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4581 questions

Question 2581Question

A district administration is formulating an administrative strategy to enforce a ban on single-use plastics among informal street vendors and micro-enterprises. The administration aims to minimize socio-economic disruption while ensuring policy feasibility and environmental compliance. Which of the following administrative measures represent feasible and sustainable policy interventions?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Establishing a subsidized distribution network for biodegradable alternative packaging alongside a transitional grace period for micro-vendors.; Conducting localized public awareness drives and deploying community-based monitoring committees for phased compliance verification.

Answer

The feasible and sustainable policy interventions are establishing a subsidized alternative packaging network with a grace period, and conducting localized public awareness drives with community-based monitoring.
The correct measures focus on capacity building, financial assistance via subsidized alternatives, a transition period, and decentralized stakeholder engagement. These strategies lower compliance barriers for vulnerable informal vendors and ensure long-term policy success.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the administrative constraints and target population.
Informal vendors face financial and operational hurdles in shifting away from single-use plastics immediately.
Policy feasibility requires understanding the socio-economic context of the affected stakeholders.
2
Evaluate constructive administrative interventions vs. coercive measures.
Providing subsidized alternatives and community engagement builds capacity and compliance, whereas harsh penalties cause public backlash.
Sustainable public policy balances environmental goals with ethical and procedural fairness.
3
Identify valid multi-select options based on policy impact criteria.
Interventions supporting capacity building and stakeholder participation are valid, while extreme punitive actions and policy paralysis are invalid.
Selected measures must be feasible, balanced, and legally sound.

Key Concept

Public Policy Feasibility and Stakeholder Impact Analysis
Question 2582Question

With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), consider the following statements:

1. It is a permanent intergovernmental international organization.
2. The official working languages of the SCO are English and French.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

1 only
The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international organization announced in 2001. Its official and working languages are Russian and Chinese, making the statement specifying English and French incorrect.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the organizational status of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
Statement 1 is correct. The SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization founded in Shanghai on June 15, 2001.
Its charter defines its status as a permanent intergovernmental body.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the official working languages of the SCO.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The official and working languages of the SCO are Russian and Chinese.
English and French are working languages of bodies like the United Nations, but not the SCO.

Key Concept

Organizational Framework and Official Languages of Multilateral Bodies (SCO)
Question 2583Question

With reference to atmospheric ozone and ozone-depleting substances, consider the following statements:

1. Tropospheric ozone acts as a powerful greenhouse gas and is a major secondary air pollutant, whereas stratospheric ozone absorbs harmful solar ultraviolet radiation.
2. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) cause significant depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer and possess a very low Global Warming Potential (GWP).
3. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol explicitly aims to phase down the production and consumption of Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 only are correct.
The statement option '1 and 3 only' is correct. Tropospheric ozone acts as a secondary pollutant and greenhouse gas, while stratospheric ozone protects against UV radiation. Additionally, the Kigali Amendment legally binds countries to phase down HFCs under the Montreal Protocol architecture.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding tropospheric and stratospheric ozone.
Statement 1 is correct. Stratospheric ozone ('good ozone') absorbs harmful UV rays. Tropospheric ozone ('bad ozone') is formed secondarily via photochemical reactions and acts as a potent greenhouse gas and pollutant.
Evaluates atmospheric layer-specific properties of ozone.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
Statement 2 is incorrect. HFCs were introduced as non-ozone-depleting alternatives to CFCs and HCFCs (they have zero Ozone Depletion Potential, ODP). However, HFCs have exceptionally high Global Warming Potential (GWP), thousands of times greater than CO2CO_2.
Distinguishes Ozone Depleting Potential (ODP) from Global Warming Potential (GWP).
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the Kigali Amendment.
Statement 3 is correct. Adopted in 2016, the Kigali Amendment extended the scope of the Montreal Protocol to mandate a global phase-down of HFCs due to their high climate-warming impact.
Verifies international legal frameworks controlling greenhouse gases and ODS.

Key Concept

Ozone chemistry, Ozone Depleting Potential vs. Global Warming Potential, and Kigali Amendment provisions
Question 2584Question

With reference to the historical peasant movements in regional state history, consider the following statements regarding the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928):

1. The satyagraha was organized primarily to protest against a 30 percent enhancement in land revenue imposed by the colonial Bombay Presidency revenue department.
2. Vallabhbhai Patel was conferred the title of 'Sardar' by the women of Bardoli during the course of this movement.
3. The British administration constituted the Broomfield-Maxwell Judicial Committee to re-examine the land assessment, which subsequently recommended reducing the revenue increase to approximately 6 percent.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct regarding the Bardoli Satyagraha.
The statement set including 1, 2 and 3 is correct. The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 in Gujarat was sparked by an arbitrary 30% increase in land revenue by the Bombay Presidency. Under Vallabhbhai Patel's strategic leadership, the peasants refused tax payments despite land confiscations. The women of Bardoli honored him with the title 'Sardar'. Ultimately, colonial authorities were forced to yield and appointed the Broomfield-Maxwell Committee, which slashed the tax enhancement to 6.03%.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the cause of the movement.
In January 1926, the colonial revenue authorities in the Bombay Presidency raised the land revenue assessment in Bardoli taluka by 30 percent (later revised slightly to 22 percent under pressure, but officially triggered at 30 percent), leading directly to widespread peasant refusal to pay taxes.
Establishing the precise economic grievance that triggered the regional historical protest.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding leadership and honorific title.
Vallabhbhai Patel assumed leadership of the struggle, maintaining non-violent resistance and organizing local peasants into camps. Impressed by his resolute leadership, the women of Bardoli bestowed upon him the title 'Sardar' (meaning Chief or Leader).
Verifying prominent local historical milestones and social recognitions within state movement history.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding official inquiry committees and resolution.
Following intense agitation and non-cooperation, the British government appointed the Broomfield-Maxwell Committee to re-evaluate the revenue revision. The committee deemed the original tax increase unjustified and recommended reducing the enhanced levy to 6.03 percent.
Confirming the specific administrative and legal outcome of the regional movement.

Key Concept

Bardoli Satyagraha & Regional Peasant Movements
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2585Question

With reference to the traditional folk arts, painting traditions, and cultural festivals of Rajasthan, consider the following statements:

1. Phad painting is a traditional scroll painting style depicting local folk deities like Pabuji and Devnarayan, traditionally practiced by the Joshi community of Bhilwara.
2. Pichwai art consists of intricate textile paintings created primarily as backdrop hangings to adorn the deity Shrinathji at Nathdwara.
3. The famous annual Desert Festival, featuring traditional folk music, dance, and cultural performances, is held in the district of Barmer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Statements 1 and 2 are factually correct. Phad painting is indeed a traditional cloth scroll painting of Bhilwara depicting folk deities, and Pichwai art originates from Nathdwara depicting Lord Krishna. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Desert Festival takes place annually in Jaisalmer, whereas Barmer organizes the Thar Festival.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Phad Painting
Statement 1 is correct.
Phad is a renowned religious scroll painting tradition from Bhilwara, Rajasthan, executed mainly by the Joshi lineage of the Chhipa caste, depicting the epics of folk hero deities Pabuji and Devnarayan.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Pichwai Art
Statement 2 is correct.
Pichwai paintings are cloth wall hangings made to depict scenes from the life of Lord Krishna (Shrinathji) and are centered in the temple town of Nathdwara in Rajsamand district.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the Desert Festival location
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The annual Desert Festival is celebrated against the backdrop of the Sam Sand Dunes in Jaisalmer district, not Barmer district (Barmer hosts the Thar Festival).

Key Concept

Folk Painting Traditions and Cultural Festivals of Rajasthan
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2586Question

Match each policy intervention or socio-economic phenomenon listed in List I with its corresponding direct primary cause or logical outcome in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Substantial increase in municipal subsidies for drip irrigation equipment in semi-arid agricultural districts
Sharp reduction in peak-hour vehicular traffic congestion across central business districts following congestion pricing implementation
Drastic drop in micro-enterprise loan default rates following the rollout of digital credit history tracking
Sudden spike in urban hospital admissions for acute respiratory distress during late autumn months

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matching pairs are: Subsidies for drip irrigation match with decreased agricultural groundwater depletion and enhanced water-use efficiency; Congestion pricing implementation matches with increased reliance on mass transit systems and staggered workplace timings; Digital credit history tracking matches with improved borrower risk assessment and reduced asymmetric information; Spike in respiratory hospital admissions matches with post-harvest crop residue burning combined with atmospheric temperature inversion.
Each item in List I represents an action or event whose direct underlying cause or primary effect is uniquely identified in List II. Drip irrigation subsidies directly improve agricultural water-use efficiency and lower groundwater depletion. Congestion pricing drives commuters toward public transit and staggered shifts. Digital credit tracking solves asymmetric information problems to reduce loan defaults. Severe seasonal respiratory spikes stem from post-harvest crop residue burning trapped by atmospheric inversion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the direct logical outcome of agricultural drip irrigation subsidies.
Drip irrigation delivers water directly to root zones, minimising evaporation and runoff.
Financial incentives for water-conserving tech directly produce measurable groundwater conservation.
2
Evaluate the behavioral impact of urban congestion pricing.
Peak-hour road pricing increases private driving costs, shifting modal choice toward public transit.
Economic disincentives directly alter commuter transit preferences and driving times.
3
Analyze the financial market effect of digital credit history tracking.
Transparent credit records resolve lender uncertainty regarding borrower creditworthiness.
Eliminating information asymmetry lowers bad debt and micro-loan defaults.
4
Determine the primary cause of seasonal urban respiratory hospital admission surges.
Stubble burning generates pollutant volume while atmospheric inversion prevents vertical pollutant dispersion.
The co-occurrence of heavy particulate emission and meteorological trapping forms the direct underlying cause of severe respiratory distress spikes.

Key Concept

Direct Cause and Effect Relationships in Public Policy and Environmental Systems
Question 2587Question

Consider the following statements regarding tribal demographics and Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1. Odisha accounts for the highest number of designated Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) among all Indian states.
2. The criteria established for identifying PVTGs include a stagnant or declining population, pre-agricultural level of technology, extremely low literacy, and a subsistence level of economy.
3. According to Census 2011, the sex ratio among the Scheduled Tribe (ST) population in India is higher than the overall national average sex ratio.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
The correct response includes all three statements because each assertion is factually accurate: Odisha hosts 13 of the 75 PVTGs (the highest of any state), the four defined baseline criteria for PVTG categorization match official parameters, and the ST sex ratio of 990 per 1,000 males exceeds the national average of 943.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding PVTG concentration across Indian states.
Statement 1 is correct. Out of the 75 recognized PVTGs in India, Odisha has the highest number (13 groups), followed by Andhra Pradesh/Telangana.
Official Ministry of Tribal Affairs data assigns 13 PVTGs to Odisha.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the identification criteria for PVTGs.
Statement 2 is correct. In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (renamed PVTGs in 2006) based on four specific baseline indicators: pre-agricultural technology, stagnant/declining population, low literacy, and subsistence economy.
These criteria remain the standard baseline for categorizing vulnerable tribal communities.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Scheduled Tribe sex ratio vs national average in Census 2011.
Statement 3 is correct. The sex ratio for Scheduled Tribes in Census 2011 was 990 females per 1,000 males, whereas the overall national sex ratio of India was 943 females per 1,000 males.
Tribal societies generally exhibit less pronounced gender bias, resulting in a higher female-to-male ratio compared to national figures.

Key Concept

Demographic Profile of Scheduled Tribes and PVTG Classification
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2588Question

Which of the following sets of criteria is officially recognized by the Government of India for identifying a tribal community as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Pre-agricultural level of technology, stagnant or declining population, extremely low literacy, and a subsistence level of economy

Answer

The correct option is the one stating pre-agricultural level of technology, stagnant or declining population, extremely low literacy, and a subsistence level of economy.
The correct answer accurately states the four parameters laid down for PVTG identification: pre-agricultural technology, stagnant/declining population, extremely low literacy, and a subsistence economy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recall the official definition and criteria set by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs for PVTGs.
The criteria established by the Dhebar Commission (1960–1961) include four specific indicators.
PVTGs (formerly known as Primitive Tribal Groups) are isolated, socio-economically vulnerable communities requiring targeted development intervention.
2
Evaluate the four standard criteria against the given choices.
The parameters are: (1) Pre-agricultural level of technology, (2) Low level of literacy, (3) Economic backwardness at a subsistence level, and (4) Stagnant or declining population.
Matching these parameters identifies the accurate definition of PVTGs.

Key Concept

Criteria for Identification of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
Question 2589Question

Consider the following statements regarding the traditional art forms, open-air cultural festivals, and temple architecture of Odisha:

1. The Parasurameswara Temple in Bhubaneswar exemplifies early Kalinga architecture, featuring a Rekha Deula spire alongside a pillared, flat-roofed Jagamohana hall.
2. Pattachitra is a traditional cloth-based scroll painting style of Odisha, utilizing natural mineral pigments and predominantly depicting themes of Lord Jagannath and Vaishnava traditions.
3. Dhanu Yatra, held annually in Bargarh district, is recognized as the world's largest open-air theater performance, reenacting mythological episodes of Lord Krishna and King Kamsa.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.
The statement set is entirely accurate: Parasurameswara Temple in Bhubaneswar represents early Kalinga style with its distinct Rekha Deula and flat-roofed hall, Pattachitra is the traditional cloth scroll painting executed with natural mineral dyes depicting Jagannath motifs, and Dhanu Yatra in Bargarh district holds global recognition as the largest open-air theatrical festival based on Kamsa and Krishna narrative episodes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Parasurameswara Temple architecture
Statement 1 is correct. Built around the 7th-8th century CE, Parasurameswara Temple in Bhubaneswar represents the early phase of Kalinga Nagara architecture, characterized by a curved Rekha Deula (sanctum spire) and a low, flat-roofed rectangular Jagamohana (assembly hall).
Early Kalinga temples had not yet developed the tiered pyramidal (Pida Deula) roof structure for Jagamohana seen in mature period temples like Konark.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Odisha's Pattachitra art form
Statement 2 is correct. Pattachitra ('Patta' meaning cloth canvas and 'Chitra' meaning picture) uses natural colors extracted from stones, conch shells, and plants to paint Vaishnavite themes, especially the Jagannath cult and Krishna Leela.
Pattachitra is one of the oldest scroll painting traditions originating in Raghurajpur and Puri regions of Odisha.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Dhanu Yatra in Bargarh district
Statement 3 is correct. Spread over an area of over 8 km² in Bargarh, Dhanu Yatra transforms the entire town into Mathura, the Jeera River into the Yamuna, and Amapali village into Gopapur, making it the world's largest open-air theater.
It is an annual 11-day cultural festival celebrating the victory of good over evil based on Krishna Leela and King Kamsa.

Key Concept

State Cultural Heritage: Kalinga Architecture, Pattachitra Folk Art, and Dhanu Yatra Festival
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2590Question

Consider the following statements regarding the state's economic geography, agricultural zoning, and natural resource distribution:

1. Bauxite reserves in the plateau belt are primarily concentrated within high-level laterite cappings overlying Precambrian khondalite rock formations.
2. The coastal district plains fall under the East Coast Plains and Hills Agro-Climatic Zone, where Kharif paddy constitutes the dominant agricultural crop.
3. Large-scale river lift irrigation projects across major river basins operate exclusively via off-grid micro-solar power infrastructure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect.
Bauxite deposits on plateau regions originate from deep weathering of Precambrian khondalite rocks into lateritic cappings, making the first statement correct. The coastal plain regions are classified under the East Coast Plains and Hills Agro-Climatic Zone where Kharif paddy is the primary staple crop, making the second statement correct. The third statement is incorrect because high-capacity river lift irrigation schemes depend on state electrical grid connections and sub-stations rather than exclusively off-grid micro-solar units.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding mineral geology and bauxite distribution.
Bauxite deposits in peninsular plateau belts occur extensively as lateritic cappings over khondalite and charnockite suites. Statement 1 is correct.
Geological survey data confirms the genesis of high-grade bauxite from the weathering of khondalite parent rocks in plateau regions.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding agro-climatic zoning.
The state's eastern coastal alluvial plains belong to Planning Commission Zone 11 (East Coast Plains and Hills Region), dominated by rainfed and irrigated Kharif paddy. Statement 2 is correct.
Agro-climatic classification places these coastal lowlands in the East Coast zone.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding irrigation infrastructure.
Large-scale lift irrigation points rely on grid electricity and dedicated agricultural feeders, not exclusively off-grid micro-solar systems. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Off-grid micro-solar systems are limited to small-scale individual pump sets, whereas major lift irrigation requires grid-tied high-voltage power.

Key Concept

State Natural Resources, Geological Formations, and Agro-Climatic Infrastructure
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2591Question

Consider the following statements regarding atmospheric ozone and its role in environmental processes:

1. Stratospheric ozone acts as a protective shield against harmful ultraviolet (UV-B) radiation, whereas ground-level tropospheric ozone acts as a toxic air pollutant and greenhouse gas.
2. The catalytic destruction of stratospheric ozone by chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) is primarily driven by free chlorine radicals generated upon exposure to ultraviolet radiation.
3. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) possess high ozone depletion potential and directly destroy stratospheric ozone molecules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Stratospheric ozone shields Earth from solar UV-B radiation, whereas tropospheric ozone is a ground-level pollutant and greenhouse gas. Free chlorine radicals from CFCs act as catalysts in stratospheric ozone destruction. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) lack chlorine atoms and have an Ozone Depletion Potential of zero, making the statement identifying them as ozone-depleting substances incorrect.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding atmospheric ozone locations and roles.
Statement 1 is correct. Ozone in the stratosphere shields the Earth from harmful UV-B radiation. In contrast, tropospheric (ground-level) ozone is formed photochemically and acts as a key component of smog, a toxic air pollutant, and a greenhouse gas.
Ozone plays opposite roles depending on the atmospheric layer in which it resides.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding CFC catalytic mechanism.
Statement 2 is correct. Intense solar UV radiation splits chlorine atoms from CFC molecules. A single chlorine radical can break apart thousands of ozone (O3O_3) molecules into oxygen molecules (O2O_2) through a self-regenerating catalytic cycle.
Chlorine radicals initiate and propagate ozone destruction without being consumed in the net reaction.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
Statement 3 is incorrect. HFCs contain hydrogen, fluorine, and carbon, but no chlorine or bromine. Consequently, their Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP) is zero. HFCs are potent greenhouse gases with high Global Warming Potential (GWP), which led to their phase-down under the Kigali Amendment.
HFCs do not destroy stratospheric ozone; their environmental threat is climate forcing.

Key Concept

Dual Role of Atmospheric Ozone and Chemistry of Ozone Depletion vs Greenhouse Gas Impact
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 2592Question

With reference to the natural resource distribution and agricultural patterns of a state, consider the following statements:

1. Black soil (Regur) is predominantly found in basaltic trap regions, making it highly suitable for rainfed cotton and soybean cultivation.
2. Laterite soils are naturally rich in nitrogen and organic matter, making them highly fertile for paddy without requiring synthetic fertilizers.
3. Major bauxite deposits are primarily associated with residual plateau cappings formed by intense weathering under humid tropical conditions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The correct option correctly identifies statements 1 and 3 as factual. Regur soil derived from basaltic traps retains moisture and supports crops like cotton and soybean, while bauxite deposits originate as residual plateau caps formed by monsoon leaching. Statement 2 is incorrect because laterite soil suffers from heavy leaching and is naturally poor in nitrogen, humus, and lime.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding black soil characteristics and agricultural suitability.
Statement 1 is correct. Black soil (Regur) formed from volcanic basaltic lava has high clay content and moisture retention, making it well-suited for cotton and soybean production.
Basaltic weathering imparts high moisture retention and mineral content essential for rainfed cash crops.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding laterite soil nutrient status and fertility.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Laterite soils undergo severe leaching under high temperature and heavy rainfall, resulting in severe deficiency in nitrogen, potash, lime, and organic matter.
Leaching washes away soluble plant nutrients and silica, leaving behind infertile iron and aluminum oxides.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding bauxite mineral origin and landform association.
Statement 3 is correct. Bauxite deposits represent residual concentrations of hydrated aluminum oxides occurring as cap rocks on high-altitude plateaus subject to tropical monsoon weathering.
Lateralization on plateau caps concentrates insoluble aluminum hydroxides over time.

Key Concept

State Resource Distribution, Soil Characteristics, and Mineral Ore Genesis
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2593Question

Consider the following statements regarding the tribal demographics and Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) of the state:

1. The Birhor and Hill Korwa tribes are recognized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) residing predominantly in hilly and forested regions.
2. In state census demographic profiles, the district recording the highest overall population density also records the highest literacy rate among the Scheduled Tribe population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

The statement that Birhor and Hill Korwa are recognized PVTGs is correct, whereas high tribal literacy does not necessarily correlate with the most densely populated urban district.
Statement 1 accurately identifies the Birhor and Hill Korwa as recognized Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). Statement 2 is false because census demographic data demonstrates that high urban population density does not directly correlate with peak Scheduled Tribe literacy rates across administrative districts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding PVTG status.
Birhor and Hill Korwa are recognized PVTGs inhabiting hilly and forested tracts.
Official state tribal welfare classifications designate these groups as PVTGs based on declining/stagnant population and traditional socio-economic indicators.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding district demographic correlations.
The highest tribal literacy rate is recorded in dedicated rural/tribal districts with strong educational outreach, not the highest density urban district.
High urban population density does not automatically translate to high literacy rates specifically among the Scheduled Tribe population across districts.
3
Determine the overall correctness of the given options.
Only Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 1 is factually true, and Statement 2 is factually false.

Key Concept

PVTG Classification and State District Demographic Profiles
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 2594Question

Consider the following statements regarding the traditional art, architectural heritage, and cultural fairs of Madhya Pradesh:

1. The Khajuraho Dance Festival, celebrating major classical Indian dance forms, is organized annually against the backdrop of historical temples in the Chhatarpur district.
2. The Lakshmana Temple at Khajuraho, dedicated to Lord Vishnu, features a classic Panchayatana layout and was commissioned by the Chandela ruler Yashovarman.
3. The Teli Ka Mandir at Gwalior Fort exhibits a unique fusion of architectural styles, incorporating a Dravida-style Valabhi shikhara atop a Nagara-style elevated plan.
4. The traditional Bhagoria fair, associated with the Bhil and Bhilala tribes, is celebrated annually during the festival season of Diwali across the Nimar and Malwa regions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 3 only

Answer

The correct combination is 1, 2, and 3 only.
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are historically and culturally accurate. The Khajuraho Dance Festival occurs in Chhatarpur district; Lakshmana Temple is a Panchayatana Vishnu temple built by Chandela ruler Yashovarman; and Teli Ka Mandir in Gwalior displays a distinct Valabhi Dravida roof structure atop Nagara features. Statement 4 is false because Bhagoria Haat is celebrated prior to Holi in spring, not during Diwali.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Khajuraho Dance Festival
Statement 1 is correct. The festival is hosted annually in February by the MP Culture Department in Chhatarpur district.
Verifying district administration and festival venue details.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Lakshmana Temple architectural style and patronage
Statement 2 is correct. Built around 930–950 CE by Chandela King Yashovarman, the temple has a central shrine surrounded by four subsidiary shrines (Panchayatana style) dedicated to Vishnu.
Analyzing royal patronage and structural layout of Khajuraho temples.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Teli Ka Mandir architectural hybridity
Statement 3 is correct. Teli Ka Mandir (8th-9th century, Gurjara-Pratihara era) in Gwalior Fort integrates a Dravida/Valabhi vaulted roof structure with Nagara wall decorations and elevation.
Checking architectural nomenclature and hybridization in central Indian temples.
4
Evaluate Statement 4 regarding the tribal festival of Bhagoria
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Bhagoria Haat festival of the Bhil and Bhilala tribes takes place in March in the week preceding Holi, serving as a agricultural harvest celebration and matchmaking fair, not during Diwali.
Detecting seasonal and cultural mismatches in tribal state fairs.

Key Concept

State architectural patronage, temple typologies (Nagara, Dravida, Panchayatana), and regional folk fair calendars.
Estimated Time:1m 45s
Question 2595Question

Read the given relationship statements carefully: 'X is the child of Y, and Y is the mother of Z.' If W is the brother of X, which of the following best describes the relationship of Z to W?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Brother or Sister (Cannot be determined uniquely without knowing Z's gender)

Answer

Brother or Sister (Cannot be determined uniquely without knowing Z's gender)
Y is the mother of X and Z. Because W is the brother of X, all three are siblings sharing Y as their mother. However, since no relational term specifies whether Z is male or female, Z can be either a brother or a sister to W.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze parent-child relationships
Y is the common parent of X, Z, and W
Y is the mother of X and Z. Since W is the brother of X, W is also a child of Y.
2
Determine generation and sibling group
X, Z, and W are all siblings
All three share the same mother Y, putting them in the same generation.
3
Evaluate gender of the target person
Gender of Z is unspecified
The term 'child' does not define gender. Without explicit information, Z may be male or female.

Key Concept

Gender ambiguity in family trees
Question 2596Question

Consider the following statements regarding the atmospheric chemistry of ozone layer depletion and polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs):

1. Type I PSCs, composed mainly of nitric acid trihydrate (HNO33H2OHNO_3 \cdot 3H_2O), form at lower temperatures than Type II PSCs, which consist of pure water ice.
2. Heterogeneous reactions on the surfaces of PSC particles convert inactive reservoir species such as chlorine nitrate (ClONO2ClONO_2) and hydrogen chloride (HClHCl) into photolytically active chlorine compounds like molecular chlorine (Cl2Cl_2).
3. In the polar springtime lower stratosphere, ozone destruction occurs predominantly through the ClOClO dimer (Cl2O2Cl_2O_2) catalytic cycle rather than the atomic oxygen-dependent cycle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Type I Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs) form at roughly 195 K195\text{ K} (78C-78^\circ\text{C}), whereas Type II PSCs require even colder conditions (below 188 K188\text{ K} or 85C-85^\circ\text{C}) to form pure water ice. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect. Heterogeneous reactions on PSC surfaces convert inert reservoir species (HClHCl and ClONO2ClONO_2) into active Cl2Cl_2. When sunlight returns in spring, Cl2Cl_2 photolyzes into reactive chlorine radicals, which destroy ozone predominantly via the ClOClO dimer (Cl2O2Cl_2O_2) catalytic pathway in the lower stratosphere where atomic oxygen is scarce.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding PSC formation temperatures
Statement 1 is incorrect because Type I PSCs (nitric acid trihydrate) condense at higher temperatures (~195 K) than Type II PSCs (pure water ice, forming below ~188 K).
Water requires colder temperatures to freeze into ice particles than nitric acid trihydrate requires to crystallize.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding heterogeneous surface reactions
Statement 2 is correct. PSC surfaces provide ice crystals for inactive reservoir chlorine molecules (HClHCl and ClONO2ClONO_2) to react, forming Cl2Cl_2 gas.
During the polar night, these heterogeneous reactions convert stable reservoir species into photolytically unstable molecular chlorine.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding polar ozone destruction pathways
Statement 3 is correct. Because atomic oxygen (OO) is extremely scarce in the lower stratosphere during early spring, the ClOClO dimer (Cl2O2Cl_2O_2) catalytic cycle accounts for over 75% of Antarctic ozone loss.
The dimer Cl2O2Cl_2O_2 photolyzes under sunlight into ClOOClOO and ClCl, freeing chlorine atoms to destroy ozone without requiring free atomic oxygen.

Key Concept

Heterogeneous stratospheric chemistry and PSC-driven polar ozone depletion catalytic cycles
Question 2597Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Paika Rebellion of 1817 in Odisha:

1. It was led by Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhara, the military chief of the King of Khurda.
2. The primary immediate causes of the rebellion included the oppressive land revenue system and extortionate salt duty policies imposed by the British East India Company.
3. The Paikas were the traditional landed militia of Odisha who rendered military services to the state in return for rent-free land tenure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 3

Answer

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.
All three statements accurately describe the Paika Rebellion of 1817 in Odisha. Bakshi Jagabandhu led the traditional landed militia (Paikas) against British East India Company policies including exorbitant land revenue demands, abolition of cowrie currency, and monopolies on salt production.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the leadership of the Paika Rebellion.
Statement 1 is correct: Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhara, the military commander (Bakshi) of the King of Khurda, organized and led the Paika Rebellion in 1817.
Establishing the historical leadership of the movement.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the colonial policy causes of the uprising.
Statement 2 is correct: The East India Company's conquest of Khurda led to harsh revenue settlements, currency destabilization, and salt monopolies, which triggered widespread discontent.
Identifying the administrative and economic drivers behind the revolt.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the socio-military organization of the Paikas.
Statement 3 is correct: Paikas were the traditional peasant-militia of Odisha who provided policing and military services in return for rent-free lands (Nish-kar Jagirs).
Defining the traditional land-tenure and military system of the Paika community.
4
Synthesize statement evaluations to select the correct combination option.
Since statements 1, 2, and 3 are all historically accurate, the option incorporating all three is correct.
Determining overall statement validity.

Key Concept

Paika Rebellion of 1817 and regional state anti-colonial movements
Question 2598Question

Arrange the following major mineral-producing districts of Odisha in descending order of their total estimated bauxite reserves (from highest to lowest reserve capacity):

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence in descending order of estimated bauxite reserves is Koraput District, followed by Rayagada District, Kalahandi District, and Sundargarh District.
The East Coast Bauxite deposit of Odisha is concentrated heavily in the southern plateau districts. Koraput leads with the massive Panchpatmali deposit, followed by Rayagada with the Baphlimali plateau, Kalahandi with the Niyamgiri and Karlapat reserves, and Sundargarh which primarily features iron and limestone with only minor bauxite deposits.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary bauxite belt of the state
The East Coast Bauxite belt in southern Odisha accounts for over 70% of India's total bauxite deposits.
Geological survey mapping establishes the spatial concentration of metallurgical-grade bauxite in southern districts.
2
Evaluate district-level reserve capacities
Koraput (Panchpatmali) contains over 300 million tonnes of reserves. Rayagada (Baphlimali/Kodingamali) contains approximately 200 million tonnes. Kalahandi (Niyamgiri/Karlapat) holds around 80-90 million tonnes, while Sundargarh in northern Odisha contains only minor pockets.
Detailed exploration data from the Directorate of Geology and Mineral Exploration provides accurate reserve estimates.
3
Rank the districts in descending order
The sequence from highest to lowest is Koraput District → Rayagada District → Kalahandi District → Sundargarh District.
Aligning total reserve tonnages yields the specified descending order.

Key Concept

Spatial Distribution of Natural Mineral Resources in State Economy
Question 2599Question

Which of the following statements regarding state demographic metrics and Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Sex ratio in official census statistics is defined as the number of females per 1,000 males in a given population.; Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are recognized based on criteria such as stagnant or declining population, pre-agricultural level of technology, and very low literacy.

Answer

The correct statements are the standard definition of sex ratio (females per 1,000 males) and the official socio-economic criteria used to designate Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
The statement defining sex ratio as females per 1,000 males and the statement outlining PVTG criteria (declining population, low literacy, pre-agricultural technology) are both accurate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the definition of sex ratio in demographic assessments.
Confirmed that sex ratio measures females per 1,000 males in census reporting.
This is the standard metric for gender balance in official Indian demographic surveys.
2
Examine the official identification criteria for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
Confirmed that stagnant/declining population, low literacy, pre-agricultural technology, and subsistence economy define PVTGs.
These four parameters were set by government commissions to identify communities needing targeted tribal welfare focus.
3
Analyze regional variations in child sex ratio and census literacy age thresholds.
Identified that tribal areas generally post higher child sex ratios than urban districts, and census literacy rules strictly exclude children under 7 years.
Both distractor statements contradict established census methodology and empirical demographic findings.

Key Concept

State Demographics and Tribal Identification Criteria
Question 2600Question

Match the atmospheric compounds listed in List-I with their primary environmental role or atmospheric characteristic in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Stratospheric Ozone
Tropospheric Ozone
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCsHFCs)
Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6SF_6)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Stratospheric Ozone matches filtering harmful solar UV-B radiation; Tropospheric Ozone matches secondary pollutant acting as a short-lived climate force; Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) match non-ozone-depleting greenhouse gases with high heat-trapping capacity; Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6) matches synthetic fluorinated gas with a GWP exceeding 20,000 used in high-voltage switchgear.
Each atmospheric compound is matched to its definitive ecological and chemical profile: stratospheric ozone shields the biosphere from harmful solar UV-B radiation; tropospheric ozone acts as a secondary ground-level pollutant and climate force; hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are non-ozone depleting substitutes with high warming potential; and sulfur hexafluoride (SF6) is an industrial gas with an extreme global warming potential exceeding 20,000.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Differentiate between stratospheric and tropospheric ozone roles.
Stratospheric ozone is beneficial by shielding against UV-B, while tropospheric ozone is a ground-level pollutant and greenhouse gas.
Atmospheric location dictates whether ozone acts as a protective shield or a pollutant.
2
Evaluate the chemical properties of Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCsHFCs).
HFCs do not contain chlorine atoms, meaning zero Ozone Depletion Potential (ODPODP), but exhibit strong radiative forcing.
HFCs were synthesized as alternatives to CFCs/HCFCs to protect the ozone layer, despite their high global warming impact.
3
Identify the Global Warming Potential and application of Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6SF_6).
SF6 is a synthetic heavy gas featuring the highest GWP among Kyoto-regulated greenhouse gases.
Its molecular stability gives it an exceptionally long lifetime and high infrared absorption capability.

Key Concept

Atmospheric Roles and Global Warming Potentials of Greenhouse Gases and Ozone-Related Compounds
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