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Question 3581Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the global biodiversity hotspots criteria and their regional distribution in India:

1. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must contain at least 1,500 species of endemic vascular plants (representing >0.5% of the world's total).
2. A candidate region must have retained at least 70% of its original primary natural vegetation to demonstrate high ecological integrity.
3. Among the Indian territory regions, the Nicobar group of islands is biogeographically included under the Sundaland hotspot, whereas the Andaman Islands fall under the Indo-Burma hotspot.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

The correct statements are 1 and 3 only.
The correct response identifies statements 1 and 3 as true. Statement 1 accurately captures the quantitative threshold of at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species (>0.5% of global total). Statement 3 correctly separates the Andaman Islands (Indo-Burma hotspot) from the Nicobar Islands (Sundaland hotspot). Statement 2 is false because hotspots must have lost at least 70% of primary vegetation (retaining 30% or less).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Norman Myers' quantitative endemism criterion.
Statement 1 is correct. A biodiversity hotspot must contain at least 1,500 species of endemic vascular plants, which constitutes over 0.5% of the world's total vascular plant species.
Vascular plants are critical indicators of ecosystem diversity, and this strict quantitative threshold ensures only exceptionally species-rich areas qualify.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding habitat loss and threat criteria.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A region must have lost at least 70% of its original primary vegetation (meaning it retains 30% or less of its original natural habitat) to qualify under the degree of threat criterion.
The hotspot designation highlights urgent conservation needs in areas under extreme human threat, not pristine intact reserves.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Indian hotspot geography.
Statement 3 is correct. Geographically and ecologically, the Nicobar Islands form part of the Sundaland hotspot (extending into South-East Asia), whereas the Andaman Islands form part of the Indo-Burma hotspot.
The two island archipelagos belong to distinct biogeographical realms despite politically being part of the same Indian Union Territory.

Key Concept

Norman Myers Biodiversity Hotspots Criteria and Indian Geographic Distribution
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3582Question →

Match the flagship social sector initiatives and welfare schemes of the Government of India in List-I with their corresponding primary objectives and target focus areas in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY)
PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY)
Mission Vatsalya
PM Tele-MANAS Initiative

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana matches with the small savings scheme for the girl child; PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana matches with the provision of free foodgrains under NFSA; Mission Vatsalya matches with institutional child protection and welfare services; PM Tele-MANAS Initiative matches with nationwide 24/7 tele-mental health counseling support.
Each scheme is accurately mapped to its core objective: Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana addresses financial savings for the girl child, PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana provides foodgrain security, Mission Vatsalya covers child protection architecture, and PM Tele-MANAS provides round-the-clock tele-mental health support.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY)
Identify that SSY is a small savings account scheme tailored for securing financial resources for a girl child's future education and marriage.
It was launched specifically under the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao initiative.
2
Analyze PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY)
Identify that PMGKAY is a social protection scheme providing free foodgrains to NFSA households.
It acts as a primary safety net to ensure food security for vulnerable populations.
3
Analyze Mission Vatsalya
Identify that Mission Vatsalya focuses on child welfare infrastructure, institutional care, and child safety services.
It is the main central umbrella scheme for child care and protection.
4
Analyze PM Tele-MANAS Initiative
Identify that PM Tele-MANAS provides universal 24/7 tele-mental health assistance.
It acts as a digital infrastructure offering psychological counseling across the country.

Key Concept

Objectives and Institutional Architecture of Indian Welfare Schemes
Question 3583Question →

Match the Cyber Security Threat Vectors in List-I with their corresponding Operational Descriptions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Spear Phishing
Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) Attack
Drive-by Download
Zero-Day Exploit

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Spear Phishing corresponds to targeted fraudulent communication using personalized details. Man-in-the-Middle attack corresponds to secretly intercepting communications between two connected systems. Drive-by Download corresponds to unintentional malware installation when accessing a compromised web page. Zero-Day Exploit corresponds to attacking software vulnerabilities that lack an available vendor patch.
Each cyber security threat vector is accurately paired with its operational definition: Spear Phishing uses tailored social engineering for specific targets; Man-in-the-Middle attacks intercept active channel communications; Drive-by Downloads install payload scripts automatically upon page load; and Zero-Day Exploits target undisclosed software flaws lacking patches.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the characteristic features of Spear Phishing
Spear Phishing relies on tailored, personalized intelligence to target specific victims, distinguishing it from mass phishing.
Personalized context is used to trick high-value targets.
2
Analyze the mechanism of Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attacks
MitM attack secretly intercepts and potentially alters communication between two endpoints without their awareness.
The attacker positions themselves between sender and receiver.
3
Distinguish between Drive-by Download and Zero-Day Exploit mechanisms
Drive-by download occurs automatically upon visiting infected web pages, while zero-day exploits specifically leverage unpatched software flaws.
Drive-by downloads exploit browser/plugin scripts, whereas zero-day exploits relate to vendor vulnerability timelines.

Key Concept

Classification and Mechanics of Cyber Threats
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3584Question →

Match the advanced biotechnology and nanotechnology tools/materials in List I with their primary structural features or biomedical applications in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Fullerenes
Quantum Dots
Liposomes
Zinc Finger Nucleases

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Fullerenes correspond to spheroidal carbon cage structures with high electron affinity; Quantum Dots correspond to size-tunable semiconductor nanocrystals for fluorescent imaging; Liposomes correspond to spherical phospholipid bilayer vesicles encapsulating both hydrophilic and hydrophobic drugs; and Zinc Finger Nucleases correspond to engineered chimeric restriction proteins combining zinc-finger domains with FokI cleavage domains.
Each technology matches strictly with its defined mechanism: Fullerenes are closed carbon cages; Quantum Dots are fluorescence-tunable semiconductor nanocrystals; Liposomes are lipid bilayer vesicles for dual drug encapsulation; and Zinc Finger Nucleases are chimeric proteins combining zinc-finger DNA-binding motifs with FokI catalytic domains.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the structural nature of Fullerenes
Recognize Fullerenes as hollow carbon allotrope cages (e.g., C60) with antioxidant and carrier properties.
Fullerenes feature unique cage geometries capable of trapping species or acting as free radical scavengers.
2
Analyze Quantum Dots properties
Associate Quantum Dots with semiconductor nanocrystals whose narrow fluorescence emission varies with nanoparticle size.
Quantum confinement alters the energy bandgap as size changes, giving tunable optical properties for bio-labeling.
3
Examine Liposome architecture
Match Liposomes with self-assembled phospholipid bilayer spheres.
Their amphiphilic nature permits simultaneous transport of hydrophilic therapeutics in the interior and lipophilic therapeutics inside the lipid membrane.
4
Analyze Zinc Finger Nucleases structure
Link ZFNs to chimeric gene-editing tools formed by linking zinc-finger binding proteins with FokI cleavage domains.
ZFNs achieve site-specific double-strand DNA breaks via protein-DNA domain recognition paired with catalytic cleavage.

Key Concept

Classification and operating mechanisms of advanced bio-nanotechnology materials and genomic engineering tools
Question 3585Question →

Below are four inflation concepts listed under Column-I and their economic descriptions under Column-II. Match each item in Column-I with its appropriate description in Column-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Demand-Pull Inflation
Cost-Push Inflation
Stagflation
Suppressed Inflation

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Demand-Pull Inflation matches with price increases driven by aggregate demand exceeding supply capacity; Cost-Push Inflation matches with price increases resulting from supply disruptions and higher input costs; Stagflation matches with persistent rise in price levels accompanied by economic stagnation and elevated unemployment; Suppressed Inflation matches with excess demand pressures held back from open market price reflection due to administrative price controls.
Demand-pull inflation occurs when aggregate demand outpaces aggregate supply. Cost-push inflation is driven by increased input costs reducing aggregate supply. Stagflation is the simultaneous presence of economic stagnation (low growth, high unemployment) and rising inflation. Suppressed inflation refers to underlying inflationary pressures that are prevented from showing in official indices due to government price ceiling enforcement or rationing.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify Demand-Pull Inflation definition
Matches with description of aggregate demand outstripping aggregate supply capacity.
Demand-pull inflation arises when total demand expands faster than the economy's potential production capacity.
2
Identify Cost-Push Inflation definition
Matches with description of supply disruptions and increased production input costs.
Cost-push inflation is driven by supply-side shocks that raise production costs such as wages or crude oil.
3
Identify Stagflation definition
Matches with description of persistent inflation alongside economic stagnation and high unemployment.
Stagflation combines economic stagnation (sluggish growth and unemployment) with price inflation.
4
Identify Suppressed Inflation definition
Matches with description of excess demand restrained by administrative price controls and rationing.
Suppressed inflation occurs when government price caps prevent prices from rising to market-clearing levels.

Key Concept

Types of Inflation and Price Control Mechanisms
Question 3586Question →

With reference to biodiversity conservation strategies in India, consider the following statements:

1. Sacred Groves and Community Reserves are examples of in-situ conservation strategies that preserve biological diversity within its natural habitat.
2. Cryopreservation of gametes and micropropagation techniques represent ex-situ conservation methods carried out under controlled artificial conditions.
3. In a UNESCO-designated Biosphere Reserve, limited human activities such as research, environmental education, and managed tourism are strictly permitted within the Core Zone, while the Buffer Zone remains completely undisturbed by any human intervention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
In-situ conservation protects wild species within their native ecosystems (such as Sacred Groves, National Parks, and Community Reserves). Ex-situ conservation preserves genetic resources away from their natural environment (such as Cryopreservation, Seed Banks, and Botanical Gardens). In Biosphere Reserve architecture, human activities like educational training and managed tourism occur in the Buffer Zone, while the Core Zone is kept free from human interference.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Sacred Groves and Community Reserves.
Statement 1 is correct.
In-situ conservation refers to conserving species within their natural ecosystems and habitats. Sacred Groves (protected forest patches preserved by traditional communities) and Community Reserves legally protected under the Wildlife Protection Act (1972) are classic examples of in-situ conservation.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Cryopreservation and Micropropagation.
Statement 2 is correct.
Ex-situ conservation involves the preservation of biological diversity components outside their natural habitats. Cryopreservation (preserving cells/gametes at liquid nitrogen temperature of -196°C) and micropropagation (in vitro tissue culture) take place in off-site laboratory setups.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Biosphere Reserve zoning framework.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
According to UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) guidelines, a Biosphere Reserve comprises three zones: Core Zone (strictly protected, devoted to ecosystem preservation with minimal non-destructive scientific research permitted), Buffer Zone (surrounds the core, used for activities compatible with sound ecological practices such as research, education, and limited tourism), and Transition Zone (outermost area where local communities, management agencies, and scientists cooperate for sustainable resource management).

Key Concept

Distinction between In-situ and Ex-situ Conservation Strategies and Biosphere Reserve Zoning
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3587Question →

Regarding the physiographical features, drainage patterns, and soil formations across the Deccan Trap region of Maharashtra, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Kalsubai peak, located in the Sahyadri range, represents the highest point of elevation in the state.; The Manjra River originates in the Balaghat Range and serves as a major right-bank tributary of the Godavari River.

Answer

The statements confirming Kalsubai as the highest peak in the Sahyadri range within the state and identifying the Manjra River as a right-bank tributary of the Godavari originating in the Balaghat range are both correct.
The peak of Kalsubai stands as the highest elevation in the Sahyadri mountain range in Maharashtra at 1,646 meters. Additionally, the Manjra River originates in the Balaghat range and joins the Godavari River as a prominent right-bank tributary.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate physiographic elevation peaks
Kalsubai peak at 1,646 m in the Western Ghats / Sahyadri range is confirmed as Maharashtra's highest point.
Topographical surveys of state physical relief place Kalsubai at the maximum altitude within the Sahyadri hill system.
2
Analyze hydrography and river directional flow
Manjra originates in the Balaghat Range and flows into the Godavari from the right bank. Tapi flows westward into the Arabian Sea.
Peninsular river systems follow distinct structural rift valleys; Tapi is a west-flowing rift valley river, whereas Manjra feeds the eastward-flowing Godavari basin.
3
Assess soil geology and parent rock relationships
Regur soil originates from basalt weathering, not granite/gneiss.
Deccan volcanic eruptions deposited extensive basalt rock strata, which weathered over geological periods into fine-textured, moisture-retentive black cotton soil.

Key Concept

Physiography, Drainage Networks, and Geomorphology of Maharashtra
Question 3588Question →

Consider the following statements regarding statutory bodies and institutional frameworks under environmental legislation in India:

Statement I: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is a statutory body constituted under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
Statement II: The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory autonomous body established under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, with its headquarters located in Chennai.
Statement III: Under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016, the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund receives 90% of the funds collected, while the State Compensatory Afforestation Funds receive the remaining 10%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Statement II only

Answer

Statement II only is correct.
Statement II is factually correct as the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was set up in 2003 under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 with headquarters in Chennai. Statement I is incorrect because GEAC functions under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Statement III is incorrect because the State Compensatory Afforestation Funds receive 90% of the collected funds, while the National Fund receives only 10%.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement I regarding the statutory origin of GEAC.
Statement I is incorrect.
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (specifically under the Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989), not under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
2
Evaluate Statement II regarding the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA).
Statement II is correct.
The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 as a statutory autonomous body to implement the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, and its head office is situated in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
3
Evaluate Statement III regarding the fund allocation under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Statement III is incorrect.
According to the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016, 90% of the funds collected are transferred to the State Compensatory Afforestation Fund (State CAMPA), while only 10% are retained in the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund (National CAMPA).

Key Concept

Statutory Bodies and Financial Provisions under Indian Environmental Acts (EPA 1986, Biological Diversity Act 2002, CAMPA Act 2016)
Question 3589Question →

Rear-view mirrors installed in motor vehicles provide drivers with a significantly wider field of view compared to standard flat plane mirrors. Which of the following fundamental optical properties best explains why convex mirrors are used for this everyday application?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: They consistently form erect, virtual, and diminished images, allowing a larger field of view to be compressed into a small mirror surface.

Answer

Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors because they consistently form erect, virtual, and diminished images, providing a significantly wider field of view.
The choice stating that convex mirrors form erect, virtual, and diminished images is correct. Because the light rays diverge after hitting the outer curved surface, the image is formed behind the mirror (virtual) and stays right-side up (erect). Since the image is reduced in size (diminished), it allows a much larger area of the road behind the driver to be visible in a compact mirror, creating a wide field of view.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the optical behavior of a convex spherical mirror
Light rays striking a convex mirror diverge upon reflection. Tracing these reflected rays backward shows that they intersect behind the mirror surface.
Understanding ray tracing for curved surfaces determines the nature of the image formed.
2
Evaluate the image characteristics produced by a convex mirror
For any real object placed in front of a convex mirror, the image formed is always virtual, upright (erect), and smaller than the object (diminished).
Image nature (virtual/real, erect/inverted, magnified/diminished) dictates practical utility.
3
Relate image characteristics to the driver's field of view requirement
Because the image is diminished and upright, a wider angular region behind the vehicle can fit onto the driver's mirror screen compared to a plane mirror of identical size.
Connecting image formation rules to everyday automotive safety applications provides the complete scientific reasoning.

Key Concept

Convex Mirrors and Image Formation in Everyday Applications
Question 3590Question →

Lymphatic filariasis, commonly known as elephantiasis, leads to chronic inflammation and severe swelling of the lower limbs and lymphatic tissue. Which type of biological pathogen is the direct causative agent of this infectious disease in humans?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Filarial nematode (helminth)

Answer

Filarial nematode (helminth)
Lymphatic filariasis is an infection caused by parasitic roundworms of the family Filarioidea. The adult worms lodge in the lymphatic system, obstructing lymph flow and causing lymphedema and elephantiasis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the biological nature of the causative organism for lymphatic filariasis.
Lymphatic filariasis is caused by infection with microscopic, thread-like parasitic roundworms (filarial nematodes).
Wuchereria bancrofti accounts for roughly 90% of all cases worldwide, alongside Brugia malayi and Brugia timori.
2
Distinguish between the vector and the causative agent.
Mosquitoes (such as Culex, Anopheles, and Aedes) serve as vector hosts that transfer infective larvae, but the worm itself is the pathogen.
Understanding the pathogen category is essential for target-specific anti-helminthic treatments like diethylcarbamazine (DEC) and albendazole.

Key Concept

Pathogen Etiology of Lymphatic Filariasis
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3591Question →

Arrange the following ecological levels of organization in ascending order, starting from the most specific individual unit to the broadest ecological scale.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence in ascending order is: Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem.
The ecological organizational hierarchy progresses naturally from specific to broad scales. An individual organism is the base unit. Groupings of the same organism species form a population. Diverse populations of different species coexisting in an area form a biological community. Finally, when this living community interacts with non-living (abiotic) components, it constitutes an ecosystem.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the most basic individual ecological unit
Organism is the single living entity.
The individual organism is the fundamental functional unit at the lowest level of ecological hierarchy.
2
Identify the level comprising individuals of the same species
Population consists of multiple organisms of a single species.
Organisms of the same species residing together form a population.
3
Identify the interaction level of multiple species
Community includes all populations of distinct species in a defined area.
Biological communities represent the assemblage of multi-species living populations.
4
Incorporate non-living physical components into the system
Ecosystem combines biological communities with their abiotic environment.
An ecosystem encompasses both biotic communities and non-living physical factors such as climate, soil, and water.

Key Concept

Levels of Ecological Organization
Question 3592Question →

Biodiversity conservation strategies are broadly divided into in-situ (on-site) and ex-situ (off-site) approaches depending on whether protection is provided within natural habitats or in human-managed facilities. Which of the following statements regarding these conservation mechanisms are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Cryopreservation of gametes at ultra-low temperatures and the maintenance of seed banks serve as ex-situ conservation methods that preserve genetic material outside natural habitats.; Sacred groves represent traditional, community-led in-situ conservation areas where intact forest patches are protected along with their native ecological processes.; In-situ conservation frameworks, such as Biosphere Reserves and National Parks, allow protected populations to continue evolving under natural selective pressures.

Answer

The correct statements are those identifying cryopreservation and seed banks as ex-situ genetic preservation, sacred groves as community-based in-situ protection, and Biosphere Reserves/National Parks as in-situ systems supporting natural evolutionary processes.
In-situ conservation protects species in their natural habitats (e.g., sacred groves, national parks, biosphere reserves) where natural selection and evolutionary processes continue. Ex-situ conservation safeguards components of biological diversity outside their natural habitats (e.g., seed banks, cryopreservation, botanical gardens, zoos).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scope of ex-situ conservation methods.
Cryopreservation (storing tissues/gametes in liquid nitrogen at −196∘C-196^\circ\text{C}) and seed banks store genetic material off-site under artificial conditions, confirming their classification as ex-situ.
Off-site preservation isolates genetic material from natural environmental threats for long-term storage.
2
Evaluate traditional community conservation practices like sacred groves.
Sacred groves protect existing natural forest ecosystems on-site without moving organisms, making them in-situ conservation sites.
In-situ conservation includes natural habitats protected by legal or socio-cultural community norms.
3
Differentiate artificial live collections from in-situ conservation.
Botanical gardens and zoological parks place species outside their native habitats in artificial enclosures, misclassifying them if labeled as in-situ.
The key criterion for ex-situ status is the transfer of organisms out of their natural ecological niche into human-maintained settings.
4
Examine the dynamic ecological benefit of in-situ reserves.
Designations like National Parks and Biosphere Reserves allow species to remain subject to ongoing environmental pressures and natural selection.
In-situ sites preserve whole ecosystems and evolutionary processes, unlike static ex-situ repositories.

Key Concept

Classification and biological mechanics of in-situ vs. ex-situ biodiversity conservation strategies.
Question 3593Question →

With reference to the constitutional provisions governing inter-state coordination and dispute resolution mechanisms under the Constitution of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any dispute or complaint regarding the use, distribution, or control of waters of an inter-state river or river valley.; Full faith and credit must be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State.

Answer

The correct statements are that Parliament may by law bar judicial jurisdiction over inter-state river water disputes, and that full faith and credit must be accorded throughout India to public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and every State.
Under Article 262(2), Parliament has the power to exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and all other courts regarding inter-state river water disputes. Furthermore, Article 261(1) explicitly guarantees that full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Article 262 regarding inter-state water disputes
Article 262(1) allows Parliament to provide for the adjudication of river water disputes, and Article 262(2) allows Parliament to bar court jurisdiction in such matters.
To verify the validity of the statement on parliamentary powers regarding inter-state river water disputes.
2
Evaluate the nature and establishment of the Inter-State Council under Article 263
The Inter-State Council is a non-permanent body established by a Presidential order when deemed necessary in the public interest, rather than a self-convening permanent body.
To assess whether the Inter-State Council functions automatically or requires presidential initiation.
3
Examine Article 261 regarding public acts and judicial records
Article 261(1) explicitly guarantees full faith and credit to public acts, records, and judicial proceedings across the territory of India.
To confirm constitutional provisions for administrative and judicial recognition between States.
4
Verify tribunal appointment powers for inter-state river water disputes
Tribunal constitution and appointments are handled at the Union level under central legislation enacted by Parliament, not by individual State Governors.
To check executive authority boundaries regarding inter-state dispute resolution bodies.

Key Concept

Inter-State Dispute Resolution and Constitutional Provisions (Articles 261, 262, and 263)
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3594Question →

In orbital dynamics and satellite navigation, Sun-Synchronous Orbits (SSO) and Geostationary Earth Orbits (GEO) are engineered for distinct observational and communication missions. Which of the following statements accurately describes the orbital mechanics or operational characteristics of these orbits?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A satellite in a Sun-Synchronous Orbit maintains a nearly constant angle between its orbital plane and the Sun-Earth line, providing consistent surface illumination for imaging.

Answer

A satellite in a Sun-Synchronous Orbit maintains a nearly constant angle between its orbital plane and the Sun-Earth line, providing consistent surface illumination for imaging.
The statement explaining that a Sun-Synchronous Orbit maintains a nearly constant angle between its orbital plane and the Sun-Earth line is correct. Due to torque exerted by Earth's equatorial bulge (J2 effect), an SSO precesses at approximately 0.9856 degrees per day (360 degrees per year), matching Earth's revolutionary motion around the Sun and yielding uniform lighting conditions suitable for Earth observation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Sun-Synchronous Orbit (SSO) properties
SSO is a quasi-polar orbit positioned at Low Earth Orbit (LEO) altitudes (around 600-800 km). By taking advantage of Earth's non-spherical shape (equatorial bulge), the orbit precesses eastwards by about 0.986° per day.
Matching this precession rate to Earth's orbital period around the Sun ensures that the satellite crosses the equator at the same local solar time on every pass.
2
Analyze Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) properties
GEO requires a circular orbit directly above Earth's equator (0° inclination) at an altitude of 35,786 km.
At this specific altitude, the orbital period equals Earth's sidereal rotation period (23 hours, 56 minutes, 4 seconds), causing the satellite to appear stationary relative to Earth's surface.
3
Evaluate option claims against fundamental orbital mechanics
Claims confusing orbital altitudes (35,786 km for SSO), periods (12 hours for GEO), or mechanisms (nodal precession for GEO) misattribute fundamental orbital properties.
Selecting the option detailing consistent Sun-Earth angle maintenance correctly identifies the physical principle of SSO.

Key Concept

Orbital Mechanics of Sun-Synchronous and Geostationary Orbits
Question 3595Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY), a maternity benefit program in India:

1. It is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
2. Under the updated Mission Shakti guidelines, monetary incentives are extended for a second child, provided the second child is a girl.
3. Women in regular employment with Central or State Governments or Public Sector Undertakings are excluded from receiving benefits under the scheme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.
The option stating that all three statements (1, 2 and 3) are correct is right. PMMVY is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Under Mission Shakti, benefits cover the first child as well as a second girl child, while excluding women with regular formal government or PSU employment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding institutional setup
PMMVY is administered by the Ministry of Women and Child Development across states as a Direct Benefit Transfer Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
Funding is shared between the Centre and States (60:40 ratio for general states, 90:10 for NE/Himalayan states).
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding scheme expansion
Under the revamped Mission Shakti framework, PMMVY 2.0 offers financial assistance for the first child (₹5,000) and an additional maternity benefit of ₹6,000 for a second child if born a girl.
This revision aims to discourage female foeticide and promote a positive sex ratio at birth.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding eligibility exclusions
Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers who are in regular employment with Central/State Governments or PSUs, or in receipt of similar statutory maternity benefits, are excluded.
The scheme focuses social security and wage compensation on women in the unorganized sector.

Key Concept

Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) architecture, target beneficiary exclusions, and Mission Shakti expansion.
Question 3596Question →

Match the biodiversity hotspots overlapping Indian territory (List-I) with their precise geographical coverage and characteristic endemic fauna (List-II):

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Western Ghats Hotspot
Indo-Burma Hotspot
Sundaland Hotspot
Himalayan Hotspot

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matching pairs Western Ghats Hotspot with the western peninsular mountain chain (Lion-tailed Macaque and Nilgiri Tahr); Indo-Burma Hotspot with Northeast India south of the Brahmaputra River (Sangai deer); Sundaland Hotspot with the Nicobar group of islands (Nicobar Tree Shrew); and Himalayan Hotspot with the high-altitude montane zone of North and Northeast India (Namdapha Flying Squirrel).
The global biodiversity hotspots overlapping India possess precise biogeographical limits and signature endemic species: Western Ghats (peninsular mountain range with Lion-tailed Macaque), Indo-Burma (Northeast India south of Brahmaputra with Sangai deer), Sundaland (Nicobar Islands with Nicobar Tree Shrew), and Himalayas (montane North/Northeast India with Namdapha Flying Squirrel).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the spatial extent and endemic species of peninsular Western India.
The Western Ghats Hotspot corresponds to the western peninsular mountain chain hosting the Lion-tailed Macaque.
The Western Ghats form a continuous hill chain along peninsular India with exceptionally high endemism.
2
Delineate the Indian boundary of the Indo-Burma Hotspot.
Indo-Burma pairs with Northeast India south of the Brahmaputra River, including Manipur where the Sangai is endemic.
The Brahmaputra River serves as a major biogeographical dividing line between the Himalayan and Indo-Burma hotspots.
3
Identify the specific Indian island territory included within Sundaland.
Sundaland pairs exclusively with the Nicobar group of islands, home to the endemic Nicobar Tree Shrew.
While the Andaman Islands belong to Indo-Burma, the Nicobar Islands form the northwestern boundary of the Indo-Malayan Sundaland hotspot.
4
Map the Himalayan Hotspot to its spatial boundary and endemic fauna.
Himalayan Hotspot pairs with the northern and northeastern high-altitude montane zone hosting the Namdapha Flying Squirrel.
The Himalayan mountain chain covers the high-elevation ecosystems of northern India and areas north of the Brahmaputra.

Key Concept

Geographical boundaries and signature endemic fauna of Indian Biodiversity Hotspots
Question 3597Question →

With reference to the provisions governing a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament under Article 108 of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A joint sitting cannot be summoned by the President to resolve a deadlock over a Constitution Amendment Bill.

Answer

A joint sitting cannot be summoned by the President to resolve a deadlock over a Constitution Amendment Bill.
Article 108 of the Constitution provides for a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve legislative deadlocks on Ordinary and Financial Bills. However, Constitutional Amendment Bills under Article 368 must be passed by each House separately with the requisite special majority, meaning no joint sitting can be called for them.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the constitutional scope of Joint Sitting (Article 108).
Joint sittings apply only to Ordinary Bills and Financial Bills. Money Bills (Article 109) and Constitutional Amendment Bills (Article 368) are explicitly excluded from the joint sitting mechanism.
Constitutional amendments require separate approval by both Houses by a special majority.
2
Evaluate the presiding hierarchy of a Joint Sitting.
The presiding order is Speaker of Lok Sabha -> Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha -> Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha -> Person determined by the joint meeting. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha never presides.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is not a member of Parliament.
3
Verify quorum and procedural rules.
Quorum is one-tenth of the combined strength of both Houses, and the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha govern the proceedings.
Article 108(3) and Lok Sabha procedural rules specify these requirements.

Key Concept

Joint Sitting of Parliament (Article 108) Exclusions and Procedural Rules
Question 3598Question →

Conservation of biological diversity can take place either within the natural ecosystem or in human-controlled artificial settings. Which of the following conservation methods is an example of an ex-situ conservation strategy?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Seed banks

Answer

Seed banks represent an ex-situ conservation strategy.
Seed banks preserve genetic material (seeds) in controlled artificial environments off-site, making them a standard ex-situ conservation method.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recall the definitions of in-situ and ex-situ biodiversity conservation.
In-situ conservation involves protecting species within their natural habitats. Ex-situ conservation involves protecting species outside their natural habitats in artificial environments.
Categorization depends strictly on whether the conservation site is natural (on-site) or artificial/off-site.
2
Classify the given options based on conservation location.
National parks, biosphere reserves, and sacred groves preserve plants and animals within their native habitats (in-situ). Seed banks collect and store plant germplasm off-site in refrigerated repositories (ex-situ).
Seed banks operate in controlled facilities separate from natural habitats.

Key Concept

Ex-situ conservation refers to off-site preservation techniques, such as seed banks, botanical gardens, zoological parks, and cryopreservation.
Question 3599Question →

Which of the following environmental impacts are directly associated with the depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer? Select all correct options.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Increased exposure to harmful solar UV-B radiation leading to higher rates of skin cancer and cataracts; Inhibition of biological productivity and photosynthetic activity in marine phytoplankton

Answer

The correct options are those describing increased skin cancer and cataract rates from UV-B radiation, and the disruption of marine phytoplankton productivity.
The stratospheric ozone layer filters solar UV-B radiation. Its depletion results in enhanced ground-level UV-B intensity, causing human health risks like skin cancer and damage to aquatic ecosystems by harming photosynthetic phytoplankton.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary protective role of stratospheric ozone.
Stratospheric ozone acts as a shield absorbing harmful ultraviolet-B (UV-B) solar radiation.
Understanding ozone function clarifies the consequences when the shield is depleted.
2
Evaluate biological and ecological consequences of increased UV-B reaching Earth.
Higher UV-B exposure leads to physiological damage in humans (skin cancers, cataracts) and damages primary producers like phytoplankton in marine environments.
Phytoplankton are sensitive to UV radiation, which impairs their photosynthetic capability.

Key Concept

Impacts of Stratospheric Ozone Depletion
Question 3600Question →

Arrange the following historical milestones and methodological updates in India's national income accounting in correct chronological order from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence begins with Dadabhai Naoroji's early estimate (1867–68), followed by Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao's scientific study (1931���32), the setting up of the National Income Committee (1949), and finally the adoption of GVA at basic prices with base year 2011–12 in 2015.
The correct timeline begins with Dadabhai Naoroji (1867–68), followed by Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao's scientific estimation (1931–32), the post-independence National Income Committee (1949), and concludes with the 2015 statistical revision to the 2011–12 base year adopting GVA at basic prices.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the year for Dadabhai Naoroji's national income estimation
1867–68 (earliest non-official estimate in pre-independence India)
Establishes the starting historical baseline for national income accounting in India.
2
Identify the year for Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao's scientific estimate
1931–32 (first systematic and scientific academic estimate)
Follows the early informal estimates of the late 19th century.
3
Identify the year for the creation of the National Income Committee
1949 (Government of India initiative under P.C. Mahalanobis with D.R. Gadgil and V.K.R.V. Rao)
Marks the first official post-independence institutional setup.
4
Identify the year for the base year update to 2011–12 with GVA at basic prices
2015 (CSO structural revision replacing GDP at factor cost)
Represents the modern reform standard for Indian national accounts.

Key Concept

Chronological evolution of Indian National Income Accounting
Estimated Time:1m 15s
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