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Question 3601Question →

Which of the following ecological terms refers to the physical area or environment inhabited by a specific organism, encompassing all the abiotic physical factors of that location?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Habitat

Answer

Habitat is the term that describes the specific physical locality or environmental address inhabited by an organism.
Habitat is defined as the exact physical environment or spatial location where an organism lives, including all surrounding abiotic factors such as soil, climate, water, and sunlight.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the key focus of the question.
The question asks for the term representing the physical location where an organism lives along with its abiotic surroundings.
Basic ecological terminology distinguishes between physical space (habitat) and functional role (niche).
2
Compare basic ecological definitions.
Habitat represents the 'address' of an organism. Niche refers to its 'profession' or functional role. Ecotone is a boundary region between ecosystems, and Biome is a macro-regional unit.
Matching structural definitions ensures accurate identification of basic ecosystem concepts.

Key Concept

Habitat versus Ecological Niche and Ecosystem Structural Units
Question 3602Question →

In geothermal power generation, binary cycle plants are preferred for low-to-medium temperature geothermal reservoirs (typically between 100∘C100^\circ\text{C} and 180∘C180^\circ\text{C}). Which of the following technical principles correctly describes the working mechanism of a binary cycle geothermal power plant?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Geothermal fluid passes through a heat exchanger to vaporize a secondary organic fluid with a low boiling point, which expands through a turbine in a closed loop.

Answer

In a binary cycle geothermal power plant, geothermal water transfers its heat via a heat exchanger to a secondary working fluid (such as isobutane or pentane) that has a much lower boiling point than water. The secondary fluid vaporizes, drives a closed-loop turbine, and is condensed back into liquid to repeat the cycle, while the cooled geothermal brine is injected back into the reservoir.
The binary cycle geothermal plant operates by circulating warm-to-hot geothermal brine through a heat exchanger. The heat vaporizes a secondary fluid (an organic compound like pentane or isobutane) having a low boiling point. The resulting vapor expands through a turbine generator, turns back into liquid via a condenser, and recycles continuously in a closed system.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the defining characteristic of binary cycle power generation
Binary cycle technology utilizes two separate fluid loops (primary geothermal fluid and secondary organic working fluid).
The primary geothermal brine from low-to-medium temperature reservoirs (100∘C100^\circ\text{C} to 180∘C180^\circ\text{C}) lacks sufficient enthalpy to flash into high-pressure steam directly.
2
Analyze the thermodynamic loop interaction
The primary fluid transfers heat to a secondary working fluid with a lower boiling point via a heat exchanger.
Lower boiling point fluids (Organic Rankine Cycle) vaporize efficiently at lower temperatures, producing vapor to drive the turbine.
3
Evaluate environmental and mechanical isolation benefits
Geothermal fluid remains fully contained and is reinjected into the ground without directly contacting the turbine blades.
Prevents turbine corrosion and eliminates atmospheric emissions of dissolved gases.

Key Concept

Binary Cycle Geothermal Energy and Organic Rankine Cycle (ORC)
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3603Question →

Evaluate the following statements concerning price index compilation and inflation management mechanisms in India:

I. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) Combined assigns a weight of over 45% to Food and Beverages, whereas the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) assigns a combined weight of less than 25% to food items.
II. The Wholesale Price Index incorporates price changes for service sectors such as healthcare, education, and transport, whereas the Consumer Price Index measures only physical commodities.
III. An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by the Reserve Bank of India functions as a quantitative monetary policy tool to absorb excess liquidity from commercial banks and control demand-pull inflation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: I and III only

Answer

Statements I and III are correct, while statement II is incorrect.
The correct response identifies statements I and III as accurate. In India's price index architecture, CPI Combined features a significantly higher food weight (~45.86%) than WPI (under 25%). Additionally, raising CRR is a standard contractionary monetary instrument used by the RBI to absorb banking liquidity and manage demand-pull inflation. Statement II is false because services are strictly excluded from WPI and included in CPI Combined.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement I regarding commodity weightages in CPI and WPI baskets.
Statement I is correct. CPI Combined allocates ~45.86% to Food and Beverages, whereas WPI allocates ~15.26% to Primary Food Articles and ~8.45% to Manufactured Food Products, totaling under 25%.
Understanding the difference in basket weights is essential for interpreting retail vs wholesale inflation dynamics.
2
Analyze Statement II regarding coverage of the service sector in price indices.
Statement II is incorrect. WPI tracks price fluctuations only for wholesale tangible goods and excludes services entirely. CPI Combined includes services such as education, healthcare, housing, and transport.
Identifying sector coverage differences prevents misattribution of index scopes.
3
Analyze Statement III regarding monetary policy impacts of CRR on liquidity.
Statement III is correct. Increasing CRR forces commercial banks to park a higher proportion of deposits with the RBI, shrinking lendable bank reserves and mitigating demand-driven inflationary pressure.
Evaluating quantitative monetary policy mechanisms confirms how liquidity absorption impacts demand-pull inflation.

Key Concept

Structural differences between CPI and WPI (weights and service inclusion) and quantitative monetary policy tools (CRR).
Question 3604Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Minamata Convention on Mercury:

1. It is a legally binding multilateral treaty designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds.
2. It permits open-ended timelines for member nations without establishing specific phase-out target dates for the manufacture, import, and export of mercury-added products.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

1 only
Statement 1 is accurate because the Minamata Convention on Mercury is a legally binding multilateral agreement under UNEP that targets the reduction of toxic mercury emissions. Statement 2 is false because Article 4 and Annex A of the convention stipulate concrete phase-out timelines for a wide range of mercury-added manufacture and trade products.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the regulatory mandate of the Minamata Convention.
The Minamata Convention on Mercury was adopted in 2013 and entered into force in 2017 as a legally binding treaty addressing anthropogenic mercury pollution across its entire lifecycle.
To verify the legal nature and primary target of the convention.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding phase-out commitments for mercury-added products.
The treaty explicitly listed phase-out dates (e.g., 2020 target for specified batteries, switches, CFL lamps, and cosmetics) rather than allowing open-ended schedules.
To verify whether product phase-out timelines are binding and specific.
3
Synthesize results to select the correct combination.
Statement 1 is correct while Statement 2 is incorrect, making '1 only' the correct option.
Only Statement 1 accurately captures the legal principles of the treaty.

Key Concept

Minamata Convention on Mercury: Scope and Regulatory Phase-out Controls
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3605Question →

With reference to cybersecurity frameworks and statutory provisions in India under the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) serves as the national nodal agency for handling cybersecurity incidents under Section 70B.
2. Cyber Appellate Tribunals were established to directly adjudicate criminal offenses under the IT Act carrying life imprisonment penalties.
3. The National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) is designated as the nodal agency for protecting critical information infrastructure under Section 70A.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 only are correct.
The statement specifying '1 and 3 only' is correct. CERT-In is statutory designated under Section 70B of the IT Act, 2000 to manage cyber threat responses, while NCIIPC is designated under Section 70A to protect critical information infrastructure. Statement 2 is false because tribunal jurisdiction applies to civil appeals arising from orders of Adjudicating Officers, whereas serious criminal offenses are prosecuted in criminal courts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding CERT-In.
Statement 1 is correct. Section 70B of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 explicitly designates CERT-In as the national nodal agency for collecting, analyzing, and responding to computer security incidents.
CERT-In functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to issue cyber threat alerts and handle emergency responses.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Cyber Appellate Tribunals.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Cyber Appellate Tribunals (whose functions were subsequently merged with TDSAT) hear appeals against orders passed by Adjudicating Officers regarding civil compensations and penalties. Criminal offenses punishable with imprisonment under the IT Act are tried by regular criminal courts (Magistrate or Sessions Courts), not tribunals.
Tribunals hold adjudicatory power over civil disputes and monetary penalties, whereas criminal jurisdiction remains strictly with the judicial court system.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding NCIIPC.
Statement 3 is correct. Section 70A of the IT Act, 2000 empowered the Central Government to designate NCIIPC (operating under the National Technical Research Organisation) as the national nodal agency for Critical Information Infrastructure Protection.
NCIIPC safeguards computer systems whose destruction would severely impact national security, economy, or public health.

Key Concept

Statutory Cybersecurity Agencies and Provisions under the IT Act, 2000
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3606Question →

Match the biodiversity conservation mechanisms and repositories in List-I with their corresponding conservation framework and technical attributes in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Cryopreservation & Seed Storage Banks
Sacred Groves (e.g., Kavu / Orans)
National Parks Core Zones
Field Gene Banks & Arboreta

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Cryopreservation & Seed Storage Banks pairs with Ex-situ conservation utilizing liquid nitrogen (−196∘C -196^\circ \text{C} ); Sacred Groves pairs with In-situ community-led preservation; National Parks Core Zones pairs with In-situ statutory protection under the Wildlife Protection Act; Field Gene Banks & Arboreta pairs with Ex-situ living collections of plant genetic resources.
In-situ conservation protects species, populations, and ecosystems within their natural habitats (such as National Parks and Sacred Groves). Ex-situ conservation preserves components of biological diversity outside their natural habitats (such as Cryopreservation seed banks and Field Gene Banks).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Differentiate between in-situ (on-site natural habitat) and ex-situ (off-site artificial facility) strategies.
Identified National Parks and Sacred Groves as in-situ strategies, while Cryopreservation/Seed Banks and Field Gene Banks are ex-situ strategies.
In-situ conserves biodiversity within natural habitats, whereas ex-situ removes organisms or germplasm from their natural habitats to artificial repositories.
2
Analyze Cryopreservation & Seed Storage Banks.
Matches liquid nitrogen cryopreservation (−196∘C -196^\circ \text{C} ) off-site germplasm preservation.
Cryopreservation stores biological samples at sub-zero temperatures off-site to preserve viability indefinitely.
3
Analyze Sacred Groves.
Matches community-led preservation of natural vegetation based on cultural taboos.
Sacred groves protect patches of natural forest on-site using traditional community practices.
4
Analyze National Parks Core Zones and Field Gene Banks.
National Parks match highest statutory legal protection in-situ; Field Gene Banks match live ex-situ plant collections for recalcitrant seeds.
National parks maintain natural ecosystems under statutory acts, while field gene banks maintain live growing plants outside natural ranges.

Key Concept

Classification of In-situ versus Ex-situ Biodiversity Conservation Strategies
Question 3607Question →

Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) in India follows a structured regulatory process under the EIA Notification, 2006. Arrange the following key stages of the EIA process in the correct chronological order from start to finish:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence of the EIA 2006 process is: Screening → Scoping → Public Consultation → Appraisal.
According to the EIA Notification 2006 issued under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986, environmental clearance for project proposals follows four sequential steps: 1) Screening (determining if Category B needs EIA study), 2) Scoping (formulating Terms of Reference by EAC/SEAC), 3) Public Consultation (conducting public hearings and gathering local inputs), and 4) Appraisal (expert review of final EIA document and public feedback to make recommendations to MoEFCC or SEIAA).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the initial regulatory classification phase.
Screening is identified as Step 1 because it categorizes projects (Category A, B1, B2) and determines if an EIA report is required.
No assessment work can begin without first determining the requirement and regulatory scope of the project.
2
Identify the phase that establishes parameters for the environmental study.
Scoping is identified as Step 2 because the EAC/SEAC formulates the Terms of Reference (ToR) based on which baseline data is collected.
Terms of Reference must be established before conducting field studies and drafting the EIA report.
3
Determine the stakeholder engagement phase.
Public Consultation is identified as Step 3 as it requires a draft EIA report prepared according to the ToR.
Public hearings require presentation of draft environmental findings to local communities to gather objections and suggestions.
4
Determine the final decision-support phase.
Appraisal is identified as Step 4, where EAC/SEAC conducts detailed scrutiny of both the final EIA report and public hearing proceedings.
Appraisal synthesizes all technical data and public input to make a final recommendation on environmental clearance.

Key Concept

Four-Stage Procedural Workflow of EIA Notification 2006
Question 3608Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the Advocate General for a State under Article 165 of the Constitution of India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor of the State.; To be appointed as Advocate General, a person must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Advocate General is appointed by the Governor of the State, and that the person must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court.
The statements confirming that the Advocate General is appointed by the Governor and must be qualified to be a High Court Judge are accurate under Article 165 of the Constitution.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Constitutional Article 165 regarding the appointment and qualifications of the Advocate General.
Article 165 specifies that the Governor appoints the Advocate General, and the appointee must be qualified to serve as a High Court Judge.
This establishes the appointing authority and required eligibility criteria.
2
Examine the tenure and remuneration rules for the Advocate General.
The Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor (not the President) and receives remuneration as determined by the Governor (not fixed by constitutional schedule).
This differentiates state executive positions from union constitutional positions and fixed-salaried posts.

Key Concept

Constitutional Provisions for the Advocate General of a State (Article 165)
Question 3609Question →

Consider the following statements regarding Biodiversity Hotspots and Endemism:

1. Norman Myers' quantitative criteria require a region to contain at least 1,500 species of endemic vascular plants and to have lost at least 70% of its primary native vegetation to be designated as a global biodiversity hotspot.
2. Neo-endemic species refer to evolutionary ancient species that were historically widespread across continents but are currently restricted to narrow ecological refugia due to past climatic shifts.
3. Among the biodiversity hotspots overlapping Indian territory, the Nicobar Islands form part of the Sundaland hotspot, whereas the Andaman Islands are included within the Indo-Burma hotspot.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.
The correct answer identifies that the quantitative thresholds established by Norman Myers (1,500 endemic vascular plant species and at least 70% primary habitat loss) are accurate, and that the Nicobar Islands belong to Sundaland while the Andaman Islands belong to Indo-Burma. The second statement is incorrect because it describes palaeo-endemism rather than neo-endemism.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding global Biodiversity Hotspot criteria.
Statement 1 is correct.
According to Conservation International (based on Norman Myers' model), a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics (>0.5% of the world's total) and it must have lost at least 70% of its original primary habitat (i.e., possess 30% or less of its original natural vegetation).
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding ecological and evolutionary endemism terminology.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Phylogenetically ancient species that were once widespread but are now confined to small refugia (e.g., Ginkgo biloba or ancient conifers) are termed 'palaeo-endemics' (or relict endemics). In contrast, 'neo-endemics' are recently evolved species (often through adaptive radiation or polyploidy) that have not yet had sufficient time to expand their geographical ranges.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Indian biogeographical hotspot boundaries.
Statement 3 is correct.
India overlaps with four global biodiversity hotspots: the Himalayas, Indo-Burma, Western Ghats/Sri Lanka, and Sundaland. Biogeographically, the Nicobar archipelago belongs to the Sundaland hotspot, whereas the Andaman chain of islands falls under the Indo-Burma hotspot.

Key Concept

Hotspot Quantitative Criteria, Evolutionary Types of Endemism, and Regional Hotspot Boundaries in India
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3610Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the physical relief, mountain ranges, and river drainage systems of Karnataka:

1. The Mullayanagiri peak, situated in the Baba Budan Giri Range of the Sahyadri mountains, is the highest elevated peak in the state at approximately 1,930 m1,930\text{ m}.
2. The Sharavathi River originates at Ambuthirtha, flows in a westward direction across the Western Ghats, and forms the Jog Falls before discharging into the Arabian Sea.
3. The Netravati River originates in the Kudremukh hill range and flows eastward across the Bayalu Seema plateau region to empty into the Bay of Bengal.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Statements 1 and 2 are correct

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Mullayanagiri is the highest peak in Karnataka at 1,930 m1,930\text{ m}, located in the Baba Budan Giri Range. The Sharavathi River flows westward into the Arabian Sea via Jog Falls. The Netravati River is also a west-flowing coastal river originating in Kudremukh and emptying into the Arabian Sea at Mangaluru, not an east-flowing river.
Mullayanagiri (1,930 m1,930\text{ m}) in the Baba Budan Giri Range is the highest peak in Karnataka. The Sharavathi River originates at Ambuthirtha, flows west into the Arabian Sea, and forms the Jog Falls. The Netravati River also flows westwards into the Arabian Sea at Mangaluru, making the statement claiming an eastward flow to the Bay of Bengal incorrect. Therefore, only the first two statements are correct.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the highest peak in Karnataka.
Mullayanagiri (1,930 m1,930\text{ m}) in Chikkamagaluru district (Baba Budan Giri Range) is verified as the highest elevated peak in Karnataka. Statement 1 is TRUE.
Geographical peak elevation records for the Western Ghats section of Karnataka.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the Sharavathi River drainage path.
Sharavathi River originates at Ambuthirtha (Shivamogga district), flows westwards, forms Gerusoppa/Jog Falls, and empties into the Arabian Sea at Honnavar. Statement 2 is TRUE.
Hydrographic tracking of major west-flowing rivers of the Sahyadri western slope.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the Netravati River course.
Netravati originates at Bangrabalike valley in Kudremukh range and flows westward through Dakshina Kannada district to join the Arabian Sea near Mangaluru. It does not flow eastward across the plateau. Statement 3 is FALSE.
Distinguishing west-flowing coastal river basins from east-flowing Peninsular river basins.

Key Concept

State Physical Features and Coastal vs. Plateau Drainage Orientation
Question 3611Question →

In the context of human health, epidemiology, and disease etiology, which of the following statements regarding human diseases and their causative pathogens are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Japanese Encephalitis is a viral infection affecting the central nervous system, primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Culex mosquitoes.; Hepatitis B is a viral infection targeting hepatocytes in the liver, capable of causing both acute hepatitis and long-term chronic liver damage.

Answer

The statements confirming that Japanese Encephalitis is a viral disease transmitted by Culex mosquitoes, and that Hepatitis B is a viral liver infection, are correct.
The statements identifying Japanese Encephalitis as a mosquito-borne viral infection and Hepatitis B as a viral liver disease are scientifically accurate. Both correctly specify the pathogen category and clinical target.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the etiology and transmission mode of Japanese Encephalitis.
Japanese Encephalitis is confirmed to be caused by a virus (JEV) and vectored by Culex mosquitoes.
Accurate pathogen classification (viral) and vector identification (Culex mosquito).
2
Evaluate the causative agent of Typhoid fever.
Typhoid fever is identified as a bacterial infection (Salmonella Typhi), contradicting the claim of a protozoan parasite.
Salmonella Typhi is a bacterium that infects the intestinal tract and bloodstream.
3
Analyze the target organ and pathogen of Hepatitis B.
Hepatitis B is verified as a viral disease affecting hepatocytes in the human liver.
HBV is a double-stranded DNA virus specifically targeting hepatic tissue.
4
Evaluate the pathogen type of Tuberculosis.
Tuberculosis is identified as a bacterial disease (Mycobacterium tuberculosis), contradicting the fungal pathogen claim.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a rod-shaped bacterium with a unique waxy cell wall.

Key Concept

Etiological Classification of Human Communicable Diseases
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3612Question →

Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) serves as a cornerstone of India's healthcare social security architecture by offering secondary and tertiary care hospitalization coverage. Which of the following statements regarding the structural design and eligibility criteria of AB-PMJAY are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It provides a health cover of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for hospitalization without any ceiling on family size, age, or gender.; Target beneficiary identification is based on specified occupational and socio-economic deprivation criteria mapped from the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011.

Answer

The correct statements are that AB-PMJAY provides ₹5 lakh health insurance per family per year without caps on size or age, and beneficiary identification is derived from the deprivation and occupational criteria of SECC 2011.
The statements highlighting the ₹5 lakh annual family cover with no cap on family size or age, alongside beneficiary selection grounded in SECC 2011 deprivation and occupational metrics, accurately describe AB-PMJAY's social security framework.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze financial coverage and demographic restrictions
AB-PMJAY provides a cashless cover of ₹5 lakh per family annually for secondary and tertiary care, explicitly omitting any restriction on family size, gender, or age.
Ensuring coverage for larger families and elderly dependents is vital for comprehensive social safety nets.
2
Examine the funding mechanism between Centre and States
AB-PMJAY operates as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme rather than a 100% Central Sector Scheme. The cost is shared between the Centre and State Governments.
Health is a State subject under the Seventh Schedule, requiring shared fiscal and operational responsibilities.
3
Verify beneficiary identification source and pre-existing condition rules
Beneficiaries are automatically identified via SECC 2011 deprivation criteria. Furthermore, pre-existing diseases are covered from the very first day without any waiting period.
Immediate coverage of pre-existing illnesses prevents out-of-pocket medical expenditure traps for vulnerable households.

Key Concept

Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY Architecture, Beneficiary Entitlement, and Fiscal Sharing
Question 3613Question →

Parliamentary committees play a pivotal role in maintaining legislative oversight over executive decisions and public finances in India. Arrange the following Standing and Financial Committees of the Indian Parliament in the correct chronological order of their initial establishment, from the earliest to the most recent:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order of establishment is: Public Accounts Committee (1921), Estimates Committee (1950), Committee on Public Undertakings (1964), and Departmentally Related Standing Committees (1993).
The correct sequence follows the historical timelines of parliamentary evolution in India: the Public Accounts Committee came first in 1921 under colonial reforms; the Estimates Committee was created post-independence in 1950; the Committee on Public Undertakings was formed in 1964 to monitor expanding public enterprises; and the system of Departmentally Related Standing Committees was instituted in 1993 for ministry-specific scrutiny.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the origin date of the Public Accounts Committee.
The Public Accounts Committee was established in 1921.
It was created during the British colonial period under the Government of India Act 1919.
2
Determine the establishment year of the Estimates Committee.
The Estimates Committee was set up in 1950.
It was established after independence upon the recommendation of Finance Minister John Matthai.
3
Identify the creation year of the Committee on Public Undertakings.
The Committee on Public Undertakings was established in 1964.
It was formed to oversee public sector enterprises following recommendations by the Krishna Menon Committee.
4
Identify the year when Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) were introduced.
DRSCs were formally set up in 1993.
Seventeen DRSCs were established in 1993 (later expanded to 24 in 2004) to strengthen parliamentary control over executive functioning.
5
Sequence the committees by year of creation.
Sequence: Public Accounts Committee (1921) → Estimates Committee (1950) → Committee on Public Undertakings (1964) → Departmentally Related Standing Committees (1993).
Arranging the years chronologically from 1921 to 1993.

Key Concept

Evolution and Establishment Chronology of Indian Parliamentary Committees
Question 3614Question →

Arrange the following structural layers of the Sun in correct sequence, moving progressively outward from the solar interior to the outermost regions of the solar atmosphere:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence moving from the inner solar region outward to the solar atmosphere is: Radiative Zone, Convective Zone, Photosphere, Chromosphere, and Corona.
Moving progressively outward from the nuclear core, solar energy traverses the Radiative Zone via electromagnetic diffusion, then passes through the Convective Zone via circulating plasma currents. The visible surface boundary is the Photosphere, above which the solar atmosphere is divided into the lower Chromosphere and the extreme outer Corona.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Sequence the internal energy transport layers surrounding the core.
The Radiative Zone sits immediately above the core (0.250.25 to 0.700.70 solar radii), followed by the Convective Zone (0.700.70 to 1.001.00 solar radii).
As internal temperature drops outward, plasma opacity increases, causing energy transport to transition from photon radiation to fluid thermal convection.
2
Identify the boundary separating the solar interior from the solar atmosphere.
The Photosphere lies directly atop the Convective Zone.
The photosphere represents the optical surface of the Sun where light becomes transparent enough to escape freely into space.
3
Arrange the exterior solar atmospheric layers in outward order.
The Chromosphere sits directly above the photosphere, which is encircled by the outermost extended Corona.
The chromosphere forms the lower, cooler atmospheric shell, whereas coronal magnetic heating causes the extreme outer corona to expand far into space.

Key Concept

Solar Interior Structure and Atmospheric Stratification
Question 3615Question →

With reference to the historic Bijolia Peasant Movement in regional state history, consider the following statements:

1. It originated in the Mewar princely state as a prolonged non-violent agrarian struggle against excessive land revenue demands, forced labor (begar), and arbitrary feudal cesses (lag-bags).
2. The movement was initially organized under the leadership of Sadhu Sitaram Das and was later transformed into a structured mass resistance by Vijay Singh Pathik.
3. The revolutionary peasants established an autonomous administrative body known as the 'Uparmal Panch Board' in 1917 to coordinate resistance activities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
All three statements are historically accurate. The Bijolia Peasant Movement was one of the longest non-violent peasant agitations in Indian state history, lasting from 1897 to 1941 in the Mewar region. It was sparked by 84 distinct feudal cesses (lag-bags). Sadhu Sitaram Das guided its first phase, while Vijay Singh Pathik took over in 1916 and founded the 'Uparmal Panch Board' in 1917 as an autonomous administrative committee.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the background and location of the movement.
Statement 1 is correct: The Bijolia Peasant Movement (1897–1941) took place in the Bijolia thikana of Mewar Princely State against 84 oppressive feudal cesses (lag-bags) and forced labor.
Establishing the agrarian nature and regional context of the rebellion.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the leadership evolution.
Statement 2 is correct: Sadhu Sitaram Das led the first phase of the movement starting in 1897. Vijay Singh Pathik (Ras Behari Bose's associate originally named Bhup Singh) assumed leadership in 1916.
Verifying the key regional leaders and leadership transition phases.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding organizational infrastructure.
Statement 3 is correct: On the day of Hariyali Amavasya in 1917, Vijay Singh Pathik formed the 'Uparmal Panch Board' with Manna Patel as its Sarpanch to run a parallel peasant administration.
Confirming the institutional body created during the agitation.

Key Concept

Bijolia Peasant Movement of Mewar State
Question 3616Question →

Which Article of the Constitution of India specifies the constitutional duty of the Chief Minister to furnish information to the Governor regarding the administration of state affairs and legislative proposals?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Article 167

Answer

Article 167 of the Constitution of India defines the duties of the Chief Minister towards the Governor regarding state administration and legislative proposals.
Article 167 of the Constitution of India defines the duties of the Chief Minister as the channel of communication between the Council of Ministers and the Governor, requiring the Chief Minister to communicate all decisions and legislative proposals of the cabinet to the Governor.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the relevant constitutional provision regarding the communication link between the Chief Minister and the Governor.
Under Part VI of the Constitution, Article 167 outlines the duties of the Chief Minister.
The Chief Minister acts as the principal channel of communication between the Council of Ministers and the Governor.
2
Verify the specific mandates contained in Article 167.
It mandates the Chief Minister to communicate all executive decisions and proposals for legislation to the Governor, and to furnish information requested by the Governor.
This maintains constitutional governance and keeps the state executive head informed.

Key Concept

Duties of the Chief Minister under Article 167
Estimated Time:45s
Question 3617Question →

Which of the following represents the correct chronological sequence of adoption (from earliest to latest) for these major international environmental agreements?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological order of adoption from earliest to latest is: CITES (1973), Basel Convention (1989), Cartagena Protocol (2000), and Nagoya Protocol (2010).
The correct sequence places CITES first (adopted in 1973), followed by the Basel Convention (adopted in 1989), then the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (adopted in 2000), and finally the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-Sharing (adopted in 2010).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the adoption year of CITES.
CITES was adopted in 1973 in Washington, D.C.
This is the earliest convention among the given options.
2
Determine the adoption year of the Basel Convention.
The Basel Convention was adopted in 1989.
It addresses transboundary hazardous waste and follows CITES chronologically.
3
Determine the adoption year of the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.
The Cartagena Protocol was adopted in 2000.
It serves as the first supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity regarding biosafety.
4
Determine the adoption year of the Nagoya Protocol.
The Nagoya Protocol was adopted in 2010.
It is the second supplementary protocol to the CBD, adopted a decade after the Cartagena Protocol.

Key Concept

Chronology of major multilateral environmental treaties and protocols
Question 3618Question →

Which of the following statements accurately describes the quantitative criteria for designating a global biodiversity hotspot and the biogeographical alignment of Indian territories within these hotspots?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: To qualify as a hotspot, a region must harbor at least 1,500 endemic species of vascular plants and have lost at least 70% of its primary native vegetation, with the Nicobar group of islands forming part of the Sundaland hotspot.

Answer

The correct option states that a hotspot must contain at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species, have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation, and includes the Nicobar Islands within the Sundaland hotspot.
The correct answer accurately states both quantitative criteria established by Norman Myers and Conservation International (minimum 1,500 endemic vascular plant species and maximum 30% remaining primary vegetation / 70% lost) and correctly identifies the Nicobar Islands as part of the Sundaland biodiversity hotspot.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify Norman Myers' criteria for global biodiversity hotspots.
A region must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics (>0.5% of the global total) and must have lost at least 70% of its original primary vegetation.
These dual criteria ensure that hotspots reflect both high threat and high irreplaceable biological value.
2
Determine the biogeographical coverage of Indian hotspots.
India overlaps with four global biodiversity hotspots: Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka), Himalayas, Indo-Burma (includes Andaman Islands), and Sundaland (includes Nicobar Islands).
Distinguishing the specific island groups is essential as Andaman belongs to Indo-Burma whereas Nicobar belongs to Sundaland.
3
Evaluate the statements against these established benchmarks.
The statement specifying 1,500 endemic vascular plants, 70% primary vegetation loss, and Nicobar's inclusion under Sundaland is completely correct.
All numeric parameters and regional geographical assignments match the official conservation guidelines.

Key Concept

Biodiversity Hotspot Criteria & Regional Alignment in India
Question 3619Question →

Consider the following statements regarding human infectious diseases, their biological pathogens, and transmission vectors:

1. Dengue fever is caused by a flavivirus and is transmitted primarily by the female Aedes aegyptiAedes\ aegypti mosquito.
2. Bubonic plague is caused by a protozoan parasite and is transmitted to humans by sandflies.
3. Trachoma, a leading infectious cause of preventable blindness, is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatisChlamydia\ trachomatis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The statements asserting that Dengue fever is viral (transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes) and Trachoma is bacterial (caused by Chlamydia trachomatis) are scientifically accurate. The statement regarding plague is incorrect because plague is bacterial (Yersinia pestis) and flea-borne, not protozoan or sandfly-borne.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Dengue fever
Statement 1 is correct. Dengue fever is an arboviral infection caused by a virus of the Flaviviridae family and transmitted by female Aedes aegypti mosquitoes.
Accurate identification of pathogen type (virus) and vector (Aedes mosquito).
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Bubonic plague
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bubonic plague is caused by the Gram-negative bacterium Yersinia pestis, not a protozoan parasite. Its primary vector is the Oriental rat flea (Xenopsylla cheopis), not sandflies.
Correction of pathogen classification (bacterium instead of protozoan) and vector (rat flea instead of sandfly).
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Trachoma
Statement 3 is correct. Trachoma is a contagious bacterial eye infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis that leads to irreversible blindness if untreated.
Accurate identification of etiology and agent for trachoma.

Key Concept

Classification of infectious human diseases by pathogen type (viral, bacterial, protozoan) and vectors.
Question 3620Question →

Which of the following methods are correctly classified as Ex-situ (off-site) biodiversity conservation strategies? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Botanical gardens; Cryopreservation facilities; Seed banks

Answer

Botanical gardens, cryopreservation facilities, and seed banks are ex-situ conservation strategies, whereas national parks are an in-situ strategy.
Botanical gardens, cryopreservation facilities, and seed banks are all ex-situ conservation methods because organisms or their genetic materials are preserved outside their natural environments in artificial, controlled settings.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Define In-situ and Ex-situ conservation.
In-situ conservation involves protecting species within their natural habitats. Ex-situ conservation involves conserving biological components outside their natural surroundings.
Establishing clear definitions allows proper classification of each conservation mechanism.
2
Classify each given option.
Botanical gardens, cryopreservation, and seed banks operate off-site in human-managed facilities (ex-situ). National parks protect natural habitats and wild populations on-site (in-situ).
Determining whether conservation occurs inside or outside natural boundaries reveals the correct choices.

Key Concept

Distinction between In-situ and Ex-situ Biodiversity Conservation
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