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Question 3561Question →

Which clean energy technology utilizes the natural temperature difference between warm surface seawater and cold deep ocean water to vaporize a working fluid and drive a turbine for electricity generation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)

Answer

Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) is the ocean energy technology that converts solar radiation absorbed by the oceans into electric power by utilizing the thermal difference between warm surface water and cold deep water.
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) operates as a thermodynamic heat engine taking advantage of the temperature difference between warm ocean surface water (heated by the sun) and cold deep water pumped from lower ocean depths.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary source of energy described in the prompt
The energy source relies on the temperature difference (thermal gradient) between shallow warm sea surface layers and deep cold ocean waters.
Different ocean energy technologies convert different physical phenomena (waves, tides, thermal gradients, or osmotic pressure).
2
Correlate the physical mechanism with the proper technological term
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) requires a temperature difference of at least 20∘C20^\circ\text{C} (36∘F36^\circ\text{F}) between surface and deep waters to operate a Rankine thermodynamic cycle efficiently.
Warm surface water turns a low-boiling-point working fluid (such as ammonia) into vapor to spin a generator, while cold deep water condenses it back to liquid.

Key Concept

Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) operating principle
Question 3562Question →

The Rampa Rebellion (1922–1924), an armed uprising against British colonial authorities in the Godavari agency region, was led by which of the following freedom fighters?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Alluri Sitarama Raju

Answer

Alluri Sitarama Raju
Alluri Sitarama Raju organized the tribal people of the Chodavaram and Narsipatnam forest areas in the Godavari region to fight against the British colonial government's forest restrictions. Using guerrilla tactics, he spearheaded the Rampa Rebellion from 1922 until his martyrdom in 1924.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the historical movement and regional context
The Rampa Rebellion took place between 1922 and 1924 in the Godavari agency region of Andhra Pradesh (then part of the Madras Presidency).
The rebellion was organized against the oppressive British Madras Forest Act of 1882.
2
Identify the leader of the Rampa Rebellion
Alluri Sitarama Raju mobilized the tribal population (Adivasis) and organized guerrilla warfare against the British forces.
He is famously known as 'Manyam Veerudu' (Hero of the Jungles) for leading this uprising.

Key Concept

Rampa Rebellion and Tribal Freedom Movements in State History
Estimated Time:45s
Question 3563Question →

Match List-I (International Environmental Agreement/Convention) with List-II (Primary Objective/Focus Area) and select the correct matching pair combinations:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Ramsar Convention
Bonn Convention (CMS)
Basel Convention
Vienna Convention

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Ramsar Convention matches with Conservation and wise use of wetlands; Bonn Convention (CMS) matches with Conservation of migratory species of wild animals throughout their range; Basel Convention matches with Control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal; Vienna Convention matches with Framework for international efforts to protect the ozone layer.
The Ramsar Convention directly addresses wetland conservation and wise use; the Bonn Convention (CMS) addresses migratory fauna conservation across geographic ranges; the Basel Convention restricts and regulates hazardous waste movements across borders; and the Vienna Convention establishes the framework protocol for stratospheric ozone layer protection.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary focus of the Ramsar Convention.
Ramsar Convention (adopted in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran) is dedicated to the conservation and wise use of wetlands.
Establishing correct pairing for wetland ecosystem protection.
2
Identify the mandate of the Bonn Convention.
The Bonn Convention (Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals - CMS) targets migratory species habitat protection and range management.
Distinguishing species-specific biodiversity agreements from waste or chemical treaties.
3
Determine the focus area of the Basel Convention.
The Basel Convention specifically governs transboundary movements of hazardous waste and their disposal.
Differentiating chemical and waste treaties from biodiversity conventions.
4
Determine the scope of the Vienna Convention.
The Vienna Convention (1985) serves as the overarching framework agreement for global ozone layer protection initiatives.
Identifying atmosphere/climate-related international agreements.

Key Concept

Core mandates and primary objectives of major international multilateral environmental agreements (MEAs).
Question 3564Question →

With reference to the applications of nanotechnology in biomedicine and healthcare, consider the following statements:

1. Gold nanoparticles exhibit localized Surface Plasmon Resonance (SPR), enabling their usage in high-sensitivity optical biosensors and targeted photothermal cancer therapy.
2. Liposomes are solid metallic nanostructures engineered to permanently integrate into host genome sequences during targeted drug delivery.
3. Dendrimers are highly branched, spherical synthetic macromolecules possessing well-defined molecular architectures that allow precise encapsulation of therapeutic agents for controlled drug release.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The correct response identifies statements 1 and 3 as true while recognizing statement 2 as false. Gold nanoparticles utilize Surface Plasmon Resonance for diagnostics and hyperthermic tumor therapy, whereas dendrimers provide controlled drug loading due to their branched polymeric structure. Liposomes are lipid vesicles rather than metallic gene-altering particles.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Gold Nanoparticles
Statement 1 is correct.
Gold nanoparticles undergo localized surface plasmon resonance (LSPR) when light interacts with conduction electrons on their surface, making them excellent candidates for biosensing, bio-imaging, and photothermal ablation of cancer cells.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Liposomes
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Liposomes are microscopic spherical vesicles composed of phospholipid bilayers surrounding an aqueous core. They are non-metallic lipid-based drug delivery vehicles and do not alter or integrate into host DNA.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Dendrimers
Statement 3 is correct.
Dendrimers are nanometer-scale, highly branched, 3D synthetic polymers with high functionality at their surface, ideal for drug encapsulation, targeted delivery, and gene therapy.

Key Concept

Nanomedicine and Nanobiotechnology Applications (Gold Nanoparticles, Liposomes, Dendrimers)
Question 3565Question →

Which unit of measurement is standardly used to express the total column concentration or abundance of ozone in Earth's atmosphere?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Dobson Unit (DUDU)

Answer

The Dobson Unit (DUDU) is the standard unit for measuring atmospheric column ozone abundance.
The Dobson Unit (DUDU) is internationally recognized as the standard metric for total column ozone. An average atmospheric ozone layer thickness is approximately 300 DU300\text{ DU}, which equates to a compressed pure ozone layer of 3 mm3\text{ mm} at STPSTP.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the physical quantity being measured.
The total amount of ozone present in a vertical column of the atmosphere.
The question asks for the specific unit representing column ozone abundance.
2
Recall the standard meteorological and environmental metric for column ozone.
One Dobson Unit (1 DU1\text{ DU}) corresponds to a layer of pure ozone 0.01 mm0.01\text{ mm} thick at standard temperature and pressure (STPSTP).
This metric standardizes measurements from ground-based spectrophotometers and satellite sensors.

Key Concept

Measurement of Total Atmospheric Column Ozone
Estimated Time:45s
Question 3566Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the GDP Deflator and the Consumer Price Index (CPI) in national income accounting:

I. The GDP Deflator reflects the prices of all domestically produced final goods and services, whereas the CPI reflects the prices of a representative basket of goods and services consumed by households.
II. Prices of imported consumer goods directly affect the GDP Deflator but have no impact on the CPI.
III. The weights of items in the GDP Deflator automatically adjust with changes in the composition of national output, whereas the CPI basket weights remain fixed until a base year revision occurs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: I and III only

Answer

Statements I and III only are correct.
The correct option identifies that Statements I and III are true while Statement II is false. The GDP Deflator measures price changes across all goods and services produced within national boundaries, and its weights change dynamically as the output composition evolves. In contrast, imported goods are completely excluded from GDP and its deflator, but affect the CPI if consumed by households.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement I regarding scope of coverage
Statement I is correct. The GDP Deflator encompasses all domestically produced goods and services included in GDP. The CPI covers a specific basket of goods and services purchased by typical urban and rural households.
Scope of coverage distinguishes production-based price deflators from consumption-based price indices.
2
Analyze Statement II regarding treatment of imported goods
Statement II is incorrect. Since GDP measures only domestic production, imported goods are excluded from GDP and thus have no direct effect on the GDP Deflator. Conversely, imported consumer goods (e.g., imported edible oil or electronics) form part of the household consumption basket and affect the CPI.
GDP Deflator measures domestic output prices, while CPI measures consumer expenditure prices regardless of origin.
3
Analyze Statement III regarding weighting mechanism
Statement III is correct. The GDP Deflator uses current-period quantities as weights (Paasche index concept), allowing weights to automatically shift with current production patterns. CPI uses fixed base-year quantity weights until an official rebasing occurs.
Difference in weighting formula between implicit price deflators and fixed-basket consumer indices.

Key Concept

Comparison of GDP Deflator and Consumer Price Index (CPI) in National Income Deflating
Question 3567Question →

Match the environmental terms and metrics in List-I with their corresponding atmospheric characteristics or definitions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Global Warming Potential (GWP)
Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs)
Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP)
Radiative Forcing

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Global Warming Potential (GWP) pairs with the measure of heat trapped relative to carbon dioxide; Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs) pair with high-altitude polar clouds providing surfaces for chlorine activation; Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP) pairs with relative measure of ozone destruction standardized against CFC-11; and Radiative Forcing pairs with net change in Earth's energy balance.
Each item in List-I corresponds directly to its standard environmental science definition: Global Warming Potential evaluates heat-trapping relative to CO2\text{CO}_2; Polar Stratospheric Clouds provide heterogeneous reaction sites for polar chlorine activation; Ozone Depletion Potential measures stratospheric destruction efficiency compared to CFC-11; and Radiative Forcing expresses net changes in Earth's energy balance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the definition of Global Warming Potential (GWP)
GWP is a normalized index comparing the radiative effect of a greenhouse gas to CO2\text{CO}_2.
By definition, CO2\text{CO}_2 serves as the baseline gas with a GWP of 1.
2
Identify the function of Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs)
PSCs facilitate chemical reactions in extreme polar cold that release active chlorine compounds.
These heterogeneous cloud surface reactions are essential to polar ozone hole formation during spring.
3
Identify the definition of Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP)
ODP measures ozone degradation efficiency relative to CFC-11.
CFC-11 is the internationally accepted standard substance assigned an ODP of 1.0.
4
Identify the definition of Radiative Forcing
Radiative forcing quantifies the energy imbalance in Earth's climate system.
Positive forcing leads to surface warming, while negative forcing causes cooling.

Key Concept

Key Metrics and Atmospheric Processes in Climate Science and Ozone Layer Depletion
Question 3568Question →

Match the national income accounting terms and development indicators in List-I with their correct conceptual definitions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Gross Value Added (GVAGVA) at Basic Prices
Net National Product (NNPNNP) at Factor Cost
Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPIMPI)
Planetary pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (PHDIPHDI)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Gross Value Added at Basic Prices matches with Gross Value Added at factor cost plus net production taxes. Net National Product at Factor Cost matches with the total factor income generated by normal residents of a nation (National Income). Global Multidimensional Poverty Index matches with an index capturing acute micro-level deprivations across health, education, and living standards. Planetary pressures-adjusted Human Development Index matches with an indicator adjusting HDI to reflect environmental impact based on per capita carbon dioxide emissions and material footprint.
Each aggregate and indicator correctly pairs with its exact mathematical or conceptual definition: Gross Value Added at basic prices equals GVA at factor cost plus net production taxes; Net National Product at factor cost equals National Income; the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index measures multi-dimensional deprivations across health, education, and living standard dimensions; and the Planetary pressures-adjusted Human Development Index factors in per capita carbon dioxide emissions and material footprint.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Gross Value Added at Basic Prices
Basic price includes production taxes (e.g., land revenue, stamp duty) minus production subsidies (e.g., railway subsidies), but excludes product taxes/subsidies.
Differentiates GVA at basic prices from GVA at factor cost and GDP at market prices.
2
Evaluate Net National Product at Factor Cost
NNP at factor cost represents the total income earned by factors of production (rent, wages, interest, profit) owned by normal residents.
This aggregate is formally defined as National Income.
3
Identify Multidimensional Poverty Index definition
MPI measures non-monetary deprivations across 10 indicators spanning health, education, and standard of living.
Provides a comprehensive assessment of poverty beyond income levels.
4
Examine Planetary pressures-adjusted HDI
PHDI scales HDI by multiplying it by an adjustment factor derived from carbon emissions and material footprint per capita.
Reflects human development while accounting for environmental sustainability.

Key Concept

National Income Aggregates and Human Development Metrics
Question 3569Question →

With reference to cybersecurity threats and malicious software mechanisms, consider the following statements:

1. A computer worm can self-replicate and spread across computer networks autonomously without needing to attach itself to an existing host file or program.
2. A Trojan horse actively replicates itself and infects other files across the operating system once executed by the user.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

Statement 1 only is correct. A computer worm is a standalone malware program that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers across network links without needing a host program or human action. Conversely, a Trojan horse relies on tricking a user into executing it and does not replicate or spread automatically like viruses or worms.
The statement identifying worms as autonomous, host-independent malware is accurate. Computer worms exploit network protocols and system vulnerabilities to replicate across nodes without requiring user interaction or attaching to executable host code. Conversely, Trojan horses hide malicious payloads inside seemingly harmless files and do not possess self-replication routines.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding computer worms.
Statement 1 is verified as true. Worms use network interfaces and protocols to scan for vulnerable systems and self-propagate automatically.
Understanding the self-contained and autonomous propagation mechanism of worms in network security.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Trojan horses.
Statement 2 is identified as false. Trojan horses rely on social engineering and stealth, lacking the self-replication feature of viruses and worms.
Distinguishing between malware types based on replication capabilities and delivery vectors.
3
Select the option that matches the verified statement accuracy.
Only Statement 1 is correct.
Synthesizing individual statement assessments into the correct option choice.

Key Concept

Classification and Propagation Characteristics of Computer Worms vs. Trojan Horses
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3570Question →

Regarding biogeographical endemism, palaeo-endemism, and the precise spatial boundaries of global biodiversity hotspots overlapping Indian territory, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Palaeo-endemic species represent phylogenetically ancient lineages that were once widespread but are now geographically restricted to specific refugia like the Western Ghats.; The Sundaland biodiversity hotspot extends into Indian territory to include the Nicobar Islands, hosting endemic fauna such as the Nicobar megapode.

Answer

The statements confirming that palaeo-endemics are ancient lineages restricted to refugia and that the Sundaland hotspot encompasses the Nicobar Islands are correct.
Palaeo-endemics are relict taxa preserved in stable microclimatic refugia such as the Western Ghats. Additionally, the Sundaland hotspot geographically incorporates the Nicobar Islands, where distinct endemic species like the Nicobar megapode reside.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze evolutionary concepts of endemism
Palaeo-endemism correctly describes ancient species whose historical range has shrunk to specific refugia, whereas neo-endemism involves recently evolved species.
Differentiates ecological age and evolutionary history of endemic flora and fauna.
2
Delineate spatial limits of Indian biodiversity hotspots
The Indo-Burma hotspot covers Northeastern India south of the Brahmaputra River. The Himalayan hotspot covers regions north of the Brahmaputra including Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh. The Sundaland hotspot covers the Nicobar Islands.
Prevents biogeographical misattribution between adjacent hotspot regions.
3
Evaluate conservation status categorization metrics
Endemic status describes spatial distribution, whereas IUCN Red List criteria evaluate demographic factors, population reduction, and habitat loss.
Disentangles ecological concepts of endemism from formal conservation risk assessment categories.

Key Concept

Hotspot Biogeography and Endemism Mechanics
Question 3571Question →

Which of the following international conventions specifically adopted the binding target of achieving 'Land Degradation Neutrality' (LDN) as a core strategic objective for sustainable land management?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)

Answer

United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is the designated international treaty addressing land degradation, drought, and desertification. At COP 12, state parties formally endorsed Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN)—a state whereby the amount and quality of land resources necessary to support ecosystem functions remain stable or increase—as a core policy goal.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core objective presented in the stem.
The target objective is 'Land Degradation Neutrality' (LDN), which aims to balance land degradation with land restoration.
Recognizing the mandate of global treaties requires connecting specific ecological metrics with their governing international bodies.
2
Evaluate the primary scope of each listed environmental convention.
UNCCD addresses desertification and land degradation; CBD addresses biodiversity; UNFCCC addresses climate change; Ramsar addresses wetland ecosystems.
Differentiating the primary focus areas of the Rio Conventions and specialized treaties eliminates incorrect choices.
3
Select the governing body responsible for Land Degradation Neutrality.
The UNCCD officially adopted Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) as a central strategic target aligned with Sustainable Development Goal 15.3.
UNCCD is the sole legally binding international agreement linking sustainable land management to environmental development.

Key Concept

Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) under the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
Question 3572Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the process of decomposition in an ecosystem and its role in nutrient cycling:

1. Decomposition rate is significantly slower if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin, whereas it is faster if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substances like sugars.
2. Warm and moist environmental conditions severely inhibit microbial activity, leading to slow decomposition and the accumulation of organic matter.
3. Mineralization is the step in decomposition where microbes further degrade humus to release inorganic nutrients into the soil.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

The statement combination '1 and 3 only' is correct.
Decomposition is a foundational ecological function that recycles nutrients bound in dead organic matter back into abiotic pools. Statement 1 accurately states chemical substrate controls: detritus rich in chitin and lignin decomposes slowly due to complex chemical bonds, while nitrogen and water-soluble sugars decay rapidly. Statement 3 correctly defines mineralization as the final microbial breakdown of humus releasing inorganic plant nutrients. Statement 2 is false because warm and moist climates accelerate microbial respiration and decay; cold and anaerobic environments are what inhibit decomposition.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding chemical composition of detritus
Statement 1 is correct
Structural polymers like lignin and chitin are resistant to enzymatic degradation, slowing decomposition, while nitrogenous compounds and soluble sugars are easily metabolized by decomposers.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding climatic factors influencing decomposition
Statement 2 is incorrect
Warm temperatures and high moisture favor microbial metabolism and oxygen diffusion, thereby accelerating decomposition. Low temperatures and anaerobic conditions inhibit decomposition.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the definition of mineralization
Statement 3 is correct
Humification forms dark colloidal humus, which is subsequently mineralized by specific soil microbes to yield inorganic minerals (NH4+NH_4^+, PO43−PO_4^{3-}, Ca2+Ca^{2+}, etc.).

Key Concept

Factors regulating ecosystem decomposition rate and steps of nutrient mineralization
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3573Question →

With reference to economic concepts related to inflation dynamics and price controls, consider the following statements:

1. Inflation tax refers to the implicit economic penalty borne by individuals holding cash balances, as rising price levels erode purchasing power and effectively transfer real resources to net debtors.
2. Disinflation describes a economic condition where the general price level of goods and services persistently declines below zero over time.
3. Core inflation measures general price level changes while excluding volatile commodity groups such as food and energy items.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
The correct answer identifies that Statement 1 and Statement 3 are correct. Inflation tax refers to the loss of purchasing power on money held during inflationary periods, effectively benefiting net debtors. Core inflation isolates non-volatile economic price changes by excluding food and energy elements. Statement 2 is false because a negative rate of inflation is termed deflation, whereas disinflation simply means a slowdown in positive inflation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding inflation tax.
Inflation tax is the financial loss incurred by cash holders during inflation. As price levels increase, the real value of uninvested currency declines, which acts as a transfer of real purchasing power from cash holders to net debtors (like government issuers of fiat currency). Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
Inflation diminishes the real purchasing power of monetary units.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding disinflation.
Disinflation refers to a slowdown in the rate of inflation (e.g., inflation falling from 6% to 3%), while price levels continue to rise at a slower pace. Deflation, not disinflation, refers to a period where general price levels drop below zero. Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Distinguishing between a decline in the rate of inflation and an absolute fall in general price levels.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding core inflation.
Core inflation is calculated by taking headline consumer inflation and removing volatile components like food and fuel/energy prices to reflect underlying long-term price trends. Thus, Statement 3 is correct.
Core inflation isolates non-volatile structural price changes.

Key Concept

Inflation Taxonomy and Measurement Metrics
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 3574Question →

Consider the following statements regarding ecosystem structure, ecological niches, and community boundaries:

1. An ecological niche encompasses not only the physical microhabitat occupied by a species, but also its functional role and trophic interactions within the community.
2. In open-water aquatic ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass is typically inverted because the standing crop of producers at any given moment is lower than that of primary consumers, supported by a high turnover rate of phytoplankton.
3. An ecotone represents a sharp boundary zone that consistently exhibits lower total species richness and lower population density than either of the adjoining biological communities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The correct response identifies statements 1 and 2 as true while recognizing statement 3 as false. Ecological niches integrate both spatial habitat requirements and functional community roles. In aquatic ecosystems, rapid reproduction rates of producers create an inverted biomass pyramid despite a upright energy pyramid. Conversely, ecotones exhibit increased species richness and density due to the edge effect, contradicting the claim of reduced diversity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding ecological niche definition.
Statement 1 is correct.
An ecological niche includes the physical space (habitat niche), functional role (trophic niche), and environmental tolerance limits of a species.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding biomass pyramid in aquatic ecosystems.
Statement 2 is correct.
Phytoplankton have a very short lifespan and high productivity rate (turnover), allowing a small standing crop biomass to support a larger biomass of longer-lived zooplankton and fish, resulting in an inverted pyramid of biomass.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding structural characteristics of an ecotone.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
An ecotone is a transition zone between two biomes (e.g., mangrove forest between terrestrial forest and marine aquatic system). Due to the 'edge effect', ecotones frequently harbor greater biodiversity, higher population densities, and specialized 'edge species' compared to neighboring communities.

Key Concept

Ecological Niche, Aquatic Pyramids of Biomass, and Edge Effect in Ecotones
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3575Question →

Match the following Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) scientific missions listed in List-I with their primary scientific objectives and operational characteristics listed in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

XPoSAT
Aditya-L1
NISAR
AstroSat

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

XPoSAT matches with X-ray polarization measurement in low Earth orbit; Aditya-L1 matches with solar corona observation from the Sun-Earth L1 halo orbit; NISAR matches with dual-frequency radar imaging of land and ice surfaces; AstroSat matches with multi-wavelength astronomical observations across optical, UV, and X-ray bands.
Each ISRO scientific mission is correctly paired with its specific objective and operational domain: XPoSAT performs polarimetric X-ray study of cosmic sources; Aditya-L1 monitors the Sun from the L1 halo orbit; NISAR performs dual-frequency radar Earth imaging; and AstroSat operates as a multi-wavelength space observatory.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary science payload objective of XPoSAT
XPoSAT focuses on polarimetric study of cosmic X-ray sources, matching with measuring X-ray emission polarization.
The POLIX payload on XPoSAT specifically measures polarization parameters in the 8-30 keV energy band.
2
Identify the orbital placement and research domain of Aditya-L1
Aditya-L1 is placed at the L1 Lagrangian point for uninterrupted solar observation.
Lagrangian Point 1 provides an unobstructed view of the Sun without earth eclipses or occultations.
3
Identify the technological feature of NISAR
NISAR employs dual-frequency (L-band and S-band) SAR technology for Earth observation.
NASA contributes the L-band SAR and ISRO contributes the S-band SAR for surface deformation tracking.
4
Identify the primary observational capability of AstroSat
AstroSat provides multi-wavelength coverage across UV, optical, and X-ray regimes.
AstroSat carries multiple payloads operating simultaneously across different wavebands.

Key Concept

ISRO Space Exploration and Astronomy Missions
Question 3576Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the physical relief, passes, and drainage features of the Western Ghats mountain range:

1. The Palghat Gap is a prominent low-pass break in the Western Ghats that separates the Nilgiri Hills to the north from the Anaimalai Hills to the south.
2. Major rivers originating on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, such as the Godavari and Krishna, flow across the Deccan Plateau and form estuaries rather than deltas at their mouths along the Bay of Bengal.
3. The steep western escarpment of the Western Ghats acts as an orographic barrier to the Arabian Sea branch of the Southwest Monsoon, causing heavy precipitation on the windward coastal side and creating a rain-shadow region on the leeward eastern side.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Palghat Gap separates the Nilgiri Hills from the Anaimalai Hills, and the western escarpment induces strong orographic rainfall during the Southwest Monsoon. Statement 2 is incorrect because rivers flowing east into the Bay of Bengal build large deltas, not estuaries.
The option selecting statements 1 and 3 only is correct. Palghat Gap physically splits the Nilgiri and Anaimalai hill ranges, and the steep western slope causes heavy orographic rain on the windward side. Statement 2 is false because east-flowing rivers form deltas at their mouths along the Bay of Bengal, whereas estuaries are formed by west-flowing rivers along the Arabian Sea.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding mountain pass physical geography
Statement 1 is TRUE. Palghat (Palakkad) Gap is a major mountain pass approximately 30 km wide in the Western Ghats located between the Nilgiri Hills to its north and the Anaimalai Hills to its south.
Topographic map alignment confirms Palghat Gap's position separating these two hill clusters.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding river drainage features and coastal landforms
Statement 2 is FALSE. Rivers originating on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats (such as Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri) traverse long distances across gentle gentle slopes to the east, carrying large volumes of sediment and forming vast deltas. Estuaries are characteristic of short, swift west-flowing rivers along the Arabian Sea coast.
Distinguishing between east-flowing delta-forming systems and west-flowing estuary-forming systems is a fundamental coastal hydrography rule.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding atmospheric driving forces and relief interaction
Statement 3 is TRUE. The continuous elevation of the Western Ghats forces incoming moisture-laden monsoon winds from the Arabian Sea to rise, producing intense orographic rainfall along the windward western coastal plain, while leaving the eastern plateau in a rain shadow.
Orographic uplift against physical relief features controls micro-climate distribution across the state topography.

Key Concept

Physical relief features, pass alignment, and river landform dynamics of the Western Ghats
Question 3577Question →

Regarding the statutory bodies and enforcement mechanisms established under National Environmental Legislation in India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.; The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
The Central Ground Water Authority was formally constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Additionally, the National Board for Wildlife is a statutory body constituted under Section 5A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Both statements accurately describe statutory origins.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate statutory origin of the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA)
The CGWA was created pursuant to orders of the Supreme Court under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Verifying statutory authorization for environmental authorities in India.
2
Evaluate statutory origin of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
The CPCB was established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
Identifying the precise enacting statute for central pollution regulatory bodies.
3
Evaluate statutory origin of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)
The NBWL was constituted under Section 5A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Checking governing legislation for national wildlife protection authorities.
4
Evaluate procedural framework governing the National Green Tribunal (NGT)
The NGT is guided by principles of natural justice and is explicitly exempt from strict adherence to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Distinguishing judicial procedure rules from natural justice mandates of specialized tribunals.

Key Concept

Statutory basis and procedural mandates of environmental regulatory bodies in India
Question 3578Question →

With reference to the constitutional provisions empowering the Parliament of India to legislate on matters enumerated in the State List, consider the following statements:

1. A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha under Article 249 authorizing Parliament to make laws on a State List subject must be supported by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
2. A law passed by Parliament under Article 249 ceases to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
3. During the operation of a Proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352, Parliament acquires the power to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to any of the matters in the State List under Article 250.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct regarding parliamentary power to legislate on State List subjects under Articles 249 and 250.
All three statements are constitutionally accurate. Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha can declare by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of members present and voting that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to make laws on a State List subject. Such a law remains valid for up to six months after the resolution ceases to be in force. Furthermore, under Article 250, during a National Emergency under Article 352, Parliament automatically gains concurrent legislative authority over all subjects in the State List.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Article 249 majority requirement
Statement 1 is correct. Article 249(1) explicitly requires a resolution in the Rajya Sabha to be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in the national interest.
Rajya Sabha represents state interests, so a special majority is mandated to temporarily transfer legislative competency on a state topic to Parliament.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the duration of a law made under Article 249
Statement 2 is correct. According to Article 249(3), a law made by Parliament under this provision ceases to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
Resolutions under Article 249 remain in force for up to one year at a time, but the resulting law has a statutory sunset window of six months post resolution expiry.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Article 250 during a National Emergency
Statement 3 is correct. Article 250 empowers Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to any matter in the State List while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation under Article 352.
National Emergency converts the federal structure into a unitary one legislatively, enabling parliamentary oversight over state subjects.

Key Concept

Parliamentary Legislation on State List Matters (Articles 249 & 250)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 3579Question →

Match the Parliamentary Motions and Devices listed in Column I with their corresponding procedural objectives listed in Column II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Call Attention Motion
Adjournment Motion
Privilege Motion
Point of Order

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Call Attention Motion matches drawing a Minister's attention to an urgent public matter for an official statement. Adjournment Motion matches drawing the House's attention to a definite matter of urgent public importance, interrupting regular business. Privilege Motion matches addressing a breach committed by a Minister withholding or misrepresenting facts. Point of Order matches enforcing procedural rules when proceedings violate established regulations.
Each parliamentary motion matches its exact procedural function under Indian Parliamentary practice: Call Attention Motion requests an official ministerial statement on an urgent matter; Adjournment Motion interrupts normal business for a definite urgent issue; Privilege Motion addresses breaches caused by misleading information; and Point of Order maintains compliance with procedural rules.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the purpose of Call Attention Motion
It allows a member to call the attention of a Minister to a matter of urgent public importance to get an official statement.
This device is an Indian parliamentary innovation designed to obtain executive clarification without censuring the government.
2
Identify the purpose of Adjournment Motion
It interrupts normal House proceedings to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance and requires the support of 50 members for admission.
It involves an element of censure against the government and leads to immediate suspension of routine business.
3
Identify the purpose of Privilege Motion
It is moved to express disapproval when a Minister misleads the House by withholding or distorting facts.
Its main focus is safeguarding parliamentary privileges and ensuring factual accountability of ministers.
4
Identify the purpose of Point of Order
It relates strictly to the enforcement of the Rules of Procedure and conduct of business in the House.
It can be raised by any member when proceedings break standard rules, immediately pausing ongoing debate for the Presiding Officer's ruling.

Key Concept

Parliamentary Devices and Procedural Motions
Question 3580Question →

Match the human endocrine hormones in List-I with their primary physiological functions in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Calcitonin
Vasopressin (Antidiuretic Hormone)
Oxytocin
Melatonin

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Calcitonin pairs with lowering blood calcium levels; Vasopressin pairs with increasing water reabsorption in renal tubules; Oxytocin pairs with stimulating uterine contractions and milk ejection; Melatonin pairs with regulating circadian rhythms.
Each hormone is correctly matched to its specific physiological role: Calcitonin reduces blood calcium concentrations, Vasopressin promotes renal water reabsorption, Oxytocin induces uterine contraction and lactation ejection, and Melatonin regulates circadian sleep cycles.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary role of Calcitonin
Calcitonin is produced by the thyroid gland to lower elevated blood calcium levels.
It acts antagonistically to Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) to regulate plasma calcium homeostasis.
2
Determine the function of Vasopressin (ADH)
Vasopressin increases water permeability in the collecting ducts of the nephron.
This reduces urinary water loss and increases blood volume.
3
Analyze the action of Oxytocin
Oxytocin triggers uterine smooth muscle contractions and myoepithelial cell contraction in lactating glands.
It facilitates parturition and the milk let-down reflex.
4
Recall the secretion source and action of Melatonin
Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland to control diurnal rhythms.
Synthesis increases in darkness to signal sleep readiness.

Key Concept

Endocrine Hormones and Physiological Regulation
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