?

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Items

Ankleshwar
Damanjodi
Ludhiana
Bhadravati

Matches

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Answer

Ankleshwar matches with Petrochemicals and crude oil extraction; Damanjodi matches with Bauxite mining and alumina refining; Ludhiana matches with Woollen textiles and knitwear products; and Bhadravati matches with Specialized alloy and steel production.
Ankleshwar is an established center for oilfields and petrochemicals; Damanjodi is renowned for NALCO's bauxite-based alumina refinery; Ludhiana is the country's main hub for woollen hosiery; and Bhadravati is an integrated iron and steel industrial plant in Karnataka.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the primary industry associated with Ankleshwar
Ankleshwar is situated in Gujarat's hydrocarbon belt, making it a prominent center for petroleum production and downstream petrochemical industries.
Locational proximity to oilfields in the Cambay region dictates its industrial profile.
2
Analyze the primary industry associated with Damanjodi
Damanjodi is the site of National Aluminium Company Limited's (NALCO) alumina refinery plant near high-grade bauxite deposits in Odisha.
Because raw bauxite loses significant weight during alumina refining, processing units are established near mineral mines.
3
Analyze the primary industry associated with Ludhiana
Ludhiana is a major non-mineral manufacturing cluster famous across India for woollen garment manufacturing and knitwear.
Market-linked footloose industries flourished here due to skilled labor and commercial networks in Punjab.
4
Analyze the primary industry associated with Bhadravati
Bhadravati hosts the Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Plant along the Bhadra River in Karnataka.
Established initially utilizing charcoal from local forests and hydroelectricity from Mahatma Gandhi Hydroelectric Project, it specializes in alloy steels.

Key Concept

Industrial localization factors and resource-based spatial distribution of manufacturing hubs in India
Question 283Question →

Match the Constitutional Articles concerning the Union Executive in List-I with their specific constitutional provisions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 61
Article 71
Article 77
Article 78

Matches

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Answer

Article 61 matches with the procedure for impeachment of the President; Article 71 matches with inquiry and decision by the Supreme Court on presidential/vice-presidential election disputes; Article 77 matches with conduct of business of the Government of India in the President's name; and Article 78 matches with duties of the Prime Minister regarding the furnishing of information to the President.
Article 61 deals with the procedure for impeachment of the President. Article 71 establishes that election disputes involving the President or Vice-President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court. Article 77 provides that all executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed in the name of the President. Article 78 delineates the duties of the Prime Minister to furnish information regarding administration and legislation to the President.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the constitutional safeguards and dispute mechanisms associated with the President and Vice-President under Articles 61 and 71.
Article 61 prescribes the quasi-judicial procedure for impeaching the President, whereas Article 71 confers exclusive original jurisdiction on the Supreme Court to adjudicate presidential and vice-presidential election disputes.
Distinguishing between parliamentary removal mechanisms and judicial election dispute resolution is essential for executive accountability.
2
Examine the executive conduct and communication provisions under Articles 77 and 78.
Article 77 mandates that all Union executive actions be taken in the name of the President, while Article 78 outlines the Prime Minister's mandatory reporting duties to the President.
These constitutional mandates govern the formal execution of governance and maintain the vital link between the Cabinet and the Head of State.
3
Synthesize the analysis to form the exact matching pairs between List-I and List-II.
Article 61 pairs with impeachment procedure; Article 71 pairs with Supreme Court election dispute decisions; Article 77 pairs with conduct of executive business; and Article 78 pairs with Prime Minister's reporting duties.
Ensures precise alignment with constitutional articles governing the Union Executive under Part V of the Constitution of India.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles governing impeachment, election disputes, executive conduct, and prime ministerial duties within the Union Executive
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 284Question →

Match the following Parliamentary Motions and Devices of the Indian Parliament in List-I with their specific procedural characteristics or legal requirements in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Adjournment Motion
Calling Attention Motion
Privilege Motion
Censure Motion

Matches

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Answer

The correct matches pair Adjournment Motion with requiring 50 members' support to discuss an urgent matter while carrying censure, Calling Attention Motion with seeking a Minister's statement on urgent public importance without interrupting business, Privilege Motion with addressing a breach caused by withholding or distorting facts, and Censure Motion with stating specific charges against ministers without mandating immediate cabinet resignation upon passage.
Adjournment Motion involves an emergency interruption requiring 50 members' support and implies censure. Calling Attention Motion is an Indian parliamentary innovation seeking an official ministerial statement. Privilege Motion holds ministers accountable for misleading the House or withholding facts. Censure Motion requires explicit grounds and can target specific ministers or the entire cabinet without automatically collapsing the government.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the procedural threshold and nature of an Adjournment Motion.
It requires the support of at least 50 members for leave to be granted, interrupts standard business, and implies censure of government conduct.
It is an extraordinary motion reserved exclusively for urgent matters of immediate concern in Lok Sabha.
2
Identify the distinct origin and purpose of a Calling Attention Motion.
It is an Indian parliamentary creation introduced in 1954 to elicit an official ministerial statement without suspending regular proceedings.
It allows members to highlight urgent public matters formally within rules of procedure.
3
Determine the legal grounds for moving a Privilege Motion.
It is moved when a Minister gives wrong or distorted information or suppresses facts, breaching parliamentary privilege.
Ensures executive accountability regarding accurate communication to the legislature.
4
Evaluate the conditions and consequences of a Censure Motion.
It must state specific reasons/charges and can target individual ministers or the cabinet as a whole; passing it does not force cabinet resignation, unlike a No-Confidence Motion.
Censure is meant to reprimand specific policies or actions, whereas No-Confidence tests overall majority support.

Key Concept

Parliamentary Devices and Legislative Motions in the Indian Parliament
Question 285Question →

Match the following constitutional writs issued by the Indian Judiciary under Articles 32 and 226 with their respective literal Latin meanings:

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Items

Habeas Corpus
Mandamus
Prohibition
Quo-Warranto

Matches

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Answer

Habeas Corpus pairs with 'To have the body of', Mandamus pairs with 'We command', Prohibition pairs with 'To forbid', and Quo-Warranto pairs with 'By what authority or warrant'.
Each writ originates from English common law and possesses an exact Latin translation: Habeas Corpus means 'To have the body of', Mandamus means 'We command', Prohibition means 'To forbid', and Quo-Warranto means 'By what authority or warrant'.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the literal Latin meaning of Habeas Corpus.
Habeas Corpus means 'To have the body of'.
It is an order produced to bring a detained person before the court.
2
Identify the literal Latin meaning of Mandamus.
Mandamus means 'We command'.
It commands a public official to execute a legal or constitutional obligation.
3
Identify the literal Latin meaning of Prohibition.
Prohibition means 'To forbid'.
It stops lower judicial or quasi-judicial bodies from taking up matters outside their jurisdiction.
4
Identify the literal Latin meaning of Quo-Warranto.
Quo-Warranto means 'By what authority or warrant'.
It prevents illegal usurpation of a public office by challenging the holder's authority.

Key Concept

Literal meanings and definitions of Writs under Articles 32 and 226 of the Constitution of India
Estimated Time:45s
Question 286Question →

Match the Panchayati Raj committees in List I with their landmark structural recommendations in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957)
Ashok Mehta Committee (1977)
G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985)
L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986)

Matches

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Answer

Balwant Rai Mehta Committee matches with establishment of a 3-tier Panchayati Raj system; Ashok Mehta Committee matches with replacement of the 3-tier structure with a 2-tier system; G.V.K. Rao Committee matches with making the district the main planning unit and creating the post of District Development Commissioner; L.M. Singhvi Committee matches with constitutional recognition of Panchayati Raj institutions and setting up of Nyaya Panchayats.
Each historical committee on Panchayati Raj corresponds directly to its signature proposal: Balwant Rai Mehta (1957) advocated for a 3-tier system of democratic decentralisation; Ashok Mehta (1977) advocated for a 2-tier structure (Zilla Parishad & Mandal Panchayat); G.V.K. Rao (1985) focused on district-level planning and the District Development Commissioner post; and L.M. Singhvi (1986) spearheaded the demand for constitutional recognition and Nyaya Panchayats.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the recommendation of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957).
It laid the foundation of democratic decentralisation by recommending a 3-tier Panchayati Raj structure (Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad).
To create a representative decentralised administrative system.
2
Analyze the recommendation of the Ashok Mehta Committee (1977).
It proposed collapsing the tiers into a 2-tier system comprising Zilla Parishad at the district level and Mandal Panchayat at the lower level.
To strengthen district-level administration and group smaller villages under Mandal Panchayats.
3
Analyze the recommendation of the G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985).
It highlighted the phenomenon of 'grass without roots' (bureaucratisation) and recommended making the district the key unit for planning, led by a District Development Commissioner.
To integrate rural development administration under local democratic control.
4
Analyze the recommendation of the L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986).
It advocated for constitutional protection/recognition of local self-government bodies and the creation of Nyaya Panchayats.
To ensure regular elections, financial autonomy, and judicial mechanisms at the village cluster level.

Key Concept

Committees on Panchayati Raj Institutions and Their Key Recommendations
Question 287Question →

Match the following key economic planning milestones and institutions in India (List-I) with their primary focus areas or objectives (List-II):

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Items

First Five-Year Plan (1951–1956)
Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961)
1991 Economic Reforms
NITI Aayog (2015)

Matches

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Answer

The correct matches are: First Five-Year Plan matches with development of agriculture, irrigation, and power projects; Second Five-Year Plan matches with rapid industrialization focusing on heavy and basic industries; 1991 Economic Reforms match with structural reforms based on Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG); NITI Aayog matches with fostering cooperative federalism and bottom-up policy advice as a policy think tank.
Each economic milestone corresponds directly to its defined core focus: the First Five-Year Plan addressed agricultural and irrigation capacity; the Second Plan targeted heavy industrialization under the Mahalanobis framework; the 1991 structural reforms introduced Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization; and NITI Aayog serves as a policy think tank advocating cooperative federalism and bottom-up planning.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary focus of the early Five-Year Plans
The First Plan (1951–1956) prioritized food security and agriculture. The Second Plan (1956–1961) focused on heavy industries via the Mahalanobis model.
Post-independence economic stability required immediate agricultural growth, followed by building a strong capital goods manufacturing base.
2
Identify the nature of the 1991 Economic Reforms
The 1991 reforms implemented Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG).
These structural reforms dismantled industrial licensing, reduced trade barriers, and opened up the Indian economy.
3
Identify the role and objective of NITI Aayog
NITI Aayog acts as an extra-constitutional policy think tank promoting cooperative federalism.
It replaced the top-down Planning Commission in 2015 to ensure active participation of states in economic strategy.

Key Concept

Key Milestones in Indian Economic Planning and Structural Reforms
Question 288Question →

Match the National Income accounting concepts and indicators in List-I with their accurate mathematical identities or economic definitions in List-II:

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Items

Gross Value Added (GVA) at Basic Prices
Gross National Income (GNI) at Market Prices
Net National Product (NNP) at Factor Cost
Green Gross Domestic Product (Green GDP)

Matches

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Answer

Gross Value Added at Basic Prices matches GVA at Factor Cost plus Net Production Taxes; Gross National Income at Market Prices matches GDP at Market Prices plus Net Primary Income from Abroad; Net National Product at Factor Cost matches NDP at Market Prices minus Net Product Taxes minus Depreciation plus Net Primary Income from Abroad; Green GDP matches Conventional Real GDP minus Environmental Costs and Resource Depletion.
The matched pairs strictly adhere to standard macroeconomic formulas: GVA at Basic Prices incorporates net production taxes over factor cost; GNI at Market Prices incorporates net primary income from abroad; NNP at Factor Cost represents net national factor income; and Green GDP adjusts standard economic output for ecological costs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze GVA at Basic Prices valuation
Basic prices include production-level taxes (e.g., land revenue, stamp duty) and exclude product-level taxes (e.g., GST, excise). Therefore, GVA at Basic Prices = GVA at Factor Cost + (Production Taxes - Production Subsidies).
Essential for understanding post-2015 revisions in CSO/NSO national income estimation.
2
Analyze Gross National Income (GNI) at Market Prices
GNI shifts the geographic boundary of GDP to residency status by incorporating net factor receipts from non-residents, yielding GNI = GDP at Market Prices + Net Primary Income from Abroad.
Differentiating domestic production territory from national earnings capability.
3
Deconstruct Net National Product (NNP) at Factor Cost
National Income equals NNP at Factor Cost. Starting from NDP at Market Prices, deducting Net Product Taxes adjusts to factor cost, subtracting capital consumption accounts for net output, and adding net foreign income aligns with national residency.
Determining the formal definition of National Income in macroeconomic accounting.
4
Evaluate Green GDP concept
Green GDP measures sustainable economic output by taking standard GDP figures and adjusting for natural capital consumption and environmental externalities.
Integrating environmental accounting into growth indicators.

Key Concept

National Income Accounting Definitions and Price Adjustments
Question 289Question →

Match the revolutionary and left-wing organizations formed during the Indian freedom struggle listed under Column I with their respective key leaders or founders listed under Column II.

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Items

Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (1928)
Indian Independence League (Tokyo Conference, 1942)
Congress Socialist Party (1934)
Communist Party of India formed at Tashkent (1920)

Matches

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Answer

Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (1928) matches Chandrashekhar Azad and Bhagat Singh; Indian Independence League (Tokyo Conference, 1942) matches Rash Behari Bose; Congress Socialist Party (1934) matches Acharya Narendra Deva and Jayaprakash Narayan; Communist Party of India formed at Tashkent (1920) matches M. N. Roy and Abani Mukherji.
Each organization matches its historically documented founders/leaders: the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA, 1928) was spearheaded by Chandrashekhar Azad and Bhagat Singh; the Indian Independence League was organized in Tokyo in 1942 by Rash Behari Bose; the Congress Socialist Party (1934) was led by Acharya Narendra Deva and Jayaprakash Narayan; and the Communist Party of India (Tashkent group, 1920) was set up by M. N. Roy and Abani Mukherji.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the leadership of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
HSRA was established in September 1928 by revolutionaries including Chandrashekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev.
This reorganised HRA by adopting socialism as its official goal.
2
Identify the founder-leader of the Indian Independence League at the Tokyo Conference.
Rash Behari Bose led the conference in Tokyo (1942) to unite Indian expatriates in Southeast Asia.
He subsequently invited Subhas Chandra Bose to take over the leadership of the Indian National Army and League.
3
Identify the key founders of the Congress Socialist Party (CSP).
Acharya Narendra Deva (President) and Jayaprakash Narayan (General Secretary) founded the CSP in 1934.
They sought to steer the Indian National Congress towards a radical socio-economic program.
4
Identify the organizers of the Tashkent group of the Communist Party of India.
M. N. Roy along with Abani Mukherji and others formed the party group in Tashkent in October 1920.
It was created under the auspices of the Comintern after the 2nd World Congress.

Key Concept

Founders, organizations, and leadership of revolutionary and left-wing currents during the Indian National Movement
Question 290Question →

Match the Constitutional Authorities/Officers in List-I with their corresponding Constitutional Safeguards/Conditions of Service in List-II:

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Items

Chief Election Commissioner
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Chairman of a State Public Service Commission
Member of the Union Public Service Commission

Matches

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Answer

The Chief Election Commissioner pairs with removal in like manner as a Supreme Court Judge; the Comptroller and Auditor General of India pairs with total ineligibility for further government employment; the Chairman of a State Public Service Commission pairs with appointment by the Governor but removal exclusively by the President; and a Member of the Union Public Service Commission pairs with eligibility to become Chairman of UPSC or SPSC while being barred from other government jobs.
The correct pairings accurately reflect constitutional provisions: Article 324(5) protects the Chief Election Commissioner with Supreme Court Judge removal parity; Article 148(4) completely debars the CAG from subsequent public employment; Article 316/317 creates a federal safeguard where the Governor appoints but only the President can remove an SPSC Chairman; and Article 319(c) restricts UPSC members to chairmanships of UPSC/SPSC only.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the removal security of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Article 324(5) explicitly equates the removal process and grounds of the CEC to those of a Supreme Court Judge.
Ensures independence of conduct of elections from political executive control.
2
Determine post-retirement restrictions for the Comptroller and Auditor General.
Article 148(4) imposes a complete ban on future government employment under Union or State governments.
Prevents executive inducement or conflict of interest during audit oversight.
3
Analyze appointment vs removal authority for the Chairman of a State Public Service Commission.
The Governor appoints the SPSC Chairman, but removal authority rests solely with the President under Article 317(1).
Guarantees functional independence from state executive interference.
4
Evaluate career progression rules for a UPSC member under Article 319.
A member can only be elevated to Chairman of UPSC or Chairman of an SPSC; all other public employment is prohibited.
Maintains strict neutrality while preserving internal promotion avenues within public service commissions.

Key Concept

Constitutional safeguards, appointing authorities, removal procedures, and post-retirement eligibility rules for constitutional officers.
Question 291Question →

Match the Constitutional Articles governing the State Executive and State Legislature in List-I with their corresponding provisions in List-II:

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Items

Article 165
Article 178
Article 202
Article 210

Matches

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Answer

Article 165 matches with the appointment and duties of the Advocate General for the State; Article 178 matches with the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly; Article 202 matches with the laying of the Annual Financial Statement; and Article 210 matches with the language to be used in the State Legislature.
Each constitutional Article correctly corresponds to its specific state governance mandate: Article 165 provides for the Advocate General for the State, Article 178 mandates the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, Article 202 specifies the laying of the Annual Financial Statement, and Article 210 regulates the language to be used in the State Legislature.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional article establishing the highest law officer in the State Executive.
Article 165 governs the office of the Advocate General for the State.
The Advocate General performs legal duties for the state government as appointed by the Governor under Article 165.
2
Identify the article specifying presiding officers of the State Legislative Assembly.
Article 178 deals with the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
Article 178 mandates the Assembly to choose its Speaker and Deputy Speaker from among its members.
3
Identify the articles governing legislative financial procedure and language rules.
Article 202 mandates the Annual Financial Statement (State Budget), and Article 210 establishes rules regarding the language used in legislative proceedings.
Financial statements in states are presented under Article 202, whereas official transaction language in the legislature is specified under Article 210.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions for the State Executive and Legislature
Question 292Question →

Match the parliamentary terms related to the functioning of the Indian Parliament in Column-I with their correct procedural descriptions in Column-II.

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Items

Prorogation
Adjournment sine die
Quorum
Dissolution

Matches

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Answer

Prorogation matches with ending a session of the House by the President; Adjournment sine die matches with terminating a sitting for an indefinite period; Quorum matches with the minimum membership requirement of one-tenth to conduct business; and Dissolution matches with bringing an end to the life of the Lok Sabha.
Each parliamentary procedural term is correctly paired with its constitutionally specified definition: Prorogation terminates a session via Presidential order, Adjournment sine die suspends a sitting without a specified reassembly date via the Presiding Officer, Quorum establishes the 10% minimum attendance requirement under Article 100(3), and Dissolution terminates the tenure of the Lok Sabha.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze 'Prorogation'
Matches with terminating a session of the House by the President.
Prorogation ends an entire session, unlike an adjournment which only suspends a sitting.
2
Analyze 'Adjournment sine die'
Matches with terminating a sitting for an indefinite period.
'Sine die' literally means without fixing a day; it is exercised by the Speaker/Chairman.
3
Analyze 'Quorum'
Matches with one-tenth of total membership required to conduct proceedings.
Under Article 100(3), a sitting cannot officially take place without this minimum attendance.
4
Analyze 'Dissolution'
Matches with ending the life of the Lok Sabha.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent body not subject to dissolution, whereas Lok Sabha dissolves after its term or on presidential order.

Key Concept

Parliamentary Sittings, Sessions, and Procedural Terminology
Estimated Time:45s
Question 293Question →

Match List-I (Soil Types and Natural Vegetation in India) with List-II (Key Pedological and Ecological Characteristics) to establish the correct relationships.

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Items

Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest
Saline Soil (Usar Soil)
Black Soil (Regur Soil)
Littoral and Swamp Forest

Matches

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Answer

Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest matches with the transitional leaf-shedding forest zone; Saline Soil matches with salt accumulation via capillary action; Black Soil matches with basaltic origin, moisture retention, and self-ploughing; Littoral and Swamp Forest matches with estuarine habitats, pneumatophores, and viviparous germination.
Each item is matched to its authoritative geographic classification in India. Tropical Dry Deciduous forests drop leaves during dry seasons to conserve water; Saline soils form when capillary action brings sodium and magnesium salts to the surface in poorly drained dry areas; Black soils arise from Deccan basalt weathering and display self-ploughing clay characteristics; and Littoral/Swamp forests utilize pneumatophores to survive in submerged coastal marshlands.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the defining physical and biological properties of each entity listed in List-I.
Tropical Dry Deciduous forest is characterized by seasonal leaf shedding; Saline soil features surface salt crusts via capillary action; Black soil exhibits high clay content and basaltic origin; Swamp forest features respiratory roots.
Establishing the core ecological or pedological signature of each term enables accurate matching.
2
Pair each entity from List-I with its matching description in List-II.
Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest corresponds to the description mentioning Teak and summer leaf drop; Saline Soil corresponds to salt accumulation via capillary forces; Black Soil corresponds to basaltic origin and self-ploughing; Littoral/Swamp Forest corresponds to tidal breathing roots.
Verifying all pairs ensures full alignment across the soil and vegetation classifications.

Key Concept

Soil formation mechanisms and natural vegetation adaptations in India
Question 294Question →

Match the 19th-century anti-colonial movements and uprisings in List I with their prominent leaders or organizers in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Ahom Revolt (1828)
Kuka Movement (1872)
Farazi Movement (1838)
Gadkari Uprising (1844)

Matches

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Answer

The correct pairings are: Ahom Revolt (1828) matches Gomdhar Konwar; Kuka Movement (1872) matches Baba Ram Singh; Farazi Movement (1838) matches Dadu Mian; and Gadkari Uprising (1844) matches Daji Krishna Pandit.
Each uprising matches its historical leader: Gomdhar Konwar headed the Ahom rebellion in Assam (1828); Baba Ram Singh led the Kuka movement in Punjab; Dadu Mian spearheaded the agrarian Farazi struggle in Bengal; and Daji Krishna Pandit was associated with the Gadkari revolt in Kolhapur.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical context and key leader for the Ahom Revolt.
The Ahom Revolt occurred in Assam (1828) led by prince Gomdhar Konwar.
It was triggered by the British East India Company attempting to annex Ahom territories after the First Anglo-Burmese War.
2
Associate the Kuka Movement with its primary leader in Punjab.
The Kuka Movement is associated with Baba Ram Singh.
Although initiated by Bhagat Jawahar Mal, Baba Ram Singh organized the Kukas into an active political movement against British dominance in Punjab.
3
Determine the leader of the Farazi Movement in Bengal.
The Farazi Movement is associated with Dadu Mian.
Dadu Mian organized the Farazis into a militant socio-religious and agrarian movement against oppressive local landlords.
4
Match the Gadkari Uprising with its leadership in Maharashtra.
The Gadkari Uprising matches Daji Krishna Pandit.
The Gadkaris, a garrison class of Maratha forts in Kolhapur, revolted when subjected to retrenchment and administrative restructuring.

Key Concept

Leadership and Regional Centers of 19th-Century Peasant, Tribal, and Anti-Colonial Uprisings
Question 295Question →

Match the economic planning institutions and structural reform committees in List-I with their corresponding primary objectives or chairpersons in List-II:

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Items

National Development Council (NDC)
NITI Aayog Governing Council
Tax Reforms Committee (1991)
Disinvestment Commission (1996)

Matches

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Answer

The National Development Council (NDC) pairs with the apex body for Five-Year Plan approval (1952); NITI Aayog Governing Council pairs with the body comprising State Chief Ministers and UT Lt. Governors; Tax Reforms Committee (1991) pairs with Dr. Raja J. Chelliah; and Disinvestment Commission (1996) pairs with G.V. Ramakrishna.
The correct pairings align each institutional body or committee with its defining mandate or leader: National Development Council approved Five-Year Plans starting in 1952; NITI Aayog Governing Council brings together State CMs and UT Lt. Governors; Tax Reforms Committee (1991) was led by Raja J. Chelliah; and Disinvestment Commission (1996) was led by G.V. Ramakrishna.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mandate of historical planning institutional bodies prior to NITI Aayog.
The National Development Council (NDC), founded in 1952, served as the ultimate plan-approving body bringing together central and state leadership.
It anchored inter-governmental approval for five-year development frameworks.
2
Examine the structure of NITI Aayog's decision-making council.
The Governing Council directly involves Chief Ministers of all states and Union Territory administrators/Lt. Governors.
This structural change ensures continuous state participation under the principle of cooperative federalism.
3
Match the key post-1991 economic reform committees with their leaders.
Raja Chelliah headed the Tax Reforms Committee (1991), while G.V. Ramakrishna chaired the Disinvestment Commission (1996).
These committees laid the institutional groundwork for tax structure simplification and public enterprise restructuring after the 1991 LPG reforms.

Key Concept

Planning Institutions, NITI Aayog Framework, and Post-1991 Reform Committees
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 296Question →

Match the following historical conspiracy cases associated with revolutionary nationalism and left-wing currents in colonial India with their correct feature or associated key figures:

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Items

Alipore Conspiracy Case (1908)
Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case (1924)
Chittagong Armoury Raid (1930)
Second Lahore Conspiracy Case (1929–1930)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Alipore Conspiracy Case matches the trial of Aurobindo Ghosh and Barindra Ghosh. Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case matches the prosecution of early communist leaders including S. A. Dange and Muzaffar Ahmad. Chittagong Armoury Raid matches the armed assault led by Surya Sen under the Indian Republican Army. Second Lahore Conspiracy Case matches the martyrdom of Jatin Das after a 63-day hunger strike.
Each revolutionary conspiracy case correctly corresponds to its primary event and key figures: Alipore with Aurobindo and Barindra Ghosh, Kanpur Bolshevik with S. A. Dange and Muzaffar Ahmad, Chittagong Armoury Raid with Surya Sen's Indian Republican Army, and Second Lahore Conspiracy Case with Jatin Das's hunger strike.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the Alipore Conspiracy Case (1908).
It pertained to the secret bomb manufacturing at Manicktolla and the Muzaffarpur bombing, leading to the arrest of Aurobindo and Barindra Ghosh.
Connects early 20th-century revolutionary terrorism in Bengal with Anushilan Samiti leadership.
2
Analyze the Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case (1924).
It targeted communist activists accused of attempting to deprive the King-Emperor of sovereignty in India.
Identifies early British legal crackdowns against nascent left-wing socialist organization.
3
Analyze the Chittagong Armoury Raid (1930).
It was an organized military-style raid on British police and auxiliary armouries by the Indian Republican Army.
Associates Surya Sen's revolutionary leadership in Bengal during the 1930s.
4
Analyze the Second Lahore Conspiracy Case (1929–1930).
Revolutionary trial undertrials protested jail conditions, culminating in Jatin Das's 63-day hunger strike martyrdom.
Highlights the prison resistance campaign launched by HSRA members in Lahore.

Key Concept

Major conspiracy cases, trials, and key figures of revolutionary nationalism and left-wing currents in India.
Question 297Question →

Match the statutory bodies in India listed in List-I with their corresponding enacting Acts of Parliament in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
Central Information Commission (CIC)
Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
National Commission for Women (NCW)

Matches

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Answer

The National Human Rights Commission pairs with the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993; the Central Information Commission pairs with the Right to Information Act, 2005; the Central Vigilance Commission pairs with the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003; and the National Commission for Women pairs with the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.
Each listed non-constitutional statutory body derives its authority from a dedicated Act of Parliament: the National Human Rights Commission from the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993; the Central Information Commission from the Right to Information Act, 2005; the Central Vigilance Commission from the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003; and the National Commission for Women from the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the governing statute for the National Human Rights Commission.
Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
The NHRC was created by Parliament under this Act to safeguard human rights.
2
Identify the governing statute for the Central Information Commission.
Right to Information Act, 2005
The CIC was constituted as the chief appellate authority under the RTI Act, 2005.
3
Identify the governing statute conferring statutory status on the Central Vigilance Commission.
Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
Originally established by executive resolution in 1964, the CVC gained statutory status via the 2003 legislation.
4
Identify the governing statute for the National Commission for Women.
National Commission for Women Act, 1990
The NCW was established in January 1992 in accordance with the statutory mandate of the 1990 Act.

Key Concept

Statutory Bodies and Enacting Legislation
Question 298Question →

Match the following judicial instruments and doctrines of the Indian Judiciary listed in List-I with their corresponding legal principles or landmark origins in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Writ of Quo-Warranto
Writ of Certiorari
Relaxation of Locus Standi
Curative Petition

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches are: Writ of Quo-Warranto matches with the inquiry into the legality of a person's claim to a public office; Writ of Certiorari matches with quashing an order passed in excess of jurisdiction; Relaxation of Locus Standi matches with formalization in S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981); and Curative Petition matches with evolution in Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra (2002).
The matching correctly pairs each judicial instrument with its foundational definition or landmark legal source. Quo-Warranto scrutinizes public office holdings, Certiorari quashes jurisdictional excesses, PIL locus standi relaxation originates from the landmark S.P. Gupta case, and Curative Petitions stem from Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the nature of the Writ of Quo-Warranto.
Quo-Warranto directly tests the legal title of a person occupying a substantive public office, matching the description of inquiring into the claim to a public office.
It prevents unauthorized occupation of public positions.
2
Analyze the nature and function of the Writ of Certiorari.
Certiorari is issued against judicial/quasi-judicial bodies to quash existing illegal orders, matching the quashing of orders issued in excess of jurisdiction.
Unlike prohibition (which stops pending proceedings), certiorari quashes completed decisions.
3
Examine the origin of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) and locus standi expansion.
The traditional rule of locus standi was expanded in S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981) to allow third parties to litigate for public injury.
This case laid the foundational jurisprudential framework for PIL in India.
4
Identify the origin and principle behind Curative Petitions.
Curative Petitions were created in Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra (2002) as a rare remedy following the dismissal of a review petition under Article 137.
It ensures complete justice under Article 142 while maintaining finality of judgments.

Key Concept

Constitutional Writs, Judicial Remedies, and Landmark Judicial Doctrines of the Indian Judiciary
Question 299Question →

Match the Constitutional Provisions listed under List-I with their corresponding Objectives or Scope described under List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 20(3)
Article 38(2)
Article 48A
Article 51A(f)

Matches

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Answer

Article 20(3) corresponds to protection against self-incrimination; Article 38(2) corresponds to the directive to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities; Article 48A corresponds to the mandate for the State to protect the environment, forests, and wildlife; and Article 51A(f) corresponds to the duty of citizens to value and preserve the rich heritage of composite culture.
Article 20(3) provides fundamental right protection against self-incrimination. Article 38(2) is a DPSP introduced by the 44th Amendment requiring the State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities. Article 48A is a DPSP introduced by the 42nd Amendment requiring the State to protect the environment, forests, and wildlife. Article 51A(f) is a Fundamental Duty under Part IVA obligating citizens to preserve composite culture.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the Fundamental Right provision under Part III
Article 20(3) explicitly protects an accused person from being compelled to testify against themselves (protection against self-incrimination).
Part III provisions constitute justiciable Fundamental Rights protecting personal liberties.
2
Identify the Directive Principles of State Policy under Part IV
Article 38(2) directs the State to minimize economic and social inequalities, whereas Article 48A mandates the protection of environment, forests, and wildlife by the State.
Part IV sets out non-justiciable constitutional directives guiding State policymaking and governance.
3
Identify the Fundamental Duty under Part IVA
Article 51A(f) articulates the moral obligation of citizens to value and preserve the nation's composite cultural heritage.
Part IVA enumerates duties expected from citizens to uphold national ethos and unity.

Key Concept

Constitutional classification and provisions across Part III (Fundamental Rights), Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy), and Part IVA (Fundamental Duties).
Question 300Question →

Match the central administrative officials of the Delhi Sultanate listed in List-I with their corresponding administrative functions listed in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Barid-i-Mamalik
Amir-i-Hajib
Mustaufi-i-Mamalik
Mushrif-i-Mamalik

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Barid-i-Mamalik corresponds to the head of state intelligence; Amir-i-Hajib corresponds to the master of royal court ceremonies; Mustaufi-i-Mamalik corresponds to the Auditor-General for state expenditure; and Mushrif-i-Mamalik corresponds to the Accountant-General for revenue records.
In the central administrative structure of the Delhi Sultanate, specialized ministers and officers assisted the Sultan: Barid-i-Mamalik managed the state news and intelligence department; Amir-i-Hajib oversaw royal court ceremonies and access protocol; Mustaufi-i-Mamalik served as Auditor-General of expenditure; and Mushrif-i-Mamalik served as Accountant-General of income records.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the responsibility of Barid-i-Mamalik
Barid-i-Mamalik supervised news writers (barids) and state intelligence gathering.
This establishes the match between Barid-i-Mamalik and state intelligence.
2
Identify the duty of Amir-i-Hajib
Amir-i-Hajib maintained royal protocol, handled petitions, and arranged court ceremonies.
This matches Amir-i-Hajib with master of ceremonies at the royal court.
3
Distinguish between Mustaufi-i-Mamalik and Mushrif-i-Mamalik
Mustaufi-i-Mamalik audited state expenditure while Mushrif-i-Mamalik kept income and revenue accounting books.
This pairs Mustaufi-i-Mamalik with Auditor-General and Mushrif-i-Mamalik with Accountant-General.

Key Concept

Delhi Sultanate Central Administration and Official Roles
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