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Question 321Question →

Match the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) monetary policy instruments in List I with their correct operational descriptions in List II.

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Answer

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) corresponds to mandatory cash balances kept with the RBI; Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) corresponds to holding liquid assets like cash, gold, or government securities; Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) corresponds to the overnight borrowing facility at a penal rate; Open Market Operations (OMO) correspond to the direct buying and selling of government securities.

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) represents cash reserves parked with the RBI, Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) represents liquid assets maintained by banks themselves, Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) represents overnight penal borrowing from the RBI, and Open Market Operations (OMO) represent the purchase and sale of government securities.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the defining feature of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

CRR requires banks to keep cash reserves exclusively with the RBI based on a percentage of their NDTL.

CRR is held purely in cash form with the central bank.

Identify the defining feature of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)

SLR mandates banks to maintain liquid reserves (gold, approved securities, cash) themselves.

It ensures the solvency of banks and drives investment in government securities.

Determine the operational mechanism of Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)

MSF provides scheduled banks an overnight liquidity window during acute cash shortages at a penal rate.

It acts as a lender-of-last-resort overnight emergency facility.

Determine the operational mechanism of Open Market Operations (OMO)

OMO consists of the sale and purchase of government bonds by the RBI to regulate liquidity levels.

Selling G-Secs absorbs excess liquidity while buying G-Secs injects rupee liquidity into the financial system.

Key Concept

Quantitative Tools of RBI Monetary Policy

Question 322Question →

Match the Parliamentary Motions and Devices of the Indian Parliament in List-I with their corresponding procedural features and characteristics in List-II.

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Answer

Calling Attention Motion matches with the Indian procedural innovation seeking an authoritative statement (right_1); Adjournment Motion matches with requiring 50 members' support and carrying an element of censure (right_2); Privilege Motion matches with being moved against a minister for withholding facts or giving distorted information (right_3); and Censure Motion matches with stating specific grounds and not mandating immediate government resignation (right_4).

Each parliamentary device has specific procedural rules defined in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Calling Attention is an Indian innovation (1954). Adjournment motion requires 50 members and censures the executive. Privilege motion addresses misinforming the House. Censure motion requires specific grounds and targets specific minister actions without forcing cabinet resignation.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the procedural characteristics of Calling Attention Motion.

Calling Attention Motion was introduced in Indian parliamentary rules in 1954 to seek an authoritative statement from a minister on an urgent matter.

It distinguishes itself as an indigenous procedural device unlike Point of Order or Adjournment Motion.

Analyze the requirements for Adjournment Motion.

It needs 50 members' support for leave, interrupts scheduled proceedings, and censures government conduct.

Adjournment motion is extraordinary and restricted to Lok Sabha due to its censure implications.

Differentiate between Privilege Motion and Censure Motion.

Privilege Motion focuses on breach of House rights due to misleading facts, whereas Censure Motion targets specific policy actions of a minister or cabinet without requiring cabinet resignation upon adoption.

Understanding the distinct legal and procedural objective of each device is essential.

Key Concept

Parliamentary Devices and Motions in Indian Parliament

Question 323Question →

Match the Constitutional Articles related to the Indian Judiciary listed in List-I with their corresponding provisions in List-II:

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Answer

Article 129 matches with Supreme Court to be a court of record; Article 139A matches with Transfer of certain cases involving the same or substantially same questions of law; Article 215 matches with High Courts to be courts of record; Article 233 matches with Appointment of district judges by the Governor of the State.

Article 129 provides that the Supreme Court is a court of record. Article 139A enables the Supreme Court to transfer cases with common legal questions. Article 215 establishes High Courts as courts of record. Article 233 mandates that appointments of district judges are made by the Governor in consultation with the High Court.

Step-by-Step Solution

Examine the constitutional provisions governing the Supreme Court in Part V of the Constitution of India.

Article 129 designates the Supreme Court as a Court of Record with contempt powers, while Article 139A grants it power to transfer cases involving common questions of law.

This establishes the status and transfer powers of the apex court.

Examine the constitutional provisions governing High Courts and Subordinate Courts in Part VI of the Constitution.

Article 215 designates High Courts as Courts of Record, while Article 233 governs the appointment of District Judges by the State Governor in consultation with the High Court.

This establishes the legal status of High Courts and the appointments mechanism for subordinate judiciary.

Pair each Article in List-I with its corresponding constitutional description in List-II.

Article 129 → Supreme Court as a court of record; Article 139A → Transfer of certain cases; Article 215 → High Courts as courts of record; Article 233 → Appointment of district judges.

The paired items accurately reflect the textual provisions of the Indian Constitution.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles specifying status, powers, and administrative jurisdictions of Supreme Court, High Courts, and Subordinate Courts.

Estimated Time:1m 0s

Question 324Question →

Match the flagship Indian social security schemes listed in List-I with their corresponding beneficiary eligibility criteria and primary benefit structures in List-II:

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Answer

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan matches with unorganized workers earning ≤ ₹15,000/month (18–40 age group) receiving ₹3,000/month pension; Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan-dhan Yojana matches with small and marginal farmers with ≤ 2 hectares land receiving ₹3,000/month pension; Atal Pension Yojana matches with unorganized citizens (18–40 age group) receiving chosen fixed pension slabs of ₹1,000–₹5,000/month; Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana matches with conditional maternity cash benefits for pregnant women and lactating mothers.

Each scheme is mapped correctly to its specific statutory criteria and target population. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan focuses on unorganized workers with a wage ceiling of ₹15,000/month. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan-dhan Yojana restricts participation to small and marginal farmers owning up to 2 hectares of land. Atal Pension Yojana provides flexible pension options (₹1,000 to ₹5,000/month) for unorganized citizens, while Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana focuses on maternity financial compensation.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze PM-SYM eligibility parameters

Identify that PM-SYM is meant for unorganized workers with monthly income not exceeding ₹15,000 and entry age of 18–40 years, matching the corresponding profile in List-II.

PM-SYM focuses on low-income unorganized workers across informal sectors.

Analyze PM-KMY landholding constraint

Identify that PM-KMY incorporates an explicit land-size restriction (small and marginal farmers holding cultivable land up to 2 hectares).

PM-KMY aligns pension security directly with land ownership metrics established under PM-KISAN.

Differentiate APY pension structure from PM-SYM and PM-KMY

Recognize that APY offers variable pension slabs (₹1,000 to ₹5,000 per month) chosen by the subscriber, whereas PM-SYM and PM-KMY provide a fixed ₹3,000 monthly pension.

APY allows pension choice depending on the contribution amount selected during joining.

Identify PMMVY scheme domain

Associate PMMVY with maternity cash incentives rather than old-age voluntary pension mechanisms.

PMMVY under the Ministry of Women and Child Development operates as a welfare cash transfer for maternal health rather than a post-60 pension architecture.

Key Concept

Eligibility thresholds, target demographic definitions, and financial benefit structures of Indian social security architecture.

Estimated Time:2m 0s

Question 325Question →

Match the social welfare schemes listed in List-I with their primary objectives listed in List-II.

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Answer

Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana matches with Universal financial inclusion through zero-balance banking access; Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY matches with Health cover up to ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization; Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana matches with Financial support and maternity benefits for pregnant and lactating mothers; and PM SVANidhi matches with Affordable collateral-free micro-credit loans for urban street vendors.

Each scheme is accurately mapped to its core mandate: Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana serves financial inclusion; Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY provides hospital health cover; Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana delivers maternity cash benefits; and PM SVANidhi supplies micro-loans for street vendors.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the primary objective of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY).

PMJDY matches with financial inclusion and basic banking access.

PMJDY focuses on expanding formal financial services to unbanked households across the nation.

Identify the primary objective of Ayushman Bharat - PMJAY.

Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY matches with health cover up to ₹5 lakh per family per year.

PM-JAY targets vulnerable families to protect them against catastrophic healthcare expenditure.

Identify the primary objective of Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY).

PMMVY matches with maternity financial assistance for pregnant and lactating mothers.

PMMVY delivers cash incentives directly to pregnant women to support health and nutritional needs.

Identify the primary objective of PM SVANidhi.

PM SVANidhi matches with micro-credit working capital loans for urban street vendors.

PM SVANidhi facilitates access to small loans without collateral for informal urban street vendors.

Key Concept

Core focus areas and target objectives of major Indian social security and welfare schemes

Question 326Question →

Match the prominent medieval Sufi key terms listed under List I with their corresponding institutional or cultural descriptions listed under List II:

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Answer

The correct pairings are: Khanqah corresponds to the Sufi hospice or spiritual center; Malfuzat corresponds to the compiled oral discourses of Sufi masters; Ziyarat corresponds to the pilgrimage to a Sufi shrine (dargah); and Sama corresponds to spiritual musical recitations.

Khanqah describes a Sufi hospice, Malfuzat refers to written collections of spoken discourses, Ziyarat is the pilgrimage to Sufi shrines, and Sama is the ritual audition of devotional music.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the term 'Khanqah'

Khanqah was an essential institution of medieval Sufism functioning as a residence, community kitchen (langar), and teaching hall for Sufi masters and disciples.

It matches the description of a hospice or spiritual center.

Analyze the term 'Malfuzat'

Malfuzat (e.g., Fawa'id-ul-Fu'ad by Amir Hasan Sijzi) represents a major source of medieval social history recording direct conversations of Sufi saints.

It matches the description of literary compilations of oral discourses.

Analyze the terms 'Ziyarat' and 'Sama'

Ziyarat refers to ritual pilgrimages to dargahs across India, while Sama refers to auditory spiritual assemblies popularized especially by the Chisti silsila.

Ziyarat matches sacred pilgrimage to shrines, and Sama matches spiritual musical recitations.

Key Concept

Sufi Terminology, Institutional Structures, and Devotional Practices in Medieval India

Estimated Time:1m 0s

Question 327Question →

Match the following committees and proposals from the British colonial era with their primary constitutional focus or recommendation:

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Answer

Muddiman Committee (1924) matches with inquiring into dyarchy under the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms; Butler Committee (1927) matches with examining Crown-Princely States paramountcy; C. Rajagopalachari Formula (1944) matches with proposing a post-war plebiscite in Muslim-majority districts; and Sapru Committee (1945) matches with rejecting partition in favor of joint electorates.

Each body or proposal is correctly paired with its specific historical mandate: the 1924 Muddiman Committee assessed provincial dyarchy under the 1919 Act; the 1927 Butler Committee examined Paramountcy over Princely States; the 1944 Rajagopalachari Formula proposed a plebiscite for separation in Muslim-majority districts; and the 1945 Sapru Committee rejected partition in favor of an undivided federation with joint electorates.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the historical mandate of the Muddiman Committee (1924)

It investigated administrative defects and the working of dyarchy in British Indian provinces established by the 1919 Act.

Demands from Indian political leaders for constitutional revision prompted the colonial government to examine dyarchy's efficacy.

Determine the focus of the Butler Committee (1927)

It defined the scope of Crown Paramountcy over the Princely States.

Princely rulers sought formal clarity on sovereign rights relative to the British Crown.

Analyze the key clause of the C. Rajagopalachari Formula (1944)

It offered a plebiscite mechanism in Muslim-majority districts to determine whether to separate from India.

The formula aimed to secure Muslim League cooperation for immediate independence.

Examine the conclusions of the Sapru Committee Report (1945)

It opposed the division of India into separate sovereign states and recommended joint electorates with safeguards.

The non-party initiative sought to preserve national unity while resolving minority representation concerns.

Key Concept

Constitutional Committees, Commission Mandates, and Transfer of Power Proposals

Question 328Question →

Match the following prominent mountain peaks of India with their corresponding physiographic locations or hill ranges.

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Answer

Anamudi corresponds to the highest peak in Peninsular India (Anaimalai Hills); Dhupgarh corresponds to the highest peak in the Satpura Range (Mahadeo Hills); Guru Shikhar corresponds to the highest peak in the Aravalli Range (Mount Abu); Saddle Peak corresponds to the highest peak of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (North Andaman).

Each mountain peak is accurately matched with its mountain range or geographic sub-region: Anamudi belongs to the Anaimalai Hills, Dhupgarh to the Satpura Range, Guru Shikhar to the Aravalli Range, and Saddle Peak to North Andaman Island.

Step-by-Step Solution

Locate Anamudi within India's physiographic divisions.

Anamudi stands at 2,695 m in the Anaimalai Hills, making it the highest elevation in Peninsular India.

Physiography of the Western Ghats places Anamudi at the junction of the Anaimalai, Cardamom, and Palani hills.

Identify the highest point of the Central Indian relief feature, the Satpura Range.

Dhupgarh is the highest summit of the Satpura Range, situated in the Mahadeo Hills.

Geographical mapping associates Dhupgarh with the Mahadeo range in Madhya Pradesh.

Determine the highest elevation in the relict mountain range of Western India.

Guru Shikhar is the highest summit of the Aravalli Range in Rajasthan.

The Aravalli residual mountains culminate at Mount Abu's Guru Shikhar peak.

Identify the primary peak of the Bay of Bengal island chain.

Saddle Peak is the highest feature in the Andaman & Nicobar group, situated on North Andaman Island.

The island relief features place Saddle Peak on North Andaman.

Key Concept

Major Mountain Peaks and Relief Features of India

Question 329Question →

Match the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) monetary policy mechanisms and liquidity tools in List I with their correct operational framework and liquidity impact in List II:

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Answer

Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) matches with uncollateralized liquidity absorption below Repo Rate; Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) matches with penal overnight borrowing above Repo Rate using SLR quota; Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) matches with non-interest-bearing cash balances against NDTL; and Outright OMO Sales matches with permanent absorption of durable systemic liquidity.

Each instrument correctly corresponds to its exact statutory and operational design: SDF absorbs uncollateralized surplus liquidity, MSF provides penal overnight borrowing against SLR securities, CRR mandates non-earning reserves on NDTL, and OMO sales permanently absorb durable liquidity from the banking system.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the operational mechanics of Standing Deposit Facility (SDF)

SDF is an uncollateralized liquidity absorption instrument functioning as the floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor below the Repo Rate.

It enables liquidity extraction without committing RBI's G-Sec asset portfolio.

Analyze Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) characteristics

MSF allows scheduled commercial banks to borrow emergency overnight funds by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) quota at a rate above the Repo Rate.

It acts as a ceiling safety valve during extreme liquidity shortages.

Evaluate Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) legal and functional framework

Under Section 42(1) of the RBI Act 1934, CRR obligates banks to keep a cash percentage of NDTL with RBI, which earns no interest income.

It directly restricts the credit creation multiplier of commercial banks.

Determine the impact of Outright Open Market Operations (OMO Sales)

Selling G-Secs in the open market permanently extracts currency/liquidity from bank balance sheets.

Unlike repo/reverse repo transactions which are temporary, outright OMO transactions permanently alter durable systemic liquidity.

Key Concept

RBI Quantitative Monetary Tools and Liquidity Adjustment Mechanisms

Question 330Question →

In human geography and demographic studies, different density measures and demographic metrics provide insights into land pressure and age dependency. Match the demographic metrics listed in List-I with their corresponding definitions in List-II:

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Answer

Arithmetic Density matches with the ratio of total population to total geographical area; Physiological Density matches with the ratio of total population to net cultivated land area; Agricultural Density matches with the ratio of agricultural population to net cultivated land area; and Dependency Ratio matches with the ratio of dependent age group to working-age population.

Arithmetic Density measures total population over total land area. Physiological Density measures total population against net cultivated land to assess pressure on arable resources. Agricultural Density isolates the farming population over cultivated land. Dependency Ratio measures the proportion of dependents relative to the active workforce.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the basic land-to-population metric.

Arithmetic Density is total population divided by total geographical area.

It represents the standard measure of population density across all land.

Distinguish between physiological density and agricultural density.

Physiological density uses total population as the numerator over net cultivated land, whereas agricultural density uses agricultural population as the numerator over net cultivated land.

Physiological density indicates general population pressure on arable land, while agricultural density shows farming population density on cultivated land.

Identify the age-structure indicator.

Dependency Ratio relates the dependent population (below 15 years and 65 years & above) to the working-age population (15 to 64 years).

It reflects the demographic burden borne by the productive labor force.

Key Concept

Population density metrics and demographic ratios

Question 331Question →

Match the money market instruments listed in List I with their corresponding issuer profiles and operational characteristics in List II.

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Answer

Call Money Market pairs with uncollateralized overnight interbank lending; Treasury Bills pair with zero-coupon discounted sovereign debt issued by the RBI for the Central Government; Commercial Paper pairs with unsecured corporate promissory notes for working capital; Certificate of Deposit pairs with negotiable bank deposit documents.

The Call Money market facilitates overnight uncollateralized interbank liquidity management. Treasury Bills are zero-coupon sovereign discount instruments issued by RBI for the Union Government. Commercial Papers are unsecured short-term corporate promissory notes. Certificates of Deposit are bank-issued negotiable instruments backed by term deposits.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the primary participant and collateral structure of Call Money Market.

Call Money operates exclusively between banks (and primary dealers) without collateral for 1-day (overnight) periods.

Banks use it to rectify sudden Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) or day-to-day liquidity imbalances.

Analyze Treasury Bills (T-Bills) features.

T-Bills are government debt issued by RBI at discount to face value in standard tenors (91, 182, 364 days).

State Governments cannot issue T-Bills; only the Central Government issues them as risk-free money market instruments.

Differentiate Commercial Paper (CP) from Certificate of Deposit (CD).

Commercial Paper is issued by corporate entities as unsecured promissory notes, whereas Certificates of Deposit are issued by commercial banks against deposited funds.

CP provides short-term working capital for creditworthy companies, while CD mobilizes high-value funds for banks.

Key Concept

Indian Money Market Structure and Financial Instruments

Estimated Time:2m 0s

Question 332Question →

Match the following key fiscal deficit indicators used in the Union Budget of India (List I) with their corresponding official technical definitions (List II). Which set of pairings represents the correct matching between the two lists?

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Answer

Fiscal Deficit matches with 'Total expenditure minus total receipts excluding non-debt receipts / borrowings'; Revenue Deficit matches with 'Excess of total revenue expenditure over total revenue receipts'; Primary Deficit matches with 'Fiscal deficit minus net interest payments on past borrowings'; and Effective Revenue Deficit matches with 'Revenue deficit minus grants-in-aid given to States for the creation of capital assets'.

The correct pairings accurately map each fiscal imbalance metric to its standard definition under Union Budget accounting. Fiscal Deficit reflects net borrowing obligations. Revenue Deficit measures consumption spending exceeding revenue income. Primary Deficit isolates current spending decisions by subtracting interest obligations. Effective Revenue Deficit corrects conventional revenue deficit for capital-forming grants to states.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the definition of Fiscal Deficit

Fiscal Deficit represents overall net debt accumulation and equals total budget expenditure minus total non-debt receipts.

It reflects the total borrowing needs of the government.

Identify the definition of Revenue Deficit

Revenue Deficit equals revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts.

It measures the deficit arising strictly out of non-capital, routine government operations.

Identify Primary Deficit

Primary Deficit equals Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments.

It shows the borrowing requirement arising out of current fiscal operations rather than past liabilities.

Identify Effective Revenue Deficit

Effective Revenue Deficit equals Revenue Deficit minus grants given for capital asset creation.

It separates productive grant expenditures from pure consumption spending.

Key Concept

Key Fiscal Deficit Metrics in Indian Budgeting

Question 333Question →

Match the Constitutional Bodies in List-I with their corresponding Constitutional Functions and Reporting Frameworks in List-II:

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Answer

Election Commission of India matches with vesting the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament and State Legislatures. Comptroller and Auditor General of India matches with auditing expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and submitting reports to the President. Union Public Service Commission matches with submitting an annual report on performance to the President. Finance Commission of India matches with recommending principles governing grants-in-aid and tax distribution.

Each body is correctly paired with its respective constitutional role and reporting framework: Election Commission with election control (Article 324), CAG with financial auditing and reports to the President (Articles 148–151), UPSC with annual performance reports to the President (Article 323), and Finance Commission with tax distribution and grants-in-aid recommendations (Article 280).

Step-by-Step Solution

Examine the constitutional mandate of the Election Commission of India.

Article 324 establishes that superintendence, direction, and control of elections belong to the Election Commission.

It ensures independent conduct of free and fair elections.

Examine the duties of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Article 151 requires the CAG to audit accounts of the Union and submit reports directly to the President.

The CAG serves as the guardian of the public purse.

Examine the reporting mechanism of the Union Public Service Commission.

Article 323 states that the UPSC presents an annual report on work done to the President.

This guarantees executive accountability to Parliament regarding civil service recruitment.

Examine the fiscal role of the Finance Commission of India.

Article 280 requires the Finance Commission to recommend principles for grants-in-aid and tax sharing between the Centre and States.

It acts as a key constitutional mechanism for fiscal federalism.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions, mandates, and report submission frameworks of key Indian constitutional bodies.

Question 334Question →

Match the following government employment and skill development schemes in India (List I) with their respective primary target groups or core operational objectives (List II):

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Answer

Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Koushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) matches with placement-linked training for rural poor youth (15–35 years). SHREYES matches with apprenticeship opportunities for general non-technical higher education students. National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) matches with 25% stipend financial reimbursement to employer establishments. PM Vishwakarma Scheme matches with end-to-end support for traditional artisans across 18 trades.

Each scheme is correctly paired with its target audience and primary mechanism: DDU-GKY focuses on rural youth placement-linked training; SHREYES targets general non-technical higher education graduates; NAPS offers financial incentive stipends to establishments engaging apprentices; and PM Vishwakarma supports traditional artisans and craftspeople across 18 designated family trades.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the target demographic and mandate of DDU-GKY

DDU-GKY focuses exclusively on rural poor youth in the 15–35 age group, emphasizing mandatory employment placement (minimum 70% placed).

It operates under the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) framework.

Analyze SHREYES and its specific education sector focus

SHREYES addresses skill deficits among general degree graduates (non-engineering/non-technical streams) through structured apprenticeship tracks.

General stream graduates often face higher structural unemployment due to lack of practical industry exposure.

Examine the supply-side employer incentive mechanism of NAPS

NAPS incentivizes private and public establishments to hire apprentices by reimbursing 25% of the stipend amount directly.

This reduces cost barriers for industries participating in skill ecosystems.

Evaluate the target traditional craft sector covered by PM Vishwakarma

PM Vishwakarma targets traditional artisans and craftspeople working with hands and tools across 18 specified family-based trades.

The scheme integrates informal sector traditional workers into formal credit, skill development, and market access.

Key Concept

Classification and operational mandates of Indian national skill development initiatives across rural youth, higher education, industrial apprenticeships, and traditional artisans.

Estimated Time:2m 0s

Question 335Question →

Match the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) monetary policy terms in List I with their corresponding functional descriptions in List II.

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Answer

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) matches with the minimum cash percentage kept with RBI; Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) matches with liquid assets held in gold/G-secs; Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) matches with the overnight borrowing window at a higher rate; Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) matches with collateral-free liquidity absorption.

Each monetary policy tool matches its exact operational definition under the RBI framework: CRR specifies cash held with RBI, SLR specifies liquid assets held by banks, MSF provides overnight borrowing under liquidity distress, and SDF absorbs excess liquidity without requiring collateral.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the reserve requirements governing commercial bank deposits.

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) corresponds to mandatory cash balances kept directly with the RBI, whereas Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) corresponds to liquid assets maintained by banks themselves.

CRR and SLR are quantitative reserve requirements designed to ensure liquidity, solvency, and control over money supply.

Identify the specific liquidity adjustment facilities operated by the RBI.

Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is an emergency overnight borrowing window above the Repo rate, while Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) absorbs surplus liquidity without requiring collateral.

MSF provides emergency liquidity injection, whereas SDF serves as the floor rate for liquidity absorption without collateral constraints.

Key Concept

RBI Monetary Policy Reserve Requirements and Liquidity Management Facilities

Estimated Time:1m 0s

Question 336Question →

Match the soil types of India listed in List-I with their corresponding pedological characteristics described in List-II.

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Answer

Laterite Soil corresponds to intense leaching of silica and lime; Black Soil corresponds to high moisture retention and self-ploughing capacity; Saline Soil corresponds to high concentration of soluble salts due to capillary action; Peaty Soil corresponds to accumulation of large amounts of organic matter producing heavy and highly acidic soils.

Each soil type is correctly paired with its primary pedological feature: Laterite Soil with intense tropical leaching of silica and lime, Black Soil with moisture retention and self-ploughing swell-shrink dynamics, Saline Soil with surface salt crusting via capillary action, and Peaty Soil with heavy organic matter accumulation resulting in high acidity.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the pedogenic process of Laterite Soil

Heavy monsoon rainfall washes away soluble nutrients like lime and silica, leaving behind oxides of iron and aluminum.

This intense tropical leaching process is known as laterization.

Analyze the physical mechanics of Black (Regur) Soil

High clay content absorbs water and swells, while drying produces wide cracks that allow surface soil to fall inward.

This natural churning process provides aeration and moisture retention without requiring manual tillage.

Determine the chemical enrichment mechanism of Saline Soil

High evaporation rates draw subsoil water containing dissolved salts to the upper horizon through capillary action.

Excessive salts remain on the surface as a white crust, inhibiting crop root growth.

Examine the composition of Peaty Soil

Humid climatic conditions with waterlogging lead to anaerobic decay of vegetation and massive humus accumulation.

Organic content can reach up to 40-50%, producing a dense, highly acidic soil profile.

Key Concept

Pedological characteristics and pedogenic processes of major Indian soil groups

Question 337Question →

Match List-I (Constitutional Articles of the Union Executive) with List-II (Their Respective Provisions) and select the correct matching code:

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Answer

Article 60 pairs with Oath or affirmation by the President; Article 66 pairs with Election of the Vice-President of India; Article 72 pairs with Power of the President to grant pardons and suspend sentences; Article 76 pairs with Appointment and duties of the Attorney-General for India.

The matching correctly aligns each constitutional article with its specific provision under Part V of the Constitution of India: Article 60 covers the Oath or affirmation by the President, Article 66 governs the Vice-President's election, Article 72 provides the President's pardoning power, and Article 76 provides for the Attorney-General for India.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the constitutional scope of Article 60 and Article 66.

Article 60 covers the oath/affirmation administered to the President (usually by the CJI), while Article 66 details the election of the Vice-President by members of both Houses of Parliament.

Establishing the constitutional articles related to the office and oath of Executive dignitaries.

Match Article 72 and Article 76 to their executive functions.

Article 72 outlines the judicial powers of the President regarding pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment. Article 76 outlines the appointment and role of the Attorney-General for India as part of the Union Executive.

Distinguishing executive clemency provisions from statutory/constitutional law officer roles.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles governing the Union Executive officers and powers

Question 338Question →

Match List-I (Everyday Physical Phenomenon) with List-II (Underlying Physics Principle) and select the correct match:

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Answer

Formation of mirage matches with Total Internal Reflection; Spherical shape of raindrops matches with Surface Tension; Blue sky appearance matches with Rayleigh Scattering; Hydraulic brakes operation matches with Pascal's Law.

Each everyday phenomenon directly corresponds to its core physical law: mirages result from total internal reflection in stratified air temperatures, raindrops assume a minimal surface area sphere due to surface tension, the blue sky is produced by Rayleigh scattering of shorter light wavelengths, and hydraulic brakes transmit force via Pascal's law of fluid pressure.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the cause of desert mirages

Total Internal Reflection

Superheated air near the ground creates a steep refractive index gradient, causing light to undergo total internal reflection.

Identify why raindrops are spherical

Surface Tension

Surface tension forces liquid surfaces to contract into the minimal surface area configuration, which is a sphere.

Identify the mechanism behind the sky's blue color

Rayleigh Scattering

Rayleigh scattering intensity is inversely proportional to the fourth power of wavelength, causing shorter blue wavelengths to scatter widely.

Identify the principle governing hydraulic brakes

Pascal's Law

Pascal's law governs fluid pressure transmission in confined systems, allowing force amplification in hydraulic brakes.

Key Concept

Everyday Applications of Optics, Surface Phenomena, and Fluid Mechanics

Question 339Question →

Match List-I (Early INC Session and Venue) with List-II (Key Historical Significance / Milestone) associated with the early phase of the Indian National Congress.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

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Answer

1887 Session (Madras) matches with Badruddin Tyabji being the first Muslim President; 1888 Session (Allahabad) matches with George Yule being the first European President; 1896 Session (Calcutta) matches with the first recitation of 'Vande Mataram'; and 1899 Session (Lucknow) matches with R. C. Dutt's demand for permanent land revenue fixation.

Each early INC session marked pivotal milestones: 1887 (Madras) introduced the first Muslim President Badruddin Tyabji; 1888 (Allahabad) elected George Yule as the first European President; 1896 (Calcutta) featured the first singing of 'Vande Mataram'; and 1899 (Lucknow) focused on agrarian reforms under Romesh Chunder Dutt.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the leadership and significance of the 1887 Madras and 1888 Allahabad sessions.

The 1887 Madras session was presided over by Badruddin Tyabji (first Muslim president), and the 1888 Allahabad session was presided over by George Yule (first British/European president).

These early sessions established the inclusive, non-sectarian national character of the Indian National Congress across different communities and backgrounds.

Identify the key highlight of the 1896 Calcutta session.

The 1896 Calcutta session, chaired by Rahimtullah M. Sayani, was historic for the first singing of 'Vande Mataram'.

Rabindranath Tagore sang Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay's hymn 'Vande Mataram' for the first time at an official Congress session.

Identify the key highlight of the 1899 Lucknow session.

The 1899 Lucknow session was chaired by Romesh Chunder Dutt, where the Congress focused heavily on the economic critique of land revenue systems.

R. C. Dutt advocated strongly for fixed land taxation to prevent peasant impoverishment and recurrent famines.

Key Concept

Early INC Sessions, Presidents, and Key Historical Resolutions (1885–1905)

Question 340Question →

Match the types of inflation listed in List-I with their corresponding macroeconomic descriptions in List-II.

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Answer

Headline Inflation matches the total inflation figure including food and fuel; Core Inflation matches the measure excluding volatile food and fuel prices; Stagflation matches stagnant economic growth combined with high inflation and unemployment; Bottleneck Inflation matches price rises caused by supply-side disruptions.

Each inflation type is correctly aligned with its economic definition: Headline Inflation captures the total price level including food and energy; Core Inflation excludes volatile food and energy components; Stagflation merges economic stagnation with rising prices; and Bottleneck Inflation stems directly from supply disruptions.

Step-by-Step Solution

Differentiate between Headline and Core Inflation

Headline Inflation measures price changes in the entire consumer basket including food/fuel, whereas Core Inflation removes volatile food and energy prices.

Recognizing the basket composition distinction is essential for macroeconomic measurement.

Analyze Stagflation and Bottleneck Inflation concepts

Stagflation combines economic stagnation with inflation, while Bottleneck Inflation arises specifically from supply chain bottlenecks.

Identifying structural inflation drivers versus macroeconomic stagnation scenarios ensures accurate matching.

Key Concept

Types of inflation and their underlying economic mechanisms

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